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NASM PART 2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits anterior pelvic tilt? | Leg raises |
| Which is the best approach for avoiding activation of the adductors during a floor bridge? | The feet should be hip-width apart and straight ahead |
| What cognitive-behavior approach invovles throughts influencing behavior? | association/dissociation |
| If a client exhibits arms falling forward during an overhead squat assessment, which activity should be avoided? | Treadmill |
| What should be included in a training template for client records? | Exercise selection for the client |
| David has a new client in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy. How should he modify the overhead squat assessment for her? | The range of motion should be decreased |
| What assessment should be avoided or modified if a client’s knees are falling in during a single-leg squat assessment? | shark skill test |
| What is a client's strongest source of self-confidence? | performance accomplishments |
| Which of the following refers to a program design approach that changes acute variables to achieve different goals on a daily or weekly basis? | undulating periodization |
| Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits arms falling forward? | lat pull downs |
| if feet turn out, you should avoid.... | calf raises; calves already overactive |
| if knees cave in, you should avoid: | adducted machine, adductors overactive; leg extension machine. |
| if anterior pelvic tilt, you should avoid: | leg press (focuses on quads but need more glue action); adductor machine (some muscles also work as hop flexors); leg raises ( works hip flexors); leg extension (works the quads), leg curl ( likely to be performed incorrectly with tight front thigh) |
| if arms falling forward, you should avoid... | lat pull downs (work on scapula stabilizers over lat strengthening exercises); chest press machine (doesn't require adequate stabilization); shoulder press (just make sure they don't arch their lower back. |
| Motor (efferent) neurons | transmit nerve impulses from CNS to effector sites. |
| sensory/ afferent neurons | respond to stimuli; transmit nerve impulses from effector sites to CNS. |
| Joint receptors | respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of joints. |
| Fascia | outer layer of connective tissue surrounding a muscle. |
| Fascicles | bundle of individual muscle fibers. |
| Sarcomere | produces muscular contraction; repeating sections of actin and myosin. |
| Type I (slow twitch) muscle tissue | smaller size; fatigue slowly. |
| Type II (fast twitch) muscle tissue | larger size; quick to produce maximal tension; fatigue quickly. |
| local stabilization system | attach directly to the vertebra; transverse abdominis, internal oblique, multifidus, pelvic floor, diaphragm. |
| Global stabilization system | attach from pelvis to spine;quadratus lumborum, psoas major, external oblique, rectus abdominis, gluteus medius, adductor complex, portions of internal oblique. |
| Movement system | attach pelvis/spine to extremities;latissimus dorsi, hip flexors, hamstring complex, quadriceps. |
| right atrium | gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart. |
| left atrium | gathers oxygenated blood from the lungs. |
| SA node | pacemaker |
| ventricles | pump blood out |
| Right ventricle | pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs. |
| Left ventricle | pumps oxygenated blood to the body. |
| Veins | transport blood back to the heart. |
| stroke volume | amount of blood pumped with each contraction |
| cardiac output | volume of blood pumped per minute; heart rate × stroke volume. |
| primary inspiratory muscles | diaphragm, intercostals |
| secondary inspiratory muscles | scalenes, sternocleidomastoid; pectoralis minor |
| Resting oxygen consumption (VO2) | 3.5 ml × kg-1 × min-1 = 1 metabolic equivalent (MET) |
| 1st class lever: | fulcrum in the middle; nodding head |
| 2nd class lever: | calf raise; resistance in the middle; |
| 3rd class lever: | effort in the middle; biceps curl; most common in human limbs. |
| Length-tension relationship | resting length of a muscle and the tension it can produce at that length. |
| Force-velocity curve | as the velocity of a contraction increases, concentric force decreases and eccentric force increases. |
| Neuromuscular efficiency | ability to produce and reduce force, and stabilize the kinetic chain in all three planes of motion. |
| Davis's Law | soft tissue models along the lines of stress |
| Autogenic Inhibition | neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract; provides inhibitory effect to muscle spindles. |
| Altered reciprocal inhibition | muscle inhibition caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist. |
| essential amino acids | cannot be manufactured by the body; must be obtained from food; there are 8. |
| Hydration Recommendations: | we are 60% water • Sedentary adults should consume on average: 3L per day for men, 2.2L per day for women.If exercise exceeds 60min, use sports drink containing up to 8% carbs. |
| Extended periods of sitting | can lead to: tight hip flexors, rounding of shoulders, and forward head. |
| Dress shoes | constantly plantarflexed position leads to tight gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon, causing decreased dorsiflexion and over-pronation (flat feet). |
| Davies test | assesses upper extremity stability and agility. |
| Shark skill test | assesses lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control. |
| Bench press test | estimates 1-rep maximum on overall upper body strength of pressing musculature. |
| Squat test | estimates 1-rep squat maximum and overall lower body strength. |
| Push-up test | measures muscular endurance of the upper body; primarily pushing muscles. |
| LEFT test | assesses agility, acceleration, deceleration, and neuromuscular control. |
| Pregnancy | avoid power and speed assessments; perform push-up assessment on the knees; modify single- leg squat to simply single-leg balance; reduce range of motion for overhead squat. |
| obesity | Rockport walk test is preferred cardio assessment; consider single-leg balance modification of single-leg squat assessment; may need to perform push-up test on knees or with a bench |
| corrective flexibility | increases joint range of motion, improves muscle imbalances, and corrects altered joint motion; autogenic inhibition; use for Phase 1 training. |
| active flexibility | improves extensibility of soft tissue and increases neuromuscular efficiency; reciprocal inhibition; use for Phases 2, 3, and 4 training |
| functional flexibility | maintains integrated, multiplanar soft tissue extensibility and optimal neuromuscular control; full ROM; use for Phase 5 training. |
| Self-myofascial release | gentle pressure breaks up knots within muscle and helps release unwanted tension; autogenic inhibition. |
| Static stretching | passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds; autogenic inhibition. |
| Active-isolated stretching | uses agonists and synergists to dynamically move joints into a range of motion; reciprocal inhibition. |
| Dynamic stretching | uses force production and momentum to move joints through full ranges of motion; reciprocal inhibition. |
| stabilization /phase 1 | 4/2/1 tempo, lower weight, and higher reps in an unstable, but controlled, environment |
| strength (phase 2, 3, 4) | 2/0/2 tempo, moderate to heavy weight, low to moderate reps with full range of motion |
| Power (Phase 5) | Explosive tempo, light weight, moderate reps with full range of motion |
| Core Stabilization Exercises | Little motion through the spine and pelvis; improves neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability; examples: marching, floor bridge, prone floor cobra, prone iso-abs |
| Strength (Phases 2, 3, & 4) Core Exercises | Dynamic eccentric and concentric movements with full range of motion; improves dynamic stabilization, concentric and eccentric strength, and neuromuscular efficiency. crunches, other traditional exercises |
| Power (Phase 5) Core Exercises | Full range of motion at functionally applicable speeds; improves rate of force production. rotations, medical ball throws, oblique/ chop throws |
| Balance Stabilization Exercises | Little joint motion; improves reflexive (automatic) contractions to increase joint stability. example: single leg balance, single leg hip rotation, single leg balance reach, single leg lift and chop |
| Balance Strength Exercises | Dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg with full range of motion; improves neuromuscular efficiency of entire HMS. single leg squat, single leg squat touchdown, single leg deadlift, MP step up to balance; MP lunge to balance |
| Balance Power Exercises | Develops proper deceleration; transitions dynamic state to a controlled stationary position; reactive joint stabilization. MP hop with stabilization; box hops with stabilization |
| plyometric phase 1 stabilization exercises | Little joint motion; establishes optimal landing mechanics, postural alignment, and reactive neuromuscular efficiency; pause to stabilize; examples; squat jump with stabilization, box/MP jumps with stabilization |
| plyometric Strength (Phases 2, 3, & 4) | Dynamic eccentric and concentric movement with full range of motion; improves dynamic joint stabilization, eccentric strength, rate of force production, and neuromuscular efficiency; repetitive. squat jump, tuck jump, butt kick, step ups |
| Plyometric Power (Phase 5) | Entire muscle action and contraction-velocity spectrums; integrated, functional movements; improves rate of force production and optimal force production; explosive. ice skaters. power step ups |
| three types of Principle of Specificities: | Mechanical specificity—the weight and movements placed on the body;Neuromuscular specificity—the speed of contractions and exercise selection;Metabolic specificity—the energy demand placed on the body |
| Undulating periodization | Change OPT Phase/ acute variables to train multiple adaptations while allowing proper recovery (e.g., High-intensity Power workout Mon., low- intensity Stabilization workout Wed. while still recovering, moderate-intensity Strength workout Fri). |
| Which muscles produce flexion, internal rotation, and abduction at the hip? | |
| Which muscle is being lengthened when standing with the hip extended, externally, rotated, and adducted? | |
| Which muscle is overactive when the knees are moving inward? | |
| Which muscle should be foam rolled when the knees move inward and a low back arch is observed? | |
| What are the typical resting heart rates for men and women, respectively? | 70 bpm for men, 75 bpm for women |
| Which of the following are ways in which ATP can be produced? 1. ATP-PC system 2. Glycolysis 3. Oxidative system | all of them |
| Which of these components of physical fitness is the best predictor or morbidity and mortality? | cardiorespiratory fitness |
| What is the name of the test in which a person assumes a push-up position with his/her hands on two pieces of tape about 36 inches apart and alternates touching their left hand to their right hand and vice versa? | Davies Test |
| After 8 weeks of training, how much can children expect to improve strength levels by? | A review of recent literature suggests that untrained children can improve strength levels by an average of 30-40% after 8 weeks of progressive resistance training |
| What percent of calories consumed should be from lipids? | According to the Institute of Medicine, fat intake should contitute 20-35% of an adults total caloric intake |
| In which stage of the stages of change model have people formed a change in their behavior for over six months? | Maintenance is when a client has been consistently exercising regularly for over six months |
| It is recommended that adults should spend 150 minutes every week doing moderate-intensity aerobic exercise or ____ minutes every week doing vigorous-intensity aerobic activity | 75 minutes of high intensity has been found to bring about the same benefits as 150 minutes of moderate intensity |
| How many Americans do not experience at least 30 minutes of exercise on a regular basis? | It is estimated that over 75% of Americans do not partake in at least 30 minutes of moderate physical activity on a regular basis |
| Name two common tests for assessing cardiorespiratory efficiency. | YMCA 3 minute step test or rockport walk test |
| What are three methods of assessing body fat percentage? | Underwater weighing, bioelectrical impedance, and skin-fold measurements |
| What are the two main calf muscles that are responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion | Gastrocnemius and soleus |
| Name the muscle that is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation. | Gluteus maximus |
| Name the class of medication that decreases heart rate and blood pressure | beta blockers |
| During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the client's arms fall forward?" | Latissimus dorsi, teres major, pectoralis major/minor |
| Name 2 conditions in which Beta-blockers might be prescribed. | High blood pressure and arrhythmias |
| What is the starting zone of cardiorespiratory training when a client scores poor during the YMCA 3-Minute Step Test? | Zone one |
| What is the starting zone of cardiorespiratory training when a client scores average on the YMCA 3-Minute Step Test? | Zone two |
| Name four core-strength exercises. | Ball Crunch, Back Extensions, Reverse Crunch, Cable Rotations |
| Name four core-stabilization exercises. | Marching, Floor Bridge, Floor Prone Cobra, Prone Iso-abs |
| It is critical that the core training program is designed to achieve these three functional outcomes in the right order. | 1. Intervertebral stability, 2. Lumbopelvic stability, 3. Movement efficiency |
| Name four core-power exercises. | Rotation Chest Pass, Ball Medicine Pullover Throw, Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw, Soccer Throw; explosive movements with MB |
| Name five balance-stabilization exercises. | Single-leg Balance, Single-leg Balance Reach, Single-leg Hip Internal and External Rotation, Single-leg Lift and Chop, Single-leg Throw and Catch |
| Name five balance-strength exercises. | Single-leg Squat, Single-leg Squat Touchdown, Single-leg Romanian Deadlift, Step-up to Balance, Multiplanar Lunge to Balance |
| Name three balance-power exercises. | Multiplanar Hop with Stabilization, Multiplanar Single-leg Box Hop-up with Stabilization, Multiplanar Single-leg Box Hop-down with Stabilization |
| What are four plyometric-stabilization exercises? | Squat Jump with Stabilization, Box Jump-up with Stabilization, Box Jumpdown with Stabilization, Multiplanar Jump with Stabilization |
| Name four plyometric-strength exercises. | Squat Jump, Tuck Jump, Butt Kick, Power Step-up |
| Name three plyometric-power exercises. | Ice Skater, Single-leg Power Step-up, Proprioceptive Plyometrics |
| The adaptation of muscular hypertrophy is best achieved using which of the following repetition ranges and intensity? | 6-12 reps at 75% to 85% of the 1RM |
| core power exercise | Rotation chest pass, soccer throw |
| Which of the following balance exercises is appropriate for a client training in Phase 2 of the OPT™ model? | Single-leg squat touchdown |
| A client at the power level of an Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model should ideally be given drills with: | maximum horizontal inertia |
| A client at the strength level of an Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model should ideally be given drills with: | limited unpredictability. |
| A client who is practicing repeated squat exercises in order to create permanent changes in her technique is exhibiting | motor learning |
| A client's head protrudes during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles should be stretched? | sternocleidomastoid |
| A personal trainer observes that a client leans forward excessively while performing an overhead squat. Based on this observation, the appropriate action is to | static stretch the soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex. |
| During a single-leg squat assessment, the client's standing leg caves inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive? | gluteus medius |
| During the overhead squat assessment, the client's arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are considered to be overactive? | pectoralis major |
| During the overhead squat assessment, the client's arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are considered to be overactive? Pectoralis minor Dynamic stretching improves soft tissue extensibility by using which of the following? | reciprocal inhibition |
| If a client exhibits increased force output of his hamstrings and adductor magnus to compensate for a weakened gluteus maximus during hip extension, this is an example of which of the following? | synergistic dominance |
| If a client squats with his feet excessively externally rotated, it is evidence of which of the following? | Altered arthrokinematics |
| Split routine system | mondays- chest, thursdays- legs |
| Performing resistance training exercises in a circuit fashion in order to burn more calories is an example of which of the following principles of specificity? | METABOLIC |
| Which form of stretching should be used to decrease muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity? | static stretching |
| Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate to determine an athlete's maximal strength capabilities of the upper body pressing musculature? | Bench press 1RM test |
| Which of the following exercises is the next progression to a two-arm dumbbell chest press on a stability ball for a client who is in a Phase 1 OPT program? | Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on a stability ball |
| Which of the following is the best example of a stabilization level reactive exercise? | Have the client perform a squat jump and hold the landing for five seconds before performing another rep. |
| Which of the following muscles is most likely overactive if a client's head protrudes forward during the pushing assessment? | levator scapulae |
| Which of the following stimulates muscle fibers to go through a series of steps that initiate muscle contractions? | ACh |
| After leaving the left ventricle, blood enters which of the following structures? | aorta |
| During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weakened gluteus maximus. This is an example of which of the following concepts | force-couple relationships |
| If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead-squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client's warm-up? | hip flexor complex |
| During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. Which of the following muscles would he expect to be shortened? | Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major |
| During a pulling assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client's shoulders elevate. Which of the following muscles is most likely underactive? | lower trapezius |
| During a single leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices his client's knee drifting inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive? | gluteus medius |
| Contracting the quadriceps while performing a hamstring stretch will cause which of the following effects? | reciprocal inhibition |
| A client is performing a standard push-up and the trainer notes a low-back arch. Which of the following muscles are most likely weak or underactive? | transverse abdominis |
| Which of the following pairs is an example of a Phase 2 Strength Endurance Training superset? | Barbell squat and single-leg touchdown |
| Which of the following constitutes the local stabilization system? | type I muscle fibers |
| The training strategy for Strength Endurance training involves using _____. | supersets |
| In the context of selecting an appropriate speed of movement during training, muscular endurance and stabilization is best developed with a(n): | slow repetition tempo |
| When an individual performs chest presses, the range of motion at the shoulder joint is determined by the load one is lifting and _____. | tissue extensibility |
| High-volume training with low intensity produces an increased: | Metabolic rate |
| Identify the purpose of stretch-shortening cycles. | c) To produce the necessary force to change the direction of an object's center of mass efficiently |
| Low-volume training with high intensity produces an increased: | rate of force production |
| Identify a true statement about an eccentric motion. | eccentric motion is a braking motion |
| Scapular protraction refers to the _____ of the scapula. | abduction |
| Which of the following is a difference between the oblique medicine ball throw and the overhead medicine ball throw? | The overhead medicine ball throw begins in the semi-squat position |
| Which of the following collects the channeled air coming from the conducting airways? | alveoli |
| During the pushing assessment, you notice your client's shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise would you perform with them? | ball cobra |
| Optimal length-tension relationships, force-couple relationships, and _____ in the muscles of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC) establish neuromuscular and structural efficiency throughout the entire human movement system. | Arthrokinematics |
| The main goal of balance training is to continually increase a client's awareness of his or her limit of stability awareness by creating: | Controlled instability |
| Core-stabilization exercises are designed to improve _____. | Neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability |
| Exercises in _____ training involve the entire muscle action spectrum and contraction-velocity spectrum used during integrated, functional movements. | reactive power |
| What are the effects of vasodilators on heart rate and blood pressure? | They increase HR and decrease BP. |
| During the descent of a single-leg squat, a client's knee moves inward. Which of the following muscles should the trainer recognize as requiring static stretching? | Vastus lateralis |
| During the overhead squat assessment, the knees move inward. Which of the following strengthening exercises should be used? | tube walking |
| In order to develop higher levels of stability while pushing, chest exercises will need to be performed with _____. | Controlled, unstable exercises, at slower speeds |
| For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise highly contraindicated? | 2nd/third trimester pregnancy |
| The primary muscle of the movement system is: | Quadratus lumborum |
| When performing a _____, the resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction. | Standing cable row |
| Which of the following is an example of a core-stabilization level exercise? | Two-leg floor bridge |
| A deficiency of which vitamin can lead to difficulty seeing at night and an increased susceptibility to infections? | Vitamin A |
Created by:
angelette767