fitness program design that systematically progresses a client toward a goal; allows optimal development of physiological, physical, & performance adaptations; improving fitness and reducing the risks of chronic disease, musculoskeletal pain, and injury.

Chronic diseases (e.g., asthma, obesity, cancer, diabetes, and heart disease) account for around 70% of deaths each year in the United States.

Roughly 66% of Americans over the age of 20 are overweight, with around 34% classified as obese.

Low-back pain affects nearly 80% of all adults,

80,000– 100,000 ACL injuries occur in the general population each year

Training programs need to emphasize

multiplanar movements through the full muscle action spectrum and should be performed in an environment that enriches proprioception.

Stabilization; phase 1: stabilization endurance; clients work on fitness foundations (e.g., improving flexibility, balance, joint stability, and endurance

Strength; phase 2- strength endurance; phase 3- hypertrophy training; phase 4- maximal strength training.

Power; putting everything together to increase clients’ abilities to generate forces at functionally realistic speeds

Rate of force production

Ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.

According to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, which of the following corresponds to the first phase of training?

Stabilization endurance training

What is neuromuscular efficiency?

Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion

The rate of force production relates to the ability of muscles to do which of the following

Exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time

Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint

sense mechanical information- touch, pressure, stretching, motion. information is sent to the CNS for processing and interpretation. After processing, nerves transmit information from the CNS back to the muscles to act.

Two important mechanoreceptors

muscle spindles and GTOs; spindles sense length/stretching, GTOs sense muscular tension. GTO activation causes muscle to relax (to avoid excessive tension). Muscle spindle activation causes contraction (to avoid excessive stretching of a muscle).

Two types of muscle fibers:

Type I (slow twitch; endurance) and Type II (fast twitch; power)

Synergist in a rowing exercise:

biceps brachii and posterior deltoids are synergists because they help the back muscles (latissimus dorsi) perform the movement.

the gluteus maximus and quadriceps

secreted by the pancreas; regulate blood glucose for use by all bodily cells for energy production.

Catecholamines, such as epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine

produced by the adrenal glands; responsible for readying our bodies for activity and the fight or flight response.

secreted by the pituitary gland; mainly responsible for stimulating growth during puberty.

The neuromuscular response to the sensory information after interpretation.

Sensory (afferent) neurons

Neurons that transmit nerve impulses from effector sites (such as muscles and organs) via receptors to the brain and spinal cord.

Motor (efferent) neurons

Neurons that transmit nerve impulses from the brain and spinal cord to effector sites.

Mechanoreceptors surrounding a joint that respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of the joint.

Fibrous tissue that connects bones together and provides stability, input to the nervous system, guidance, and the limitation of improper joint movement.

A layer of connective tissue that is underneath the fascia and surrounds the muscle.

The deepest layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual muscle fibers.

The connective tissue that surrounds fascicles.

A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it connects to.

Which of the following is a characteristic of joint receptors in the human body?

They respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of joints.

atria collect blood in the heart; ventricles pump blood; Oxygenated blood from lungs -> left atrium -> left ventricle -> rest of the body. Deoxygenated blood from body --> right atrium -> right ventricle -> lungs for oxygen

The vessels that move blood into the heart are called veins, while the vessels that move blood out of the heart are called arteries; smaller branches are arterioles, then capillaries (where nutrients, water, and oxygen are taken up for metabolism)

three functions of blood:

transportation, regulation, protection

At rest, humans consume roughly 3.5mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute. This is also termed one metabolic equivalent (MET)

The space in the chest between the lungs that contains all the internal organs of the chest except the lungs.

Atrioventricular (AV) node

A small mass of specialized cardiac muscle fibers, located in the wall of the right atrium of the heart, that receives heartbeat impulses from the sinoatrial node and directs them to the walls of the ventricles.

Heart rate × stroke volume; the overall performance of the heart.

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NASM CPT

Term	Definition
the OPT model	fitness program design that systematically progresses a client toward a goal; allows optimal development of physiological, physical, & performance adaptations; improving fitness and reducing the risks of chronic disease, musculoskeletal pain, and injury.
Chronic diseases (e.g., asthma, obesity, cancer, diabetes, and heart disease) account for around 70% of deaths each year in the United States.	Roughly 66% of Americans over the age of 20 are overweight, with around 34% classified as obese.
Low-back pain affects nearly 80% of all adults,	80,000– 100,000 ACL injuries occur in the general population each year
Training programs need to emphasize	multiplanar movements through the full muscle action spectrum and should be performed in an environment that enriches proprioception.
First Level of OPT:	Stabilization; phase 1: stabilization endurance; clients work on fitness foundations (e.g., improving flexibility, balance, joint stability, and endurance
2nd Level of OPT:	Strength; phase 2- strength endurance; phase 3- hypertrophy training; phase 4- maximal strength training.
3rd level of OPT:	Power; putting everything together to increase clients’ abilities to generate forces at functionally realistic speeds
Rate of force production	Ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.
refers to the cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movements	proprioception
According to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, which of the following corresponds to the first phase of training?	Stabilization endurance training
What is neuromuscular efficiency?	Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion
Which of the following involves performing exercises in a superset sequence?	Strength Endurance Training
Which of the following is a primary focus of exercising in the Stabilization Level of training?	Muscular endurance
The rate of force production relates to the ability of muscles to do which of the following	Exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time
muscle imbalance	Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint
mechanoreceptors	sense mechanical information- touch, pressure, stretching, motion. information is sent to the CNS for processing and interpretation. After processing, nerves transmit information from the CNS back to the muscles to act.
Two important mechanoreceptors	muscle spindles and GTOs; spindles sense length/stretching, GTOs sense muscular tension. GTO activation causes muscle to relax (to avoid excessive tension). Muscle spindle activation causes contraction (to avoid excessive stretching of a muscle).
Two types of muscle fibers:	Type I (slow twitch; endurance) and Type II (fast twitch; power)
Synergist in a rowing exercise:	biceps brachii and posterior deltoids are synergists because they help the back muscles (latissimus dorsi) perform the movement.
Agonist in a squat:	the gluteus maximus and quadriceps
Stabilizers during a chest press:	rotator cuff
Insulin and glucagon	secreted by the pancreas; regulate blood glucose for use by all bodily cells for energy production.
Catecholamines, such as epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine	produced by the adrenal glands; responsible for readying our bodies for activity and the fight or flight response.
Growth hormone	secreted by the pituitary gland; mainly responsible for stimulating growth during puberty.
Motor function	The neuromuscular response to the sensory information after interpretation.
Sensory (afferent) neurons	Neurons that transmit nerve impulses from effector sites (such as muscles and organs) via receptors to the brain and spinal cord.
Motor (efferent) neurons	Neurons that transmit nerve impulses from the brain and spinal cord to effector sites.
Joint receptors	Mechanoreceptors surrounding a joint that respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of the joint.
Ligaments	Fibrous tissue that connects bones together and provides stability, input to the nervous system, guidance, and the limitation of improper joint movement.
Epimysium	A layer of connective tissue that is underneath the fascia and surrounds the muscle.
Endomysium	The deepest layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual muscle fibers.
Perimysium	The connective tissue that surrounds fascicles.
Motor unit	A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it connects to.
Which mechanoreceptor helps prevent muscles from stretching too far or too fast?	Muscle spindle
Which of the following glands releases growth hormone during childhood up until puberty?	pituitary
Which of the following is a characteristic of joint receptors in the human body?	They respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of joints.
Which term refers to a system of glands that secrete hormones into the bloodstream to regulate a variety of bodily functions and consists of host organs, chemical messengers, and target cells?	Endocrine system
rhythm of the heart is controlled by	SA node "pacemaker"
atria and ventricles	atria collect blood in the heart; ventricles pump blood; Oxygenated blood from lungs -> left atrium -> left ventricle -> rest of the body. Deoxygenated blood from body --> right atrium -> right ventricle -> lungs for oxygen
veins and arteries	The vessels that move blood into the heart are called veins, while the vessels that move blood out of the heart are called arteries; smaller branches are arterioles, then capillaries (where nutrients, water, and oxygen are taken up for metabolism)
three functions of blood:	transportation, regulation, protection
oxygen consumption	At rest, humans consume roughly 3.5mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute. This is also termed one metabolic equivalent (MET)
The maximum amount of oxygen a person can consume and use during a bout of maximal intensity effort	VO2max
Mediastinum	The space in the chest between the lungs that contains all the internal organs of the chest except the lungs.
Atrioventricular (AV) node	A small mass of specialized cardiac muscle fibers, located in the wall of the right atrium of the heart, that receives heartbeat impulses from the sinoatrial node and directs them to the walls of the ventricles.
Cardiac output (Q)	Heart rate × stroke volume; the overall performance of the heart.
Arterioles branch out into vessels know as what?	Capillaries
Heavy breathing results in an increase in the activity level of which of the following secondary respiratory muscles?	Scalenes
Which of the following refers to vessels that transport blood from the capillaries toward the heart?	Veins
Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through which of the following vessels?	Pulmonary arteries
In which of the following structures are water and chemicals exchanged between the blood and tissues?	capillaries
Which of the following is a small terminal branch of an artery, which ends in capillaries?	Arteriole
What may be the best measure of cardiorespiratory fitness?	Maximal oxygen consumption
three primary energy systems:	the ATP-PC system, the glycolytic system, and the oxidative system.
Fat versus carbs as a fuel source:	A fat molecule is much more energy-dense than a carbohydrate molecule but takes much longer to break down and requires much more oxygen for use, so the body still prefers glucose as its primary source of fuel.
ATP-PC	energy system responsible for providing near- instant ATP at the onset of any activity; anaerobic; 10-15 seconds
The second system, glycolysis, is both an anaerobic and an aerobic process.	carbs (glucose and glycogen) are broken down, forming ATP;either pyruvic acid or lactic acid as a byproduct (depending on presence of 02);anaerobic glycolysis becomes the preferred energy system for bouts of intense activity lasting up to 30-50 seconds
β-oxidation	The breakdown of triglycerides into smaller subunits, called free fatty acids (FFAs), to convert FFAs into acyl-CoA molecules, which then are available to enter the Krebs cycle and ultimately lead to the production of additional ATP.
During glycolysis, in the presence of oxygen, pyruvic acid is converted into which important molecule in metabolism?	Acetyl coenzyme A
For which activity is the oxidative system primarily used?	Jogging for 30 minutes
Which of the following is true of glycogen?	It is a complex carbohydrate that can be rapidly broken down into glucose
Which of the following energy pathways is used for activities lasting between 30 and 50 seconds?	Glycolysis
How does metabolism behave during EPOC?	Remains elevated
Which of the following energy systems is used most when running a 10-second sprint?	ATP-PC
A client runs a mile in 6 min and 30 seconds. Which of the following energy systems is the client primarily using to produce energy?	Oxidative
In which of the following scenarios would energy be mostly derived from anaerobic metabolism?	When an athlete begins an activity
planes of movement:	1. frontal plane- front/back halves; side-to-side movements, like side lunges or shoulder abduction. 2. sagittal plane- left/right halves ; front-to-back and up-and-down movements like squats and lunges. 3. transverse- upper/lower halves; rotational
Joint motions in sagital plane:	flexion/extension
frontal plane:	abduction, adduction, lateral flexion;
transverse plane:	internal/external rotation; horizontal abduction/adduction
concentric:	lifting portion; shortening muscle; object acceleration;
eccentric:	lowering portion; lengthening muscle; deceleration;
isometric	muscular force and the resistance force are equal, no movement occurs
muscle’s length-tension relationship	Every muscle has an ideal length from which it can generate the optimal amount of force.
force-couple.	Muscle groups moving together to produce movement around a joint;muscles surrounding a joint pull it in one direction;
Muscular Leverage	Most segments of the body act as third class levers, with the fulcrum being the axis around which the joint rotates. This movement around an axis is termed rotary motion, and the force that causes this rotation is called torque.
knowledge of performance	describes the quality of a movement while it is happening
knowledge of results	Feedback given after a movement is performed to help inform a client about the outcome of the performance. New clients will need more knowledge of performance feedback than a skilled advanced client.
Motor control	How the CNS integrates internal and external sensory information with previous experiences to produce a motor response.
Motor learning	Integration of motor control processes through practice and experience, leading to a relatively permanent change in the capacity to produce skilled movements.
Sensorimotor integration	The cooperation of the nervous and muscular system in gathering and interpreting information and executing movement.
Horizontal abduction involves the movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from which of the following positions to a lateral position?	Anterior
Which of the following is an example of a sagittal plane movement?	Triceps pushdown
Which term refers to an imaginary bisector that divides the body into front and back halves?	frontal plane
Scapular elevation refers to which of the following motions of the scapula?	Superior
In which plane of motion does a hammer curl occur?	Sagittal
As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases. This is an example of which of the following?	Force-velocity curve
Adduction is a movement back toward the midline of the body in which of the following planes?	Frontal plane
Systolic and Diastolic BP	Systolic is the pressure after the heart contracts; top number in a BP reading. Diastolic is the pressure during the moment when the heart is briefly relaxing and refilling with blood and is the bottom (2nd) number in a BP reading. ≤120/≤80mm Hg
skinfold calipers with the Durnin formula:	triceps biceps iliac crest and subscapularis
HR zones:	zone 1: 65-75%; zone 2: 75-85%; zone 3: 85-95%
Overhead squat assessment; hips leaning forward: overactive muscles:	Soleus, Gastrocnemius, Hip flexor complex, Abdominal complex
Overhead squat assessment; hips leaning forward: underactive muscles:	Anterior tibialis; Gluteus maximus; Erector spinae;
Overhead squat assessment; back arches: overactive muscles:	Hip flexor complex; Erector spinae; Latissimus dorsi
Overhead squat assessment; back arches: underactive muscles:	Gluteus maximus Hamstring complex Intrinsic core stabilizers (transverse abdominis, multifidus, transversospinalis, internal obliques, pelvic floor)
Overhead squat assessment; arms fall: overactive muscles:	Latissimus dorsi Teres major Pectoralis major/minor
Overhead squat assessment; arms fall: underactive muscles:	Mid/lower trapezius Rhomboids Rotator cuff
Overhead squat assessment; feet turn out; overactive muscles:	Soleus Lateral gastrocnemius Biceps femoris (short head)
Overhead squat assessment; feet turn out; underactive muscles:	Medial gastrocnemius; Medial hamstring complex; Gracilis Sartorius Popliteus
Overhead squat assessment; knees move inward; overactive muscles:	Adductor complex Biceps femoris (short head) TFL Vastus lateralis
Overhead squat assessment; knees move inward; underactive muscles:	Gluteus medius/maximus; Vastus medialis oblique
assessing upper and lower body strength:	upper: Bench press; lower: squats; find 1-rep max and then practice a certain % of it;
assessments for muscular endurance:	pushup test
assessments for upper body agility and stabilization	Davies test
assessment for lower body agility and neuromuscular control	Shark Skill test
Which of the following assessments measures muscular endurance of the upper body?	Push-up assessment
If a client's knees move inward during an overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be foam rolled?	adductors
The client's feet turn out when performing the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is likely the overactive muscle?	Lateral gastrocnemius
Which of the following can be caused by low-back injuries?	Decreased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core
During a pulling assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client's shoulders elevate. Which of the following muscles is most likely underactive?	Lower trapezius
Which of the following body composition assessments is most appropriate for an obese client?	Circumference measurements
During a pushing and pulling assessment, the personal trainer notices that a client demonstrates shoulder elevation. Which of the following muscles are most likely overactive?	Levator scapulae
Which of the following is true for the upper extremity strength assessment?	. Client should warm-up with up to 8-10 repetitions using light resistance
Which of the following would be most useful in determining shoulder complex compensations?	Pushing assessment, lateral view
relative flexibility-	The human body will always find a way to accomplish an intended movement, even if the muscles lack the flexibility to correctly perform it.
reciprocal inhibition	In order for the agonist to contract and shorten, the antagonist must relax and lengthen. When the agonist gets its neural signal to contract, the antagonist receives a signal to relax at the same time. This is reciprocal inhibition in action.
altered reciprocal inhibition:	Altered reciprocal inhibition is caused by an overactive (tight) muscle decreasing neural drive to its functional antagonist. This reduces the force output capabilities of the underactive muscles on the other side of the joint.
Autogenic Inhibition	GTO relaxation signals > spindle’s contraction signals. overstretching identified by muscle spindle. muscle spindle causes contraction to avoid additional lengthening. ~30s, GTO’s relaxation impulses > the muscle spindle.
Integrated Flexibility Continuum's 3 parts:	1. Corrective Flexibility (MFR and static stretching); 2. Active Flexibility (MFR and active isolated stretching) 3. Functional Flexibility (MFR and Dynamic Stretching)
Active-Isolated Stretching	Happens in active flexibility at Strength level;he client will hold each stretch for only 1-2 seconds and repeat them for 5-10 repetitions each. By performing stretching in this manner, uses reciprocal inhibition to increase joint range of motion.
Dynamic Flexibility	not only primes muscle extensibility like active-isolated stretching does, but it also activates the prime mover muscles all throughout the body. optimally warms-up clients for Power Level work or prior to athletic competition
Davis's Law	States that soft tissue models along the lines of stress.
What should a client foam roll to effectively target the piriformis when performing self-myofascial release?	Posterior hip
Internally rotating the back hip during the active kneeling hip flexor stretch places a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?	Psoas
What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?	static stretching
Increased force output of the synergists for hip extension to compensate for the weakened gluteus maximus is an example of which of the following?	Synergistic dominance
When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus; what is this an example of?	altered reciprocal inhibition
What term refers to the simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist?	Reciprocal inhibition
Holding a static stretch for at least 30 seconds causes which of the following neuromuscular phenomena?	Autogenic inhibition
Which of the following clients would use active-isolated stretching during a warm-up?	Strength Level client
Which form of stretching should be used to inhibit muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity?	Static stretching
FITTE	frequency, intensity, time, type, and enjoyment, and it serves as the guiding principle for using cardiorespiratory training with clients of all levels.
the Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans recommends	a total of 2.5 (150min) hours of moderate-intensity aerobic activity, or 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity activity, each week.
most commonly used way to set exercise intensity. It uses a simple formula to estimate a person’s maximal heart rate (HRmax), and then has the individual exercise at a percentage of that maximum. The equation is simply HRmax = 220 – age.	Maximal Heart rate
Oxygen uptake reserve (VO2R)	The difference between resting and maximal oxygen consumption.
Ventilatory threshold (Tvent)	The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake, signifying a switch from predominately aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production.
Which of the following requires a client to perform cardiorespiratory exericse at maximal effort while monitoring ventilation response?	Peak VO2 method
How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last?	5-10 minutes
Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation?	Bicycles
Which of the following is a formula that determines a client's target heart rate during exercise?	Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
Which of the following is a benefit of integrated cardiorespiratory training?	It decreases resting heart rate.
Which of the following is a technique used to express or validate how a client feels when he or she is working during exercise?	RPE
Which of the following best describes when a person is ready to move to stage II cardiorespiratory training from stage I?	Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes.
According to the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time per week an individual should engage in physical activity if performed at a moderate-intensity level?	150 min
Which of the following intensity ranges best describes someone just moving into a zone 3 cardiorespiratory training workout?	86-90%
local stabilization system.	attach directly to the vertebrae. They consist of primarily type I (slow twitch) muscle fibers and work to stabilize the vertebral column to protect the spinal cord.• Transverse abdominis;• Internal obliques; Lumbar multifidus; Pelvic floor; Diaphragm
global stabilization system.	attach from the spine to the pelvis and help stabilize the entire LPHC during all functional movements; all the core and adductors
movement system	most superficial and are responsible for movement throughout the LPHC.Latissimus dorsi • Hip flexors • Hamstring complex • Quad
Roughly 80% of American adults experience low back pain at some point in their lives.	consequence of weakness in the local and global core stabilizer muscles; drawing in or bracing techniques
core stabilization exercises / core strength exercises / core power exercises	stabilization level-isometric-no movement; planks; strength level--concentric and eccentric contractions--usual ab exercises; core power level - explosive plyometrics like throwing balls
Which of the following exercises is the most effective at improving dynamic stabilization, concentric strength, eccentric strength, and neuromuscular efficiency of the entire kinetic chain?	Reverse crunch
A client is performing a prone iso-ab exercise. The trainer notices that he is not able to maintain proper alignment. How should the exercise be regressed?	Perform in a standard push-up position.
Bracing occurs when a person contracts the abdominal and buttock muscles at the same time as which of the following?	lower back
A client experiences difficulty in performing the prone iso-abs exercise. Which of the following should be suggested as an regression?	Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise
In core-power training (Phase 5), what are exercises designed to improve?	Rate of force production of the core musculature
During functional movement patterns, a client demonstrates excessive spinal motion. Which of the following core exercises should the trainer recognize as being most appropriate for this individual?	Two-leg floor bridge
Which of the following training types involves little motion through the spine and pelvis?	Core-stabilization
Which muscle do clients need proper extensibility of before performing the ball medicine ball (MB) pullover throw exercise, in order to decrease stress to the low back and shoulders?	Latissimus dorsi
Which of the following is a core-stabilization exercise?	Floor prone cobra
Proprioceptive Progression Continuum	loor → balance beam → half foam roll → foam pad → balance disc → wobble board → BOSU ball
Example balance-stabilization exercises include	single- leg balance, single-leg balance reach, and single-leg lift and chop.
Strength Level, balance-strength exercises involve the balance leg moving through a full range of motion with eccentric and concentric muscle actions. examples?	single-leg squat, single-leg Romanian deadlift, and lunge to balance are common balance-strength exercises.
Power Level of balance training:	balance-power exercises = hop + stabilization(single-leg balance for 3-5 seconds upon landing). examples: multiplanar hop with stabilization, multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization, and multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization.
Which balance-power exercise involves lifting one leg directly beside balance leg, hopping off the box and landing on ground on one leg; keeping toes pointing straight ahead and knees directly over the toes, and holding this position for 3 to 5 seconds?	Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?	Balance-strength
For which exercise is a single-leg position a progression?	Medicine ball chest pass
A personal trainer is working with a client who is having trouble performing a single-leg balance on a foam pad. Which of the following balance training modalities is appropriate for this client?	A half foam roll
When selecting a balance exercise, which of the following is the most appropriate progression?	Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc
While performing a single-leg squat touchdown, which of the following ways can the proprioceptive challenge be increased?	By standing on a foam pad.
While performing a multiplanar lunge to balance exercise, a client exhibits excessive extension of the lumbar spine. Which of the following instructions can help this client?	Tell the client to reduce their stride length.
A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?	Balance-power
Which of the following balance exercises is appropriate for a client training in Phase 1 of the OPT model?	Single-leg balance reach
What is the balance-stabilization exercise that involves lifting one leg directly beside the balance leg while maintaining optimal alignment including level hips and shoulders and holding this position for 5-20 seconds?	Single-leg balance
plyometric training	explosive movements for muscular power;“jump training” or “reactive training”; eccentric muscle action + an explosive concentric contraction; train the muscles to increase their rate of force production, allowing them to exert more force
integrated performance paradigm	for movements to be most efficient, forces must be properly dampened, stabilized, and accelerated. known as the stretch-shortening cycle;The ability to move through this stretch-shortening cycle at faster rates = higher levels of neuromuscular efficiency.
Plyometric Training with the OPT Model	L1/stabilization: low-intensity; improve landing. hold landing position for 3-5sec. squat jump w/ stab, box jump-up w/ stab, and box jump-down w/ stab. L2/Strength: stab. out- repetitive. L3/Power: fast& explosively (ice skaters, single leg hops)
Which of the following involves the entire muscle action spectrum and contraction-velocity spectrum used during integrated, functional movements?	Plyometric-power training
During which of the following are optimal landing mechanics first established?	Plyometric-stabilization training
In which phase of the OPT model would ice skaters be an appropriate exercise?	Phase 5: Power
When performed as fast and as explosively as possible, ice skaters are categorized in which of the following phases?	power
Which of the following is an alternative name for plyometric training?	Reactive training
Which of the following exercises is a plyometric-power exercise?	Proprioceptive plyometrics
What is the purpose of stretch-shortening cycles?	To produce the necessary force to change the direction of an object's center of mass efficiently
Reactive training improves neuromuscular efficiency and improves the range of speed set by which of the following systems?	Central nervous system
Ice skaters are an example of which type of exercise?	Plyometric-power
Which classificaion of exercises involve more dynamic eccentric and concentric movement through a full range of motion?	Plyometric-strength
SAQ--builds on plyometric training;improving neuromuscular efficiency with exercises and drills that require the body to react to ground forces while moving and changing direction in all planes of motion	SAQ drills help clients of all levels learn to better accelerate, decelerate, and dynamically stabilize their bodies at functional speeds
Speed	move in one intended direction as fast as possible. Speed is a product of stride length and stride rate
Agility Training	multidimensional speed;accelerate, stop, change directions, and accelerate again at various speeds; cone and ladder drills
Quickness	reaction time; optimizing the neuromuscular response to stimuli, speeding up the ability to assess visual, auditory, or kinesthetic inputs, and providing the appropriate physical response as fast as possible.
frontside mechanics versus backside mechanics	frontside: lead leg in triple flexion ( hip flexion, knee flexion, and ankle dorsiflexion). The back leg (triple extension) as it pushes off the ground displaying hip extension, knee extension, and ankle plantar flexion.
SAQ Training with the OPT Model	phase 1: single-direction side shuffles/ simple ladder drills, 4-6 simple. changes of direction added later, using cones (T-drill or modified box drill.) The amount of drills used increases to 6-8 at the Strength Level as well.
When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?	Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed
What types of SAQ drills are most appropriate for Phase 1 training?	Those with limited horizontal inertia
During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions?	Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension
A personal trainer is working with a 65-year-old client who is sedentary. Which of the following SAQ drills would be appropriate for this client?	Stand-up to figure 8
Which of the following is an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill?	one-ins
Which of the following statements is correct about the position of the foot and ankle complex during speed, agility, and quickness exercises?	The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground.
primary goal of resistance training	improve strength-related adaptations that support more optimal performance of functional movement patterns
general adaptation syndrome	how the body responds and adapts to stress.
principle of specificity	specific adaptation to imposed demands (SAID) principle; mechanical (weight and movements placed on the body) neuromuscular (speed of muscle contractions and exercise selection), and metabolic (speed of muscle contractions and exercise selection)
resistance training can be focused to produce specific neuromuscular adaptations:	stabilization, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, and power.
vertically loaded workout	one set of each exercise is performed at a time, then the whole sequence is repeated for the desired number of sets. Vertically loaded programs start at upper body and go down (e.g., total-body, chest, back, shoulders, biceps, triceps, legs)
horizontally loaded workout	all sets of each exercise are performed before moving on to the next one
pyramid system	This system uses either a heavy-to-light or a light-to-heavy intensity/repetition scheme. The heavier the resistance is, the fewer repetitions that are lifted.
drop-sets	work to failure; remove weight; work to failure; remove weight; good for hypertrophy
supersets	2 exercises are performed back-to-back with no rest between. phases 2 and 5 of the OPT model;
Circuit training	standard resistance program and removes the rest periods between each exercise, stopping for rest only once the entire circuit has been completed; good for weight loss clients; reduces rests so speedy workout;
When starting with a brand new client who has never exercised, which resistance training system would be most appropriate?	single set
A new client tells the personal trainer she is experiencing soreness following her first exercise session. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome does this represent?	Alarm reaction
Which of the following is an example of a strength exercise during resistance training workouts?	Bench press
What is a multiplanar step-up to balance an example of?	Leg-stabilization exercise
these exercises in order: ball squat, curl to overhead press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which resistance training systems it?	Vertical loading
When performed at an appropriate tempo, which of the following exercises would offer the best improvement of the power of a client's pectoralis major?	Medicine ball rotation chest pass
Which of the following governs how the body responds and adjusts to stress?	General adaptation syndrome
Which of the following is specifically employed in a resistance training workout in order to develop muscular endurance of the legs?	Exercises that involve light weights and high repetitions.
During a workout, a personal trainer wants to increase the proprioceptive demand of a standard push-up exercise for his client. Which of the following would be a proper progression?	Hands on the floor, feet on a stability ball
When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?	Two legs
Fitness Training Periodization	4-6 weeks training in each relevant phase; annual plan (macrocycle)- long term goals;monthly (mesocycle) and weekly (microcycle) level.
Which of the following terms means creating a purposeful system or plan to achieve a specific goal?	Program design
A new client’s goal is to increase lean body mass. Which of the following training phases can be omitted from his annual periodization plan?	Power
What is the focus of the Power Phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?	Increase the rate of force production
A fitness professional is training a beginner client who has never tried resistance training. How many exercises per body part is most appropriate?	1-2
When in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance training of the OPT model, which of the following tempos should be used when performing resistance training exercises?	4/2/1
In the Power Phase, which of the following supersets would be the most appropriate?	Barbell squat followed by tuck jump
What is the immediate progression of the two-arm ball squat, curl to press exercise?	Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press
What does the Maximal Strength Phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model focus on?	Increasing the load placed on the tissues of the body
Which of the following is the most appropriate rest interval when hypertrophy is the goal?	30 seconds
During resistance training, a client is most likely to achieve strength endurance goals when performing which of the following?	Fewer sets when performing higher repetitions at a moderate intensity
A client is looking for a simple way to make bodyweight exercises more proprioceptively challenging. Which of the following modalities would be most appropriate for this?	Suspension trainer
Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?	Standing cable chest press
Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press?	Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.
Which of the following is the most appropriate spotting technique for a dumbbell chest press?	Place the hands close to the client’s wrists.
Training Youth Clients	kids do not exhibit a plateau in oxygen uptake like adults, so kids are good at endurance;fatigue faster and generate more heat during high-intensity exercise; lower performance longer-duration, high-intensity activities that rely on anaerobic glycolysis
Beta- blocker medications for hypertension	beta blockers lower heartrate; so use RPE and talk test to evaluate exertion; another good thing for people with high blood pressure is peripheral circuit training
Which of the following physiological characteristics should a personal trainer be aware of when working with a senior client?	Decreased lean body mass
When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?	Single-leg squat
Which of the following is the appropriate protocol with a client who has coronary heart disease, is obese, and is beginning an exercise program after receiving clearance from her physician?	Use the talk test to measure an exercise's intensity
Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client with osteoarthritis?	Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.
When working with a client with hypertension, which of the following is the most appropriate exercise?	Standing cobra
Which of the following is recommended for a client taking beta-blockers for hypertension?	avoid prone positions
A personal trainer is working with a client who has hypertension. Which of the following statements from the client indicates a need for further teaching?	I should make sure my back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge.
Resting Metabolic Rate	base amount of energy that bodies require to support life each day; 70% of caloric needs for a sedentary person; A simple way to loosely estimate RMR is multiple a person’s weight by 10. 6-10% of daily energy expenditure= breaking down food for use.
Protein	macronutrient responsible for tissue building & repair. used to synthesize hormones, enzymes, & regulatory peptides;RDA =0.8 grams of protein/kg of weight/day. Strength athletes =1.2 to 1.7 g/kg/day; endurance athletes =1.2 to 1.4.
carb and fat Intake	45-65% of total daily calories;The diet should also include between 25 and 38 grams of fiber;20-35% of daily calories come from fat sources.
Within how many minutes should a client consume 1.5 g/kg of carbohydrates to maximize glycogen replenishment after exercise?	30 min
Which of the following actions falls within a personal trainer’s scope of practice regarding a client's nutrition?	Discuss food preparation methods.
For which of the following is building and repairing body tissues and structures a primary function?	protein
Decreased levels of thyroid hormones tend to cause a decrease in which of the following?	Resting metabolic rate
Which of the following best describes a function of lipids in the body?	A precursor to hormone production
Where should the highest percentage of caloric intake come from when trying to increase lean body mass?	carbohydrates
EAR	estimated average requirement. The EAR is the average daily intake level of a nutrient that is estimated to meet the needs of at least half of the healthy individuals in a particular gender and age group;
RDA	recommended dietary allowance (RDA) is the amount of a nutrient that will meet the requirement of nearly all people in an age and gender group (97-98%).
AI	Adequate Intake; estimation of how much of a nutrient is adequate for a given demographic of healthy people
tolerable upper intake level UL	represents the safe upper intake level of a nutrient; going over the UL for a nutrient presents a risk of adverse health effects.
Vitamin A intake in women	when present only as retinol (instead of β-carotene)—should be taken in quantities less than the DV
vitamin contraindicated for smokers	Beta Carotine
Best way to take calcium?	in small doses thru/out the day with food
two most common ergogenic aids	creatine and stimulants; when muscle creatine concentration increases = enhances the performance of brief, high-intensity efforts; good for bodybuilders; banned but safe; caffeine =3-6 mg per kg 1hr before exercise.
Which of the following is the correct recommendation for caffeine intake for performance enhancement?	3-6 mg/kg
For the best results, how should calcium supplements be consumed?	Spaced throughout the day
How much caffeine per kg of body weight is recommended about an hour before exercise to provide the most effective ergogenic response?	3-6 mg
Which of the following micronutrients should be at low levels or absent in a multivitamin?	Calcium
Which of the following is an example of a dietary supplement?	multivitamin
Large doses of beta-carotene intake can cause an increased risk for which of the following?	lung cancer in smokers
What is a side effect of caffeine use?	increase in urine production
Excess intake of vitamin D can lead to which of the following?	Calcification of arteries
Which of the following is a common supplement that the body also makes internally from the amino acids methionine, glycine, and arginine?	creatine
Which of the following classifies a product as a supplement?	Non-drug substance in a pill or powder form
Stages of change in behavioral coaching	not even thinking about making a change,= precontemplation; problem is identified and person thinking about making a change= contemplation stage. starts to make plans to accomplish their change= preparation stage. then action (first 6mo) & maintenance.
initial session:	figure out what stage they are in; gather subjective info; gather objective info; managing client expectations.
A client is losing motivation to exercise, so his trainer recommends spending time before his next session reflecting on the feelings of accomplishment, sounds, and smells experienced during his last session. This is an example of which of the following?	Imagery
A client who suffers from a chronic disease decides he no longer wants to participate in personal training sessions, based on the advice of his spouse. This is an example of which of the following?	behavioral reactants
A client has worked out a few times during the past few months with a personal trainer. She wants to become regularly active but isn’t sure how this is accomplished. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is the client?	preparation
A new client tells the personal trainer that although he exercises occasionally, he is now ready to try a different approach to become a regular exerciser. This an example of which section of the stages of change model?	preparation
Which is a component of effective goal setting?	Always have a specific date of completion.
Which of the following statements refers to a SMART goal?	“I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600-calorie per day diet.”
A personal trainer asks a client to write down the names of the exercises she performs, how much food she is eating, and how much sleep she is getting. Which of the following strategies is the client following?	self-monitoring
When engaging in active listening, a personal trainer should do which of the following?	Provide feedback after the client has finished speaking.
What type of support is tangible and practial to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve their goals?	instrumental support
Clients must learn to identify challenging situations and barriers to exercise. Which of the following processes is the best tool for this type of learning?	self-monitoring
What is the purpose of asking an open-ended question during a client's initial session?	Build a collaborative relationship with a client.
Which of the following is about having an attitude of genuine interest in seeking a clients perspective?	active listening
How can a personal trainer provide uncompromising customer service?	Express ideas well through verbal communication.
According to a recommendation by the International Health, Racquet and Sportsclub Association (IHRSA), certifying agencies should receive accreditation from which of the following organizations?	National Commission for Certifying Agencies (NCCA)
Amy is a newly certified fitness professional. May realizes that she lacks the expertise to work with the special considerations for a client. Which of the following should Amy do for this client?	Refer the client to a professional who has the necessary skills and abilities.
Which of the following is the best example of a trainer adhering to ethical business practices?	Meeting a client 5 min before a training session to complete any necessary paperwork

Created by: angelette767

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