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LPC Exam
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is a DD Form 689 used for? | used as a means of communication between medical personnel and the patients commander |
| What is the SF 600? | basic form used to document the chronological record of outpatient treatment |
| How do you correct errors on a SF 600? | draw one one through and write "ERROR", initial it, and correct the mistake. |
| Who is authorized access to patient medical records | the patient, patient care personnel, medical researchers, and medical educators |
| Who is responsible for releasing medical records? | Patient Administration |
| What information belongs in each portion of the SOAP note? | S: age, sex, race, FDLMP, CC, HPI(OPQRSTI), PMHx, Family MHx, AMPLE O: General impression, vital signs, exam findings A: Field impression P: treatment |
| What is a microorganism? | microscopic living cells found almost everywhere in the environment |
| what is a pathogen? | microorganisms that cause disease |
| _______________ forming bacteria are the most difficult to control and destroy | spore |
| what microorganism needs a host to make protein and energy? | virus |
| what are standard precautions? | a combination of universal precautions and BSI designed to reduce risk from both known and unknown sources of infection |
| what are the contact transmission based precautions, what does it entail, and what diseases do it protect against? | Contact: private room or share with same infectious patient, doors may remain open. wear gloves and gown if needed. wash hands. (HEP A, Herpes Simplex Virus, acute diarrhea, drug resistant GI respiratory, and skin & wound infections |
| What are the droplet transmission based precautions, what does it entail and what diseases does it protect against? | same as contact except wear a mask when working within 3 ft of the patient and the patient wears a mask outside of the room(meningitis, pneumonia, diphtheria, strep. pharyngitis, flu, mumps, rubella) |
| What are the airborne based precautions, what does it entail and what diseases does it protect against? | private rooms that have monitored negative air flow pressure and doors remain closed (Tuberculosis, measles, chickenpox) high- filtration particulate respirator should be worn around this patient |
| What Is neutropenic precautions? | protects the immune suppressed patients from the outside environment burns or bone marrow transplants, HIV, patients undergoing chemotherapy, patients experiencing low resistance form another cause |
| list the first three stages of infection and what occur at each | Incubation-pathogen enters the body to the appearance the first symptoms illness prodromal- onset of initial symptoms to more severe symptoms full stag of illness- symptoms are acute and specific to the type of infection |
| what is the last stage of infection and what occurs | convalescent- acute symptoms of the infection subside and the person recovers |
| what is virulence | pathogen's strength to cause disease |
| what is a nosocomial infection? | infections that patients acquire while in the healthcare facility |
| What should you do if the dose ordered for a patient by the provider is incorrect? | confirm the order with the MO and do not give the dose IF it is still incorrect |
| what is drug tolerance | a progressive decrease in effectiveness of a drug. This occurs when the patient receives the same drug for long periods of time and requires higher does to produce the same effect |
| what is the difference between physiological and psychological dependence? | physiological means the body is physically dependent on the drug. Psychological means your mind thinks the body needs the drug to function |
| what are the six rights | right patient, right time, right medication, right route, right dose, right documentation |
| what are the signs and symptoms of mild to moderate allergic reactions? of a severe allergic reactions? | mild to moderate- itching, hives/urticaria, reddish skin, swollen, itchy, watery eyes, increased heart rate severe- airway compromise, low B/P, tachycardia, chest pain and tightness, N/V, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, itching, hives, angioedema |
| what is the treatment for a patient experiencing anaphylaxis? | secure the airway, supplemental oxygen, positive pressure ventilations if needed, epinephrine, (antihistamines, corticosteroids, and normal saline bolus of 500 cc if needed= prescribed by MO) |
| what is the purpose of ID injections | testing for exposure to disease; testing sensitivity to environmental allergens and medications |
| what are the injection sites for ID injections and how much fluid can be injected into each? | forearm : 0.1 ml |
| what is the length and gauge of a ID injection | gauge: 25 to 27 length: 1/4" to 1/2" |
| what is the angle of insertion for an ID injection? | 15 to 20 degrees |
| What is the purpose of SQ injections? | used when absorption rate desired is slower than IM route; used for small amounts of watery and nonirritating medications; place medications in subcutaneous tissues |
| what are the injection sites for SQ injections and how much fluid can be injected into each? | upper arm: 0.5 mL vastus lateralis: <2mL Abdomen |
| what is the length and gauge of a needle for SQ injections? | length: 1/2" to 1" gauge: 23 to 25 |
| what is the angle of insertion for a SQ injection? | 45 degrees |
| what is the purpose of IM injections? | utilized when rapid absorption and long duration rate are desired; used when administering viscous or irritating medications; used when a large volume of medication is needed for a stronger effect |
| what are the sites for IM injections and how much fluid can be injected into each? | deltoid: 2mL Gluteus Maximus: 5mL Vastus Lateralis :5mL |
| What is the length and gauge of a needle for IM injections? | gauge: 20-22 length and gauge are usually dependent on the amount of muscle mass, age, size and condition of the patient |
| what is the angle of insertion for IM injections? | 90 degrees |
| what're the advantages of oral antibiotics? | oldest method, safest, most convienent, most economical, easy to give |
| what're the disadvantages of oral antibiotics? | vomiting as a result of irritation to the GI mucosa, requires a cooperative pt slower absorption rate |
| what are the effects of NSAID toxicity? | high pitch tinnitus, vertigo, and deafness, hyperthermia, behavioral effects: (CNS stimulation followed by depression, agitation, and confusion are followed by stupor/coma) respiratory: to the point of hyperventilation to respiratory depression |
| what are the cautions and warnings that you should keep in mind when administering NSAIDS | hypersensitivity, do not give ASA to children, NSAIDS may cause acute renal failure, peptic ulcer or gastric bleeding, ASA may cause hypersensitivity and cause asthma symptoms to worsen |
| what are the side effects to using antihistamines? | mouth dryness and sleepiness, may cause urine retention in men and fast heart rate |
| What effect do histamines have on the body? | stimulates gastric secretions, dilation of capillaries, constriction of bronchial smooth muscles and decreased B/P |
| what do the following abbreviations mean? ASA, ABx, PCN | ASA: aspirin. ABx: antibiotics, PCN: penicillin |
| Indications/contraindicatons for administering ASA? | not indicated for military members in combat and don't give to children |
| What are the indications and contraindications for OTFC | used for moderate to severe paining casualties who are alert & conscious, for pts with morphine allergies; contraindications:allergy and casualties who have already been given morphine |
| What are the indications and contraindications for acetaminophen? | used for mild/moderate pain in soldiers still able to fight |
| What are therapeutic effects and side effects of naloxone? | used for narcotic overdoes; no contraindications |
| what is the angle of insertion for venipuncture? | 15-30 degrees |
| what is the corrective action for an unsuccessful venipuncture? | pull the needle back slightly (not above skin surface) and redirect the needle toward the vein and try again |
| what is the preferred site for venipuncture? | antecubital fossa |
| What is the sclera? | tough white layer of the eye that protects the inner structure of the eye and helps to maintain its shape |
| what is the retina? | the inner layer that contains rods and cones to allow us to see images |
| what is the first step in treating a patient with an eye complaint? | visual acuity test |
| what is the first step in treating a patient complaining of ocular burns? | the eye must be flushed first |
| what are the red flags for ear complaints? | fever of 101 degrees Fahrenheit or greater;embedded foreign objects |
| how do you treat an ear impaction? | refer to MO, ear irrigation use of ear drops that will dissolve the earwax |
| what are the structures of the ear and their function? | auricle/pinna- collect sound waves and direct them toward the external auditory canal; tragus- a nodule eminence that points backwards over entrance of EAC EAC- external auditory canal Malleus-hammer incus-anvil stapes |
| a red TM indicates what? | |
| 50% of earaches in adults are due to what? | dental problems |
| what are some causes for chronic nose bleeds? | external trauma, nose picking, nasal infection from plucking nose hairs, vigorous nose blowing or drying of the nasal muscosa, hypertension |
| how do you treat a patient experiencing epistaxis? | tip the head downward and pinch the entire nose firmly for 10-15 minutes; vasoconstriction nasal spray if the bleeding does not stop |
| what are the s/s of an upper respiratory infection? | sore throat, cough, sputum, low-grade fever, nasal congestion/discharge, sinus pressure, appearance of a slightly reddened pharynx with mucous streaking, lung sounds are clear |
| what is the treatment for strep throat? | refer to MO , antibiotic treatment |
| what are the signs and symptoms of a peritonsilar abscess and what is the treatment? | one side of the mouth resulting in tonsil deviating toward the midline, ear pain on same side of tonsil, severe sore throat on one side, spasm in the muscles of the jaw or difficulty opening the mouth, difficulty swallowing, "hot potato"voice, fever |
| white-purple exudate on the tonsils is indicative of what throat ailment? | mono |
| wheezing is a clinical hallmark of what respiratory condition? | asthma |
| what is the treatment protocol for pneumonia? | NSAID/tylenol for fever, decongestant, cough suppressants, increase fluids, antibiotics, bronchodilators, consider bedrest profile/evacuate field envrionment |
| what is treatment protocol for asthma? | inhaled bronchodialtors, iv fluids, supplemental oxygen |
| what medication would you give to treat a patient complaining of diarrhea? | loperamide(imodium) |
| bile is produced by the liver and stored where? | gallbladder |
| what organ is responsible for the regulation of blood sugar metabolism? | pancreas |
| what organ is capable of absorbing 5-7 liters of water per day? | large intestine |
| if a patent complains of abdominal pain, what area would you palpate last? | the quadrant with the pain |
| what is the treatment protocol for acute diarrhea? | iv or oral fluids and electrolyte replacement; anti-diarrheal medications, antibiotic therapy; liquid diet then bland diet; consume food and water only from approved sources |
| what are the s/s of nephrolithiasis and how do you treat it? | intermittent pain, usually develops suddenly, flank/testicles pain, bloody urine, fever, tenderness to palpation; Treatment: refer to MO, narcotic pain meds, antibiotics, increase fluids |
| what is the function and location of the spleen? | stores RBBS and platelets. removes dead RBCs and platelets; carries out immune functions; |
| what is the function and location of the kidneys? | |
| what is the function and location of the gallbladder ? | |
| what is the function and location of the colon? | |
| what is the function and location of the small intestine? | |
| what is the function and location of the pancreas? | |
| what is the function and location of the liver? | |
| what are the red flags for lower extremity injuries? | |
| what are the red flags for upper extremity injuries? | |
| what are the red flags for spinal complaints? | |
| what is a bursa? | |
| what is a sprain? | |
| what is a strain? | |
| what is subluxation? | |
| what is eversion ankle sprain? | |
| what is inversion ankle sprain? | |
| what is the meniscus? | |
| what is a march fracture? | |
| a fracture of the fifth metacarpal is commonly known as what? | |
| what are the s/s and treatment for plantar fasciitis? | |
| whites tetanus toxoid and what is the dose of the booster? | |
| what are the factors that complicate wound healing? | |
| granulation | |
| malodorous | |
| extravasations | |
| drain | |
| epithelialization | |
| abcess | |
| cellulitis | |
| adhesion | |
| infection | |
| dehiscence | |
| what is compartment syndrome? what're the early signs? what are the late signs? | |
| what are the two broad classification of wounds? give examples of each. | |
| what are the three types of wound healing? | |
| name the wound complications | |
| when can you remove an impaled object from a patient? | |
| what're s/s of the here simplex virus | |
| what're s/s of cellulitis | |
| what is bacteremia? | |
| what is an abscess? | |
| what is the treatment for contact dermatitis | |
| what are the s/s and treatment for a cutaneous abscess? | |
| pustule | |
| vesicle | |
| papule | |
| macule | |
| nodule | |
| pustule | |
| wheal | |
| crust | |
| describe impetigo | |
| what is the first step in treatment of an animal bite? | |
| tinea pedis | |
| tinea capitis | |
| tinea cruris | |
| tinea corporis | |
| what is the difference between herpes simplex and herpes zoster? | |
| tympanic membrane | separates middle and external ear |
| eustachian tube | middle ear tube that drains the middle ear to the nasal part of the pharynx |
| inner ear | membranous curved cavity inside a bony labyrinth. involved in hearing and balance |
Created by:
18btownsend