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A&P 2 Final
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Urine passes through the: | Pelvis of the kidney to ureter to bladder to urethra. |
| The ____ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney. | Arcuate |
| The functional and structural unit of the kidney is: | The nephron |
| The renal corpuscle is made up of: | Bowman's capsule and glomerulus |
| The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the: | Loop of Henle |
| The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin: | By a decrease in the blood pressure. |
| The juxtaglomerular apparatus is responsible for: | Regulating the rate of filtrate formation and controlling systemic blood pressure. |
| The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is: | Osmosis |
| The macula densa cells respond to: | Changes in solute content of the filtrate. |
| Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it: | Inhibits the release of ADH |
| The function of angiotensin || is to: | Constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure. |
| Select the correct statement about the nephrons. The parietal layer of the golmerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium Filtration slits are the pores that give fenestrated capillaries their name. | The parietal layer of the golmerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium. |
| What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal? | Net filtration would decrease. |
| The factor favoring filtrate formation at the golmerulus is: | The glomerular hydrostatic pressure. |
| If the Tm for a particular amino acid is 120mg/100ml and the concentration of that amino acid in the blood is 230mg/100ml, the amino acid: | Will appear in the urine. |
| Excretion of dilute urine requires: | Impermeability of the collecting tubule to water. |
| In the ascending limp of the loop of Henle: | The thick segment moves ions out into interstitial spaces for reabsorption. |
| The disruption in homeostasis known as pyelitis is: | An infection of the renal pelvis and calyces. |
| Which statement is correct? Normal filtrate contains a large amount of protein. Reabsorption of water is hormonally controlled. | Reabsorption of water is hormonally controlled. |
| The capillary bed that surrounds the descending and ascending loop of Henle is called the ____ | Vasa recta |
| The area between the ureters and urethra is called the ____ in a bladder. | Trigone |
| Sodium-linked water flow across a membrane is called ____ water reabsorption. | Obligatory |
| Which of the following is sodium excess? | Hypernatremia |
| Which of the following is a condition of unusually low levels of plasma proteins resulting in tissue edema. | Hypoproteinemia |
| Water occupies two main fluid compartments within the body, the intracellular fluid compartment and the extracellular fluid compartment. Which of the following statements is true concerning the volume of intracellular fluid? | Approximately two-thirds of the water is in the intracellular fluid compartment. |
| Whereas sodium is found mainly in the extracellular fluid, most ____ is found in the intracellular fluid. | Potassium |
| The single most important factor influencing potassium ion secretion is: | Potassium ion concentration in blood plasma. |
| The movement of fluids between cellular compartments: | Is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces. |
| Which of the following statements is true regarding fluid shifts? | Electrolytes have greater osmotic power than non-electrolytes and therefore have the greatest ability to cause fluid shifts |
| The regulation of potassium balance: | Involves aldosterone-induced secretion of potassium. |
| The term hypotonic hydration refers to: | A condition that may result from renal insufficiency or drinking extraordinary amounts of water. |
| The female hormone _____ seems to decrease sodium reabsorption, thus promoting sodium and water loss by the kidney. | Progesterone |
| The maintenance of the proper pH of the body fluids may be the result of ____ | The control of respiratory ventilation. |
| Select the correct statement about renal mechanisms of acid-base balance. The kidneys are not able to excrete phosphoric acid Kidney tubule cells are able to synthesize bicarbonate ion. | Kidney tubule cells are able to synthesize bicarbonate ion. |
| Blood analysis indicates a low pH, and the patient is breathing rapidly. Given your knowledge of acid-base balance, which of the following is most likely? Metabolic Acidosis / Metabolic Alkalosis | Metabolic Acidosis |
| The regulation of potassium balance _____ | Involves aldosterone- induced secretion secretion of potassium. |
| The ability of sperm cells to move along the ductus deferens is due to: | Peristaltic contractions |
| The ability of a male to ejaculate is due to the action of: | The bulbospongiosus muscles |
| Which of the following glands are responsible for 60% of the synthesis of semen? | The seminal vesicles. |
| The primary function of the uterus is to: | Receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum. |
| Human egg and sperm are similar in that: | They have the same number of chromosomes. |
| Fertilization generally occurs in the : | Fallopian tubes |
| Spermiogenesis involves: | The formation of a functional sperm by the stripping away of superfluous cytoplasm. |
| All of the following can be considered male secondary sex characteristics except the: | Development of testes as opposed to ovaries. |
| Secretion of progesterone stimulates: | Preparation of the mammary glands for lactation. |
| The testicular cells that construct the blood-testis barrier are the: | Sustentacular cells |
| Erection of the penis results from: | A spinal reflex mediated by the parasympathetic nervous system. |
| Select the correct statement about the uterine cycle: If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone secreted by the developing embryo. During the secretory phase, estrogen levels are at their highest. | If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone secreted by the developing embryo. |
| Which is true concerning the mammary glands of both males and females: | The mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are actually part of the integumentary system. |
| Which of the following will occur after ovulation: The endometrium enters its secretory phase The corpus luteum secretes estrogen only. | The endometrium enters its secretory phase |
| Select the correct statement about testosterone control: GnRh from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary. FSH stimulates testicular production of testosterone. | GnRh from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary. |
| Which statement about STD's is false: | Syphilis is caused by a virus that may lead to death if untreated. |
| All referring to the uterine cycle is true except: FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium. A decrease in the levels of ovarian hormones signals menstruation. | FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium. |
| The ____ plexus of testicular veins assists in cooling the testis. | Pampiniform |
| The erectile tissue around the urethra is the corpus _____. | Spongiosum |
| The mid-piece of the sperm tail contains mostly _______. | Mitochondria |
| A follicle with only small antrums in it would be classified as a ____ follicle. | Secondary |
| The portion of the uterine endometrium that is not sloughed off every month is called the _______. | Stratum basalis |
| Which of the following cells becomes a macrophage? | Monocyte |
| Spectrin is: | A fibrous protein that gives shape to an RBC plasma membrane. |
| Which of the following is a transport protein that binds to lipids and fat-soluble vitamins? Beta Globulin Albumin | Beta globulin |
| What is the average normal pH range of blood? | 7.35-7.45 |
| Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood? Normoblast Hemocytoblast | Hemocytoblast |
| Which of the following is a natural anticoagulant found in basophils: Heparin Interleukin | Heparin |
| Platelet deficiency resulting in spontaneous bleeding from small blood vessels: Thrombocytopenia Anemia | Thrombocytopenia |
| Which of the following is incorrect or false? Blood typing for the Kell, Lewis, and Duffy factors is always done before a blood transfusion. Transfusion of incompatible blood can be fatal. | Blood typing for the Kell, Lewis, and Duffy factors is always done before a blood transfusion. |
| As red blood cells age: Membranes "wear out" and the cells become damaged. ATP production increases. | Membranes "wear out" and the cells become damaged. |
| The most abundant plasma protein is: Albumin, Clotting protein, Bile, Globulin | Albumin |
| Blood reticulocyte counts provide information regarding____ Rate of erythrocyte formation Rate of platelet formation | Rate of erythrocyte formation |
| Select correct statement regarding blood cell formation: | Red marrow is the main site of blood cell formation throughout adult life. |
| Select incorrect statement regarding blood cell formation: | Platelets are formed from myeloblasts. |
| Which is not a normal plasma protein: Albumin, Fibrinogen, Thromboplastin | Thromboplastin |
| All can be expected with polycythemia except: Low blood viscosity, High blood pressure | Low blood viscosity |
| Not a phase of hemostasis: Vascular spasm, coagulation, fibrinolysis | Fibrinolysis |
| Correct developmental sequence: 1) reticulocyte 2) proerythroblast 3) normoblast 4) late erythroblast 2,4,3,1- 2,1,3,4-1,2,3,4-1,3,2,4 | 2,4,3,1 |
| A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of: | Pernicious Anemia |
| Thromboembolytic disorders: | Include embolus formation, a clot moving within the circulatory system. |
| Platelets : Have multiple nuclei Stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break. | Stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break. |
| Which sequence is correct for the following events? 1) Fibrinogen -> fibrin 2) clot retraction 3) formation of thromboplastin 4) prothrombin --> thrombin 3,4,1,2 - 3,2,1,4 | 3,4,1,2 |
| Which of the following is a precursor of a basophil? | Myeloblast |
| Which of the following would not be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia? | Sleeping in a well ventilated room. |
| What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production? Kidney, Brain, Liver | Kidney |
| _____ is an anti-prostaglandin drug that inhibits thromboxane A2 formation (platelet plug formation). | Aspirin |
| Which are factors that limit normal clot growth? | Inhibition of activation clotting factors. |
| Which of the following statements are true? | A typical neutrophil takes about a week to develop. |
| What is the buffy coat found in centrifuged whole blood? Cholesterol, Leucocytes | Leucocytes. |
| Which of the following is true? The directional movement of cells in response to chemicals is called chemotaxis. Monoclonal antibodies can be specific for several antigenic determinants. | The directional movement of cells in response to chemicals is called chemotaxis. |
| Which is the correct sequence of events in phagocytosis? Chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing. Chemotaxis, ingestion, digestion, adherence, killing. | Chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing. |
| Which of the following is associated with passive immunity? | Passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus. |
| T lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the: Thymus Bone marrow | Thymus |
| The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by: Vasodilation / Vasoconstriction | Vasodilation |
| Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called: | Hapten's |
| The only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells are the: | Cytotoxic cells |
| Interferons: | Interfere with viral replication within cells |
| Suppressor (Regulatory) T cells: | May function in preventing autoimmune reactions. |
| ______ are released by activated T cells and macrophages to mobilize immune cells and attract other leukocytes into the area. | Cytokines |
| Graft rejection may be caused by: | Using a xenograft. |
| Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of the immune system by: | Natural killer cells. |
| T-cell activation requires _______ | Antigen binding and co-stimulation |
| Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and roughen its surface, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. The phenomenon is termed: | Opsonization |
| Which is incorrect or false? | Class II MHC molecules appear only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells, thymic cells, and T cells that have been activated by exposure to antigens. |
| Innate immunes system defenses include: | Phagocytosis |
| Fever: | Production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting. |
| Helper T cells: | Function in the adaptive immune system activation. |
| Immediate hypersensitivities : | Involve IgE antibodies and the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils. |
| Select the correct statement about antigens : | One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody. |
| The primary immune response: | Has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells. |
| Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies: | Complement fixation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection. |
| Which is true about the number of binding sites per functional antibody unit? | IgM contains 10 binding sites. |
| Which is true about T cells: | Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2. |
| Toll like receptors (TLRs) trigger the release of ____ to attract white blood cells to the scene : | Cytokines |
| Which of the following cells is the most critical cell in immunity? | Helper T cells |
| Which immunoglobulin class is attached to the external surface of B cells and acts as an antigen receptor of the B cell? | IgD |
| ________ refers to a group of at least 20 plasma proteins that normally circulate in an inactive state and are a major mechanism for destroying foreign substances in the body. | Complement |
| ________ becomes bound to mast cells and basophils and causes the cells to release histamine and other chemicals. | IgE |
| The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The function of type II is: | To secrete surfactant |
| Intrapulmonary pressure is the: | Pressure within the alveoli of the lungs. |
| The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture," paraphrases: | Dalton"s Law |
| With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because: | A decrease in ph(acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond |
| The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is: | Increase of carbon dioxide. |
| Nerve impulses from ___ will result in inspiration | The ventral respiratory group |
| In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is: | Only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved form. |
| Which of the following does not influence the increase in ventilation that occurs as exercise is initiated? | Decrease in lactic acid levels. |
| Which of the following is not true of the respiratory tract from the medium bronchi to the alveoli? | Resistance to air flow increases due to the increase in cross-sectional diameter. |
| Which of the following is not a stimulus for breathing? | Rising blood pressure |
| Which statement about CO2 is incorrect | More CO2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs. |
| Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by: | Diffusion |
| Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract if you were to blow up a balloon? | Internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract. |
| The oropharynx does not include: Fauces, Pharyngeal tonsils, Lingual tonsils | Fauces |
| Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange? Respiratory bronchioles, Alveoli | Alveoli |
| Inspiratory capacity is: | The total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration. |
| Select the correct statement about the neural mechanisms of respiratory control. | The pons is thought to be instrumental in the smooth transition from inspiration to expiration. |
| The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are: | Surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity. |
| Which of the following makes it difficult to talk while lifting weights? | Valsalva's Maneuver |
| Select the correct statement about oxygen transport in the blood: | A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an actively level higher than normal. |
| What is the chloride shift? | The movement of chloride ions into RBCs to compensate for the outward diffusion of bicarbonate ion. |
| The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located: | In the walls of the tract organs |
| The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called: | Mesenteries |
| The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task? | Plicae circulares and intestinal villi |
| Which of the following is true concerning the number and type of permanent teeth? | 32 permanent teeth, and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge. |
| Gastrin, histamine, endorphins, serotonin, cholecystokinin, and somatostatin are hormones that are released directly into the lamina propria. Which of the following cell types synthesize and secrete these products? | Enteroendocrine cells |
| There are three phases of gastric secretion. The cephalic phase occurs: | Before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought. |
| Pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the: | Chief cells of the stomach. |
| Short-chain triglycerides found in foods such as butterfat molecules in mile are split by a specific enzyme in preparation for absorption. Which of the following enzymes is responsible? | Lipase |
| Hepatocytes do not: | Produce digestive enzymes. |
| If an incision has to be made in the small intestine to remove an obstruction, the first layer of tissue to be cut is the: | Serosa |
| The terminal portion of the small intestine is known as the: | Ileum |
| The lamina propria is composed of: | Loose connective tissue |
| ____ is/are not important as a stimulus in the gastric phase of gastric secretion. | Carbohydrates |
| Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by: | The vagus nerve and enteric plexus |
| A fluid secreted into the small intestine during digestion that contains cholesterol, emulsification agents, and phospholipids is: | Bile |
| Which isn't a characteristic of the large intestine. It: | Is longer than the small intestine. |
| Chemical digestion in the small intestine involves: | A significant amount of enzyme secretion by the intestinal mucosa. |
| A baby is admitted to the hospital with a history of projectile vomiting after each feeding. Because of the baby's loss of gastric juice, his blood probably indicates: | Alkalosis |
| Which of these is not part of the splanchnic circulation? | Inferior vena cava, |
| _______ cells are found in the sinusoids of the liver and they remove debris from the blood as it flows past: | Kupffer |
| Dietary fats are important because: | They help the body absorb fat-soluble vitamins |
| Cholesterol, while it is not an energy molecule, has importance in the body because: | It is a stabilizing component of the plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones. |
| Which of the following statements best describes complete protein? | Must meet all the body's amino acid requirements for maintenance and growth. |
| It is important to ensure that your diet is adequately rich in vitamins because: | Most vitamins are coenzymes needed to help the body utilize essential nutrients. |
| Anabolism includes reactions in which: | Larger molecules or structures are built from smaller ones. |
| Which of the following mechanisms produces the most ATP during cellular respiration? | Oxidative phosphorylation |
| Glycogen is formed in the liver during the: | Absorptive state |
| Among the conditions required for measuring the basal metabolic rate is : | Keeping the room temperature between 20 and 25 degrees C. |
| Loss of heat in the form of infrared waves is termed: | Radiation |
| As the body progresses from the absorptive to the post-absorptive state, only the ___ continues to burn glucose while every other organ in the body switches to fatty acids. | Brain |
| In gluconeogenesis, amino acids and ___ are converted to glucose. | Glycerol |
| Heat-loss mechanisms do not include: | Vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels |
| Which of the following does not occur in the mitochondria? | Glycolysis |
| Which is not true of beta oxidation? | It involves the anabolism of fats. |
| Which is not a function of LDLs ? | Transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver. |
| Which best defines negative nitrogen balance? | Protein breakdown exceeds protein synthesis |
| Fat burning causes an accumulation of acetyl CoA, which the liver converts to: | Ketones |
| The lining of the heart is the: | Endocardium |
| The point in the conduction system of the heart where the impulse is temporarily delayed is the: AV node / SA node | AV node |
| Which of the following prevents back flow into the left ventricle? Aortic semilunar valve / Tricuspid valve | Aortic semilunar valve |
| Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events? | Closure of the heart valves |
| The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to: | Pump blood with greater pressure |
| Damage to the ______ is referred to as heart block. AV node / AV valves | AV node |
| The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates: | Atrial depolarization |
| The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries is: | Angina pectoris |
| To auscultate the aortic semilunar valve, you would place your stethoscope : | In the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum |
| Cardiac muscle cells are like skeletal muscle cells in that they: | Have I and A bands |
| If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells: | Tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action. |
| Norepinephrine acts on heart muscle cells by: | Causing threshold to be reached more quickly. |
| Blood enters which of these vessels during ventricular systole? | Aorta and pulmonary arteries. |
| Select the correct statement about the heart valves. | The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur. |
| During the period of ventricular filling: | Blood flows passively through the atria and the open AV valves. |
| Sternosis of the mitral valve may initially cause a pressure increase in the : | Left ventricle |
| Select the correct statement about cardiac output | A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction. |
| The condition where fluid compresses the heart and limits its ability to contract is called ______ | Cardiac tamponade |
| Isovolumetric contraction: | Refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers. |
| Negative chronotropic factors are: | Factors that decrease heart rate |
| What is the functional importance of the intercalated discs of cardiac muscle? A) They contain anchoring junctions (desmosomes) which keep the cells from separating. B) They contain smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) They contain gap junctions | Both A & C |
| What is bradycardia? | Heart rate below 60 beats/minute |
| Which of the arteries below gives rise to the right common carotid and right subclavian artery Brachiocephalic trunk / External iliac artery / Internal carotid artery. | Brachiocephalic trunk |
| Site where the velocity of blood flow is slowest Arterioles / Capillaries / Large veins | Capillaries |
| Site that is the major determinant of peripheral resistance Arterioles / Capillaries / Large Veins | Arterioles |
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swaney12