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Immunology final
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| which are components of both innate and adaptive immune responses? | macrophages |
| describe diapedesis | WBCs moving through blood vessel walls |
| the most effective phagocytic and antigen presenting cell is | denditric cells |
| which cells are considered part of the natural immunity | EOS, mono, neu |
| antibodies are secreted by | plasma cells |
| the function of NK cells is: | to kill target cells |
| macrophages that migrate to the liver are called | kuppfer cells |
| The cells are mainly concentrated in which region of the lymph nodes? | paracortex |
| The cells mature in | thymus |
| B cells that are actively responding to antigen can be found in the | germinal center |
| characteristic of opsonins | subseptible to phagocytosis |
| cluster of differentiation refers to | catergory of cell surface proteins used to identify cell types |
| an antigenic determinant is also called | epitope |
| the best immunogen is | protein |
| to what kind of peptides do Class II molecules bind? | processed exogenous |
| MHC molecules containing beta-2-microglobulin | MHC A,B,C |
| a processed antigen first encounters and binds to MHC class I molecules in the | endosomal compartment |
| endogenous peptides binding to MHC-A, MHC-B,MHC-C molecules on the surface of hepatocytes are critical for the response by | cytotoxic T cells |
| antigens found in different species that trigger a similar antibody response are called | heterophile antigens |
| the ability to respond to antigen depends on | age, nutrition, genetics |
| describe the findings of landsteiner's study of haptens | spatial configuration |
| MHC class I antigens are recognized by which cells? | CD8 & T-cells |
| characteristics of heterophile antigens include | unrelated plants and animals but cross react with the same antibodies |
| T cells are capable of recognizing | degraded peptides |
| the phagosome of a macrophages is a membrane-bound vesicle that contains | ingested pathogens |
| function of the acute-phase protein haptoglobin | binds hemoglobin |
| describe what occurs in the process of phagocytosis | formation of phagosome, creation of hypochromite radicals, infusion of lysosome with phagosome |
| natural killer cells recognize and kill abnormal host cells that | lack expression of MHC class I |
| toll-like receptors bind to | pathogen associated molecular patterns |
| c-reactive protein, complement components, and antibodies are | opsonins |
| similarities between cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells | both induced apoptosis |
| a plasma cell differs from a B cell in which way? | plasma cells secrete circulating antibodies |
| immunoglobulin that appears in the highest titer in the secondary response is | IgG |
| Bencce-Jones proteins are identical to | L-chains |
| IL-2 is synthesized by | T-cells |
| cytokine that is involved in natural immunity is | IL6 (interlukin-6) |
| if 0.9 mL of saline is added to 0.1 mL of serum, what does the 0.9 mL represent? | diluent |
| when complement interferes with test results, the serum sample should be: | heated to 56 degrees Celsius for 30 mins |
| the probability that a person with a positive screening test actually has the disease screened for is | positive predictive value |
| an antibody titer is defined as the reciprocal of the: | last serial dilution in which a positive reaction is visible |
| a serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is bound to a large carrier, the antibody is soluble, and the antigen and carrier bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically. what type of assay is described? | agglutination |
| the process by which particulate antigens such as cells aggregate to form larger complexes when specific antibody is present is: | agglutination |
| in performing blood typing using the tube method, if the red cells button is not resuspended properly, what are the most likely results? | false-positive |
| coombs reagent is used for | enhancing agglutination with IgG coated red cells |
| which antibody has the highest avidity for an antigenic? | IgA |
| what should you do if a serum sample does not cause agglutination when mixed with a particular antigen? | test a more diluted sample |
| a solution has 4 pentomeric IgM antibodies per microliter. what concentration of antigen molecules is necessary for the solution to be in the zone of equivalence? the antigen has 4 identical epitopes on each molecule. | 10 |
| in immunofixation electrophoresis, antibody is | applied on top surface of the gel |
| the antibody isotype that most effectively overcomes the electrostatic repulsion between particles in an agglutination reaction | IgM |
| characteristics of a passive agglutination test | Ag molecules are artificially bound to particles |
| what's true of a reverse agglutination test? | Ab attached to particles |
| the particle-counting immunoassay method counts | number of free latex particles |
| if an Ouchterlony immunodiffusion pattern shows an arc equidistant between antigens A and B, this indicates that the antigens: | are identical |
| what is meant by "gating" in flow cytometry? | electronic window seperating sub populations of cells |
| a mature cytotoxic T cells expresses which markers? | CD8-CD3-CD2 |
| an intrinsic parameter that can be measured by flow cytometer is | granularity |
| a test system is producing many false-positive results. the problem might involve | analytic specificity |
| the lowest measurable amount of an analyte is | analytic sensitivity |
| the reference interval is determined by | measuring an analyte... |
| light signal in flow cytometry that could be used to provide information about expression of a protein on the outer surface of a cell membrane | red light.... |
| fluorescently labeled antibodies are used in flow cytometry to | determine proteins associated with a cell |
| advantages of automated testing in a clinical immunology laboratory | reduce T.A.T |
| disadvantages of automated testing in a clinical immunology laboratory | dependency on a single machine |
| a fluorescent signal in flow cytometry is generated by | florochromes.... |
| fluorescence in flow cytometry is usually used to determine | extrinsic cell parameters |
| in flow cytometry, it is possible to detect the expression of 10 different cell membrane proteins simultaneously by | staining the cells |
| a single cell parameters acquired by flow cytometry is presentd graphically as | a histogram |
| flow icytometry is commonly used to | determine the stage of leukocyte differenation |
| how close are measured value is to the actual (true) value is called | accuracy |
| the ability to consistently reproduce the same result on repeated testing of the same sample is | precision |
| which type of hypersensitivity is the reaction to poison ivy? | type IV |
| which isotype of immunoglobulin is involved in a type I hypersensitivity? | IgE |
| hypersensitivity to poison ivy and nickel are: | macrophages response to haptens |
| examples of a condition that involves type III hypersensitivity | RA |
| what occurs in hemolytic disease of the new born? | Rh- mom is exposed to Rh+ baby |
| the precipitation of immune complexes in small blood vessels under the skin that occurs when antigen is injected into an animal with large amounts of circulating antibody describes | aarthus reaction |
| complement is responsible for tissue damage in which reaction? | type III |
| which newly synthesized mediator has a model of action similar to that of histamine? | PDG2 |
| the "crest" variant of which disease is associated with the presence of an anticentromere antibody? | progressive systemic schlerosis |
| which laboratory findings is associated with multiple schlerosis? | several bands on electrophoresis of CSF |
| systemic lupus erythematous is characterized by | presence of (anti) ds-DNA |
| hashimoto's thyroiditis can best be differentiated from Graves disease on the basis of | decreased thyroid hormone levels |
| antibodies to cyclic citrullinated proteins (anti-CCP) are specific diagnostic indicators for | RA |
| what does a speckeld nuclear pattern in an antinuclear antibody test indicate? | antibody to an extractible nuclear Ag |
| decreased CD3-positive lymphocytes and a lack of responsiveness to phytohemagglutinin in the circulation are typically associateed with | DiGeorge annomally |
| which disease results in an acquired or secondary immunodeficiency? | HIV |
| what is true of selective IgA deficiency? | patients may development and anti-IgA Ab |
| what is associated with DiGeorge syndrome? | small or missing thymus |
| an autosomal-recessive form of severe combined immunodeficiency can be caused by | JAK3 |
| pateints with recombinase activating gene I (RAG-I) or RAG-2 deficiencies have decreased numbers of | lymphocytes |
| leukocyte adhesion deficiency is caused by | CD18 deficiency |
| the most common complement deficiency is | C2 |
| treponema pallidum and borrelia burgdorferi can be distinguished from each other on the basis of | only Be.burgdoferi can be grown in the lab artificially media |
| stage of syphilis at which the RPR is the most sensitive? | secondary |
| components of the immune system that are activated early in the course of the patients with fungal infection | cytokine production & inflammation |
| which type of mycotic infection does a patient with candidiasis is considered to have? | opportunistic |
| antigen routinely detected in the blood of a person who has recently been infected with HIV | p24 |
| what is the function of gp120 and p24? | gp120 binds to CD24 on T cells, per core coat nucleic acid |
| what is the function of p66 and gp41? | sub-unit of reverse transcriptase; transmembrane protein |
| confirmatory test for HIV infection | Western blot |
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Mtc