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Coagulation final re
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| which of the following ratios of anticoagulant to blood is acceptable for most coagulation procedures? | 1:9 |
| platelet aggregation is dependant on the presence of | calcium ions |
| the vasoconstrictor substance released from the platelets at the site of injury is: | thromboxane A2 |
| which organs is responsible for sheltering 20% of the total platelet volume in the circulation? | spleen |
| the main substrate of the coagulation system is: | fibrinogen |
| a decreased platelet count is most often anticipated when a patient demonstrates: | petechiae |
| which is a component of the fibrinolytic system? | plasminogen |
| the prothrombin group of factors consists of factors | II, VII, IX, X |
| what does the anticoagulant known as Heparin do? | inhibits thrombin activity |
| which factor is involved in contact activation? | Fitzgerald factor |
| which factor is measured by both the PT and the aPTT? | V |
| which protein is not made in the liver | vWF |
| what does the tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI) do? | prevents activiation of factor X by VIIa |
| which are the two inhibitors that keep the activation of coagulation under control? | protease inhibitors and protein C pathway |
| what is the patients citrated plasma combined with in the prothrombin test? | calcium & thromboplastin |
| what is the first response of a cut vessel? | vasoconstriction |
| what is the average lifespan of a platelet in a normal adult? | 7-10 days |
| where are platelets synthesized? | in the bone marrow |
| the correct order of occurrence from the beginning to end of four phases of platelet function is: | adhesion, aggregation,release,stabilization |
| the fibrinogen group of coagulation factors include: | I,V, VII, XIII |
| mention coagulation factors that have autosomal inheritance features: | I, III, V, VII, VIII, XII |
| what is the fibrinolysis controlled by? | plasminogen activator system |
| another name for the following factors: | factor I: fibrinogen factor II: prothrombin factor III: thromboplastin factor IV: calcium factor V: labile factor factor VII: stabile factor factor VIII: anti-hemophiliac factor |
| a decreased platelet count is most often anticipitated when a patient demonstrates: | epistaxis |
| the correct anticoagulant-to-blood ratio for coagulation samples is: | 1:9 |
| what causes irreversible inactivation of platelets? | asprin |
| therapeutic thrombolytic agents include: | tPA, streptokinase, urokinase |
| what is the most likely explanation if several hours after birth, a baby boy develops the following symptoms, petechiae, purpura, and hemorrage? the platelet count is 18,000. | isoimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia |
| which test results is normal in a patient with classic von Willebrand's disease? | plt count |
| the autoantibody generated in ITP is directed against: | GPIIb-IIIa or GPIb-IX |
| list platelet adhesion disorders | von Willebrand's disease & Bernard-Soulier syndrome |
| why is desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) an effective treatment for vWD? | releases endothelial vWF |
| thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura is | fever, renal failure, neurological complications |
| the presence of thrombocytopenia and giant platelets on the peripheral smear of a patient is characteristic of | Bernard-Soulier syndrome |
| list conditions that may result in thrombocytosis | polycythemia Vera (PCV) |
| in hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)..... | caused by E.coli 0157:H7 |
| platelet aggregation cannot occur if | GPIIb/IIIa receptor is deficient |
| conditions associated with platelet disorders are | deep muscle hemorrage |
| the anticoagulant of choice for routine coagulation procedures is | sodium citrate |
| thrombocytosis is defined as a platelet count that is | <450 x 10 to the 9th liter |
| asprin therapy irreversible inhibits the synthesis of | prostaglandins |
| a platelet release defective in which there is a severe deficiency of dense granules in platelets is: | hermansky-pudlak syndrome |
| a platelet release defective in which there is a severe lack of alpha granules in platelets is known as: | gray platelets syndrome |
| the single best predictive assay for von Willebrand's factor is: | ristocetin cofactor activity |
| a coagulation disorder commonly associated with umbilicus bleeding and post-circumcision bleeding is: | GT (glanzmann's thrombasthenia) |
| list autoimmune thrombocytopenia disease processes: | chronic idopathic, thrombocytopenia, purpura |
| hyperviscosity syndrome and paraproteinemia are associated with | MLL, waldenstrams macroglobulinemia |
| platelets from patients with which disorders will not aggregate with ristocetin? | vWD & BSS |
| the following laboratory results have been obtained for a 40 yr old woman: PT=20sec (ref. range 11-15sec), aPTT=50sec (ref. range 22-40sec), and thrombin time= 18sec (ref. range 11-15 sec). what factor deficiency is most likely? | factor X deficiency |
| which is the most prevalant inherited bleeding disorder? | vWD |
| a man with hemophilia A and an unaffected female can produce a | female carrier |
| a prolonged aPTT is corrected with factor VII deficient plasma but not with factor IX deficient plasma. what factor is deficient? | factor IX |
| which result will be within reference range in a patinet with dysfibrinogenemia? | immunological fibrinogen level |
| factor assays measure the percentage of activity of a given factor by mixing the patient's plasma with: | factor deficient plasma |
| which platelet response(s) is usually associated with hemophilia A? | normal PLT aggregation |
| long-term antibiotic therapy is a cause of bleeding because it disrupts | vitamin K synthesis |
| which is the most useful in differentiating hemophilia A from hemophilia B? | familial factors of inheritance |
| the treatment of choice for hemophilia A individuals is | factor VIII concentrate |
| the only clotting factor not synthesized exclusively by the liver is | factor VIII |
| clotting factors must be present at a minimum of which percentage for hemostasis to be achieved? | 30% |
| which assay Will be abnormal with hemophilia A? | aPTT |
| Christmas disease is another name for | hemophilia B |
| treatment of patients with factor II, VII, or X deficiency consists of | administration of prothrombin complex concentrate |
| factor XI deficiency is also known as | hemophilia C |
| keloid scar formation is most commonly associated with | factor XIII (13) |
| may lead to deficiencies of clotting factors | liver disease, renal disease, auotimmune disease |
| factor V leiden is a genetic mutation of | factor V |
| hemophilia B is best treated with | factors 2,7,9,10 (II,VII,IX,X) |
| the process of fibrinogen degradation is called___ and is controlled by the enzyme___ | fibrinolysis, plasmin |
| a prolonged thrombin time and a normal reptilase time is indicative of | Heparin therapy |
| functions of thrombin | platelet release, activates 5 & 8, stimulates PG12 |
| when may D-dimers be elevated? | deep vein thrombosis |
| a primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system is | alpha2-antiplasmin |
| the reference range for a thrombin time is | 11-15sec |
| by-products of fibrinolysis? | fibrin degradation products and D-dimers |
| which hematology disorder will likely trigger and episode of DIC? | acute proganulocytic anemia |
| the D-dimers test measures | fibrin deposition |
| obstetrical complications like retained placenta or abruptio placenta are leading causes of | DIC |
| the substrate upon which the coagulation Cascade is centered is | fibrinogen |
| the reference range for fibrinogen is | 200-400 mg/dL |
| patients with the heterozygous form of afibrinogenemia will have plasma levels of fibrinogen in the range of | 20-100 mg/dL |
| prothrombin can only be converted to thrombin by the action of factors X, factor V, platelet factor 3, and | calcium |
| the best component to use for patients with afibrinogenemia is | fresh frozen plasma |
| an excess of what is indicative of the breakdown of fibrin products within the circulating blood? | D-dimers |
| a patient with DIC will have what coagulation test results? | increased D-dimers, PT-INR increased, aPTT increased |
| plasmin causes the inactivation of factors | V, VIII, XI, XII |
| primary fibrinolysis is a disorder closely related to DIC. which coagulation profile assays are the same as the for DIC? | PLT count which is normal |
| normal levels of fibrin degradation products are removed by the reticuloendothelial system and usually measure | <40 u/mL |
| describe factor V leiden | inherited, activates protein C |
| the international normalized ratio (INR) is useful in | Coumadin |
| what does Heparin do? | inhibits thrombin |
| what is true regarding Coumadin? | vitamin K antagonist, PT monitoring, not recommend for pregnant or lactating women |
| what PT results would most likely be seen in a patient who is on Coumadin and is stable? | approximately 26 seconds |
| the lupus anticoagulant is directed against | phospholipids |
| Coumadin acts in such a way that it | alters synthesis of vitamin K, dependant clotting factors |
| Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) usually | occurs 5-14 days after Heparin therapy |
| factor VIII inhibitors | usually timed and heat dependant |
| what therapy may be used for patient with hemophilia A who is bleeding and has a low titer of factor VIII inhibitor? | porcine factor VIII |
| primary hemostasis refers to the process by which | platelet plug is formed |
| arterial thrombosis is associated with | clots in arteries |
| the primary role of plasmin is | fibrin breakdown |
| list naturally occurring thrombin inhibitors | protein C, prothrombin, cofactor II, AT |
| protein C activated by | protein S |
| the most common tests used to detect lupus anticoagulants include | aPTT, Coumadin, clotting time, DRVVT |
| drug alternatives for patients with Heparin induced thrombocytopenia include | danparoid |
| Heparin therapy is monitored best by performing routine | antifactor Xa |
| the target therapeutic range for an INR inpatients with thromboembolic disease is | 2-3sec |
| antithombin inhibits which factors | 2a,9a,11a |
Created by:
Mtc