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Stack #2628927
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| After frozen RBCs have been thawed and washed they must be used within how many hours? A) 6 B) 12 C) 72 D)48 | 48 |
| Which type of antibodies are known to cause TRALI? Red Cell antibodies Platelet antibodies HLA antibodies all of the above | HLA antibodies |
| What is the proper storage temperature for thawed cryoprecipitate 4-8 20-24 35-37 -20 or below | 20-24 |
| If a recipient has anti-c, which donor unit should be selected r'r RoR1 R2ry r'ry* RoRo | r'ry |
| Which of the following blood groups usually reacts LEAST strongly with anti-H? O B A2 A1 | A1 |
| Which of the following Rh antigens is found in highest frequency in the Caucasian population C E c e | e |
| Which of the following is generally first found about 12 weeks after the onset of acute Hepatitis B? HBsAg HBeAg Anti-HBe Anti-HBs | Anti-HBe |
| The maximum time which a recipient sample may be used for crossmatching if the pateint was transfused within the last 2 months? 24 hours one week 3 days two weeks | 3 days |
| What percentage of Rh-negative children would be expected from an R1R1 mother and R1r father? 25% 100% none 50% | none |
| Which of the following may cause a FALSE-NEGATIVE result with antiglobulin techniques? Red cell/AHG test sample is overcentrifuged Patient's blood specimen was collected in gel tube Red cells were not washed before adding AHG Patient red cells have an | red cells were not washed before adding AHG |
| In order to prevent a loss of viability in platelet concentrations during storage the pH must be maintained above: 7.5 6.0 5.0 4.0 | 6.0 |
| Units of A-, B-, and O-negative red cells are shipped to your transfusion service. What testing must be preformed by your facility prior to placing into inventory? ABO ABO and Rh ABO, Rh and antibody screen ABO,Rh, and Weak D to confirm negative statu | ABO and Rh |
| Proteolytic enzyme techniques may be used to enhance reactions with this group of antigens? Kell system Kidd system MNS system Duffy System | Kidd system |
| Can you preform an accurate DAT on a clotted specimen? Yes No | No |
| Of the following MNSs system antibodies, which is almost always cold-reacting, IgM and clincically insignificant? Anti-s Anti-U Anti-N Anti-S | Anti-N |
| If an antibody panel is tested and the auto control is negative but all panel cells react 2+ with patient serum at IAT, which of the following is most likely the cause? Autoantibody Antibody to high incidence antigen Cold alloantibody Antibody to low | antibody to high incidence antigen |
| Which of these blood group systems is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions? Kell Duffy Lewis Kidd | Kidd |
| How long can fresh frozen plasma be stored? ten years one year six months 24hours | one year |
| A patient is admitted with anemia for two units red cells, he has received a bone marrow transplant a year ago, which red cell product is the best choice for a transfusion? Leuko-reduced red cells washed red cells Deglycerolized red cells Irradiated r | Irradiated red cells |
| All donor blood testing must include which of the following? Anti-CMV testing complete Rh phenotyping serological test for syphilis direct antiglobulin test | serological test for syphilis |
| In chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), granulocytes function is impaired. An association exists between this clinical condition and a depression of this antigen. Rh Kell P Duffy | Kell |
| Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin A? M,N S,U Lea,Leb Lua,Lub | M,N |
| Once fresh frozen plasma is thawed it should be transfused within : 12 hour 6 hours 24 hours 4 hours | 24 hours |
| Cord bloods are washed prior to ABO and Rh grouping to: Remove ant-i Expose A and B antigens Remove Wharton's jelly Prevent reagent neutralization | Remove Wharton's jelly |
| When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temperature must be recorded: Once a day Every 4 hours Every hour Every 8 hours | every 4 hours |
| The optimum storage temperature for Red Cells is: -80 C -20 C 4 C 24 C | 4 C |
| Irradiation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is done to prevent the replication of : granuloctyes platelets red cells lymphoctes | lymphocytes |
| Cryoprecipitated AHG contains how many units of Factor VIII? 40 80 130 250 | 80 |
| An individual has been sensitized to the k antigen and has produced anti-k. What is her most probable Kell system genotype. Kk kk R1R1 KK | KK |
| Given the following typing results, what is this donor's racial ethinicty ? Le(a-b-) Fy(a-b-), Js(a+b+) Asian American Native American Caucasion African American | African American |
| The enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell membrane is alpha-: galactosyl transferase N-acetylgalactosaminyl transferase L-fucosyl transferase N- acetylglucosaminyl transferase | L-fucosyl transferase |
| What is the component of choice if, bleeding patient has increased BT, APTT,PT, decreased Factor VIII and impaired plt aggregation in response to ristocetin? Factor VIII Fresh frozen plasma Cryoprecipitate Platelet Pheresis | Cryoprecipitate |
| An oncology patient has the following phenotype: D+ C+ c- E+ e+ and recieved 3 units R2R2 blood. What Rh alloantibody will this patient most likely develop? Anti-D Anti-e Anti-E Anti-c | anti-c |
| What soluble antigen forms are detectable in secretions of a person with the following genotype: AB, Hh ,SeSe? B,A, H A, H H A,B | B,A,H |
| An elderly woman with weight of 90 lbs experiences difficulty breathing, coughing, and cyanosis during a rapid transfusion of red cells. What is the most probable transfuion reaction she may be having. febrile anaphylactic circulatory overload hemolyt | circulatory overload |
| The Rh genotype CDE/cDE is written in Weiner Notation as: RoRo R1R1 R1r' RzR2 | RzR2 |
| In Rosenfield notation the phenotype of a donor is written as: Rh:1,-2,-3,4,5. What is the correct Fisher-Race notation? cDe CcDe CcDE CDEe | cDe |
| AABB standards require that antibody detection tests must include the following? Pooled red cells Anti-human Globulin phase testing Low-ionic strength testing Room emperature testing | anti-human globulin phase testing |
| The elution technique is used to: Disassociate IgG antibodies from red cell for further ID Disassociate IgM antibodies from red cell for further ID Adsorb IgG antibodies from serum separate IgG and IgM antibodies | Disassociate IgG antibodies from red cell for further ID |
| An autoadsorption uses what type of cells to remove antibody from the serum? Antibody screening cells Donor red cells Patient red cells Antibody identification | Patient red cells |
| High-titer,low avidity antibodies typically: react best at cold temperatures show strong reaction strengths at IAT phase reacts with antigens of high frequency in the population react with antigens of low frequency in the population | reacts with antigens of high frequency in the population |
| An antibody demonstrating dosage would mean that: homozygous cells are stronger heterozygous cells are stronger cells react best with PEG cells reacted best at 4 C | homozygous cells are stronger |
| Leukocyte-Poor Red Cells would most likely be indicated for patients with history of: febrile transfusion reaction iron deficiency anemia hemophilia A von Willebrand disease | febrile transfusion reaction |
| Posttransfusion anaphylactic reactions occur most often in patients with: leukocyte antibodies erythrocyte antibodies IgA deficiency Facor VIII deficiency | IgA deficiency |
| Hives and Itching are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions? febrile allergic circulatory overload bacterial | allergic |
| The most important step in the safe administration of blood is to: perform compatablilty testing accurately get an accurate patient history exclude disqualified donors accurately identify the donor unit and recipient | accurately identify the donor unit and recipient |
| Irradiation of donor blood is done to prevent which of the following effects adverse effects of transfusion: febrile transfusion reaction CMV infection transfusion associated graft-vs-host disease transfusion related acut lung injury (TRALI) | transfusion associated graft-vs-host disease |
| Symptoms of dyspnea, cough, hypoxemia, and pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion is most likely which type of reaction? anaphylactic hemolytic febrile TRALI | TRALI |
| For a patient who has suffered an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the primary treatment goal should be to : prevent alloimmunization diminish chills and fever prevent hemoglobinemia reverse hypotension and minimize renal damage | reverse hypotension and minimize renal damage |
| Hemoglobinuria, hypotension, and generalized bleeding are symptoms of which of the following transfusion rections. allergic circulatory overload hemolytic anaphylactic | hemolytic |
| What is the minimum interval period between plasmapheresis and the donation of a unit of whole blood? 6 weeks 2 weeks 48 hours 24 hours | 48 hours |
| The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as: diffusion adsorption neutralization elution | elution |
| *What is the most probable cold autoantibody detected by Donath-Lansteiner test? Anti-K Anti-I Anti-P Anti-Le | Anti-P |
| Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed? Cryoprecipitate AHG, 4 C Fresh Frozen Plasma, -20 C Red Cells,frozen, -40 C Platelet, 37C | Fresh Frozen Plasma, -20C |
| Which one of these constitutes permanent rejection status of donor? a tattoo 5 months ago recent close contact with patient with viral hepatitis recieved 2 units packed red cells, 4 months ago confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years ago | confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years ago |
| According to AABB Standards which of the following donors may be acceptable donor? traveled to malaria endemic area 9 months ago spontaneous abortion at 2months gestation, 3 months ago resides with known hepatitis positive person recieved blood transf | resides with known hepatitis positive person |
| Which will NOT be detected in a crossmatch? ABO typing errors Platelet antibodies Detect all alloantibodies All of the above | All of the above (ABO typing errors, platelet antibodies, detect all alloantibodies) |
| What is the approximate volume of anticoagulant in a donor bag of whole blood? 400 ml 10 ml 63 ml 150 ml | 63 ml |
| Which are NOT tested for in donor blood before it is released to allogenic pool of blood? HBsAg HIV Graft versus Host disease Syphilis | Graft versus Host disease |
| What is the volume of D-positive blood covered by giving one vial of RhoGam? 1 ml 50 ml 15 ml 100 ml | 15ml |
| This antibody reacts more strongly with cord cells than adult cells? Anti-I Anti-P Anti-i Anti-M | Anti-i |
| Of the following donor units, which could be selected for an Rh-negative recipient with anti-c? RoR1 R2r" r'r' r'r" | r'r' |
| Which blood group antigens can be destroyed by the addition of DTT? Kidd Rh Kell Duffy | Kell |
| What is a lectin? Proteolyitic Enzyme Protein derived from animal source Enhancer Protein originating from plant seed extract | protein originating from plant seed extract |
| What is the name of cold antibody associated with infectious mononucleosis? anti-I anti-Lea Anti-P anti-i | anti-i |
| A red top tube arrives at lab BB for a type and screen. It is labeled: Jon D Dose, 03/5/12 0900 BKT. Is it acceptable to use? Yes, we know the history No, missing documentation Yes, just ask phlebotomist to resign the tube No, we only use gel tubes in | No, missing documentation |
| Once a unit of blood has left the controlled environment how long can the floor hold on to it and still safely return it to the blood bank? 24 hours 4 hours 20 minutes 10 minutes | 20 minutes (30 mins) |
| What is the best example of reaction for "aquired B" antigen? Anti-A: 4+, Anti-B: 1+, A cells: Neg, B cells: 4+ Anti-A: 4+, Anti-B: 4+, A cells: neg, Bcells: neg Anti-A: neg, Anti-B: 4+, A Cell:4+, B cells: negative Anti-A: 1+, Anti-B: 4+, A cel | Anti-A: 4+, Anti-B: 1+, A cells: Neg, B cells: 4+ |
| Which of these patients will indicate use of RhIG? Mom 0+ baby O+ Mom O neg Baby O neg DAT positive Mom A neg , Baby A pos , Neg DAT Mom A neg, Baby A neg Neg DAT | Mom A neg, baby A pos, Neg DAT |
| What is the most desirable sample used for crossmatch for exchange transfusion? maternal plasma cord serum neonate plasma no crossmatch is necessary | maternal plasma |
| Degradation of reagents would likely cause a ___in QC shift trend | trend |
| Which westgard rule is considered a warning: 23s 12S 31S | 1 2S |
| A sample analyzed at 10am had a value for TBil of 15mg/dl. the sample was left on the counter and late that afternoon the specimen was analyzed again. This time the TBil was 9mg/dL. Which of the following is the probable cause of the discrepancy between t | bilirubin was lost due to photo-oxidation |
| A 23-year-old woman enters the hospital with dark urine and yellow eyes. She complained of lethargy and general malaise for 2 previous weeks. Her total serum bilirubin is 9.5mg/dl, conjugated Bili is 6.0mg/dl, ALP is 220mU/mL, LD is 8040IU/L, AST is 2500 | Viral hepatitis |
| The Woman from the last question had a presence of HBsAg and HBeAg, which is most likely: convalescent HBV hepatitis acute HBV hepatitis Carrier State hepatitis recovery phase of HBV | acute HBV hepatitis (HBeAg shows she is actively sick) |
| A cardiac glycoside that is used in the treatment of congenital heart failure and arrhythmias by increasing the force and velocity of Myocardial contraction is: Phenytoin Lithium digoxin olanzapine | digoxin |
| Which disease leads to fatty liver and Encephalopathy? Reye's syndrome Crigler-Najjar disease Wilson's disease (excess build up copper) Guillane Barrre disease | Reye's syndrome |
| A 6 year old came to the ER complaining of lethargy, nausea, and vomitiing for 3-4days. The mother said the child was urinating frequently, thirsty all the time and eating a lot. The patient's WBC was 12.5, Hgb 11.2g/dl, acetone-large, glucose-800mg/dL, p | diabetic ketoacidosis |
| This hormone plays a critical role in stimulating gluconeogenesis and ketogenesis in IDDM patients ACTH glycogen glucagon growth hormone | glucagon |
| In kinetic enzyme assays: samples are added and read continuously samples are added and read 1 time after an incubation period samples are added and read at specific time intervals samples are added and one reading is made after addition of sample | samples are added and read at specific time intervals |
| A 35 year old woman goes to the doctor complaining of bone pain. Her ALP is 500 IU/L. After inactivation at 56C for 10 minutes, her ALP is 10IU/L. What is her diagnosis? liver disease Paget's disease intestinal disease carcinoma | Paget's disease (ALP is liver and bone) |
| A 45 year old woman consulted a physician after blood pressure screening at a health fair revealed mild to moderate hypertension. The patient had a central obesity, thin limbs, and a round, ruddy face. She was not taking any medication. Her blood pressure | Cushing's disease |
| TSH-0.05 IU/L FT4-8.0mg/L Which is a likely diagnosis? Hashimoto's disease Graves disease Cushing's disease Addison's disease | Grave's disease |
| A serological pipette with an etched ring that has "TD" inscribed is also known as a ___________pipette. micro blow out transfer | blow out |
| In which of the following types of spectrophotometry do ground state atoms absorb light at a defined wavelength? atomic absorption UV spectrophotometry atomic emission | atomic absorption |
| In which of the following is the measurement of light scattered in a forward direction by a particulate solution. The amound of scatter is directly proportional to the number and size of particles present in the solution? flow cytometry nephlometry s | nephlometry |
| Which is a common technique for the testing of electrolytes? electrophoresis ion selective electrodes spectrophotometry chemluminescence | ion selective electrodes |
| Which of the following types of analysis involves running multiple tests where the sample and reagents are in a separate container for each test? Centrifugal discrete random access | discrete |
| A patient with primary hyperparathyroidism would have an ________calcium increased decreased | increased |
| If you were the physician for a critically ill patient, would you rather order a TotalCalcium or an Ionized Calcium....why? | Ionized calcium it's free flowing in your blood not attached to proteins (i.e. albumin) |
| The Jendrassik-Graf and Evelyn Malloy are methods for which test? Glucose Creatinine Urobilinogen Bilirubin | bilirubin |
| Which of the following would be increased in hepatocellular carcinoma? AFP transferrin (increased in iron deficiency anemia) alpha2macroglobulin ceruloplasmin (more of a Wilson disease) | AFP |
| This cardiac marker peaks at 4-8 hours | |
| remains elevated up to 5-10 days and can be detected with a qualitative screening test Myoglobin CK-MB Troponin LD | Troponin |
| Which of the following is an antiepilleptic drug? Digoxin Phenytoin Theophylline Tacrolimus | Phenytoin |
| 28-year-old woman has been sick with the flu for the past week, vomiting several times every day. She is having a difficult time keeping solids and liquids down, and has become severely dehydrated. After fainting at work, she was taken to a walk-in clinic | metabolic alkalosis |
| Which is a major extracellular cation and plays a major role in Osmolarity? Na K Ca Mg | Na |
| Which NPN is directly proportional to the muscle mass and remains constant from day to day? creatine BUN creatinine uric acid | creatinine |
| Which of the following is responsible for the "creamy" color of a lipemic specimen? triglycerides chylomicrons LDL cholesterol | chylomicrons |
| A 25 year old female sees her physician for symptoms of excessive thirst, dehydration, and excessive urination. Lab results show a decreased ADH/vasopressin and a glucose of 100mg/dl. What is her diagnosis NIDDM IDDM Diabetes insipidis | diabetes insipidis |
| Increased serum albumin is seen in which of the following conditions? Nephrotic syndrome chronic inflammation acute hepatitis dehydration | dehydration |
| Which test can be physiologically elevated in child growth and pregnancy? GGT ALP AST LDH | ALP |
| In order to inhibit glycolysis for long periods of storage, what type of tube should a plasma glucose be drawn in? lavender EDTA green heparin grey sodium fluoride blue sodium citrate | grey sodium fluoride |
| Which NPN is the principle extretory form of nitrogen (by product of protein metabolism)? Ammonia Uric Acid Creatinine Urea | Urea |
| The methology used in the SCREENING of drugs in urine is______________ and the metholology used in the CONFIRMATION of drugs is_______________ | immunoassay, GCMS |
| Which would be increased in a patient diagnosed with a pheochromocytoma? epinephrine cortisol estrogen aldosterone | epinepphrine |
| A patient comes into the emergency room complaining of severe stomach pain. The lab results come back with a gastrin level that is 2000X normal. What is the likely diagnosis? Reye's syndrome Zollinger-Ellison syndrome Addison's Disease Klinefelter' | Zollinger-Ellison syndrome |
| Which of the following aids testosterone in spermatogenesis? FSH LH hCG Progesterone | FSH |
| A deficiency of vitamin D can cause scurvy rickets beri beri pallagra | rickets |
| What is the calculation to convert the %T to absorbance? | A=2-log%T |
| Using the Friedewald calculation, Calculate the LDL: Chol=250mg/dl, HDL=35mg/dl, Trig=310 | 153 mg/dL |
| What is the creatinine clearance: Volume=1850ml, Urine Creat=200mg/dl, plasma Creat=2.2mg/dl, BSA=2.1, time=24 hours | 96 ml/min |
| Standard deviation=6.2mg/dL, mean = 110mg/dl. What is the coefficient of variation? | 5.6 |
| You run a glucose on an unconcious ER patient. The procedure manual says to make a 1:3 dilution with DI water and to rerun. Your sample cups hold up to a 1mL. The minimum amount needed to run the test is 200uL. How much serum and how much water would you | 675 mg/dL (you multiply 225 by dilution factor) |
| Clinical assays for tumor markers are MOST important for: screening for cancer (PSA) monitoring the course of a known cancer confirming the absense of a disease identifying patietns at risk for cancer | monitoring the course of a known cancer |
| What condition might a person with an increased amylase and lipase have? | pancreatitis |
| Which of the following lipids is important in cell membrane composition and in nerve transmission? triglycerides cholesterol phopholipids sphingolipids | sphingolipids |
| What is the molarity? 25g of NaCl is dissolved in 250mL of water. gmw-50g | 2M |
| A 20 year old males sees the doctor 3-4 days after overdosing on an over the counter drug. He has severe liver (hepatobilliary) toxicity. Which drug did he likely take? | acetaminophen (tylenol) |
| A patient admits to taking Oxycodone, what test will show up positive on a urine tox? Benzodiazepines opiates Tetrahydrocannabinol barbituates | opiates |
| Which trace element plays a role in many enzymatic reactions in the body? iron zinc selenium copper | zinc |
| Which vitamin deficiency will cause pallagra? Niacin (B3) Thiamine (B1) Folic Acid (B9) Ascorbic Acid (C) | Niacin (B3) |
| A person with an accumulation of bilirubin in the brain that can lead to brain damage is known as having: pku kernicterus cirrhosis reye's syndrome | kernicterus |
| AS part of a hyperlipidemia screening, the following results were obtained on a 25 year old woman 6 hours after eating: Trig: 260mg/dl, Chol: 120mg/dl: Both results are normal and not affected by the recent meal The cholesterol is normal but the trig | The cholesterol is normal but the triglycerides are elevated, which may be attributed to the recent meal |
| Which test should be run in a case of neuromuscular irritability (tetany)? Calcium Magnesium Phosphous A&B | Calcium & Magnesium |
| In an MI, what is the first enzyme to become elevated? CK AST LD ALT | CK |
| Which of the following is true of 2,3-BPG? It enhances the release of oxygen from hemoglobin It provides a source of glucose for the RBC It is unnecessary for RBC survival It is the least of all organophosphates in the RBC | it enhances the release of oxygen from hemoglobin |
| The principle energy source for mature red blood cells is: Krebs cycle hexose monophosphate pathway adenosine triphosphate (ATP) generated from anaerobic glycolysis adenosine diphosphate (ADP) generated from aerobic glycolysis | ATP (adenosine triphosphate generated from anaerobic glycolysis) |
| What is the last stage of cell capable of undergoing mitosis? Pronormoblast Polychromatic Normoblast Orthochromic Normoblast Basophilic Normoblast | Polychromatic normoblast |
| If 2,3-BPG is increased, which direction does the oxygen dissociation curve shift? Right Left | Right |
| All of the following are found in heme except: Carbon Ferrous iron Hydrogen Ferric iron | Ferric iron |
| Specific (secondary) granules of the neutrophilic granulocyte: Appear first at the myelocyte stage Contain lysosomal enzymes Are formed on the mitochondria Are derived from azurophil (primary) granules | Appear first at the myelocyte stage |
| What is the last granulocyte in the maturation sequence able to undergo mitosis? Myeloblast Promyelocyte Myelocyte Metamyelocyte | Myelocyte |
| The light colored zone adjacent to the nucleus in a myelocyte is the: Ribosome Chromatin Golgi Mitochondria | Golgi |
| Elevation of the lymphocyte percentage above 47% is termed: Relative lymphocytosis Absolute lymphocytosis Leukocytosis Absolute neutrophilic leukocytosis | Relative lymphocytosis (Remember: relative is referring to the % an estimate, absolute is the actual number) |
| Which of the following molecules is stored in platelet granules (dense bodies)? Platelet factor 4 Serotonin Fibrinogen Platelet-derived growth factor | Serotonin (the other 3 are found in alpha granules) |
| Hemolysis in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is temperature dependent complement independent antibody-mediated caused by RBC membrane defect | caused by RBC membrane defect |
| Lab findings in hereditary spherocytosis do NOT include: reticulocytosis shortened RBC survival decreased osmotic fragility increased MCHC | decreased osmotic fragility |
| The characteristic erythrocyte found in pernicious anemia is: microcyte hypochromic macrocyte spherocyte | macrocyte |
| A bone marrow failure syndrome that results from damaged or defective stem cells is: Megaloblastic anemia Pernicious anemia Aplastic anemia PNH | Aplastic anemia |
| Which of the following tests is a good indicator of accelerated erythropoiesis? Urobilinogen Glycosylated Hgb Haptoglobin Reticulocyte count | Reticulocyte count |
| Folate and Vitamin B12 work together in production of: | Make DNA |
| What characteristic red cell shape is associated with extravascular hemolysis? | Spherocytes |
| Which of the following is detectable only by examining a peripheral blood smear? poikilocytosis anisocytosis hypochromia microcytosis | poikilocytosis (everything else is seen on the analyzer) |
| Which test result is key in differentiating Iron Deficiency Anemia from Anemia of Chronic Disease? | TIBC |
| Infiltration of abnormal cells destroys and replaces normal cells of the bone marrow describes which of the following diseases? Fanconi anemia Red Cell Aplasia Diamond-Blackfan anemia Myelophthisic Anemia | Myelophthisic anemia |
| What is the most appropriate screening test for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria? | surcose hemolysis |
| What is a heinz body and what disease is associated with it? | Denatured hgb found with G6PD |
| What poikilocyte do we see most often in thalassemia? | target cells |
| What abnormality of the RBCs do we see in lead poisoning? | Basophilic stippling |
| What does forward scatter measure? Complexity Basophilia Granularity Size | size |
| What type of leukemia is CALLa associated with? AML ALL CML CLL | ALL (cd10) |
| The platelet count in Polycythemia Vera is Normal Increased Decreased | Increased |
| What type of leukemia is M4? Acute Myelomonocytic Leukemia Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia M3 Acute Monocytic Leukemia M5 AML with maturation M2 | Acute Myelomonocytic Leukemia |
| What is the characteristic cell found in Hodgkin's lymphoma? Smudge cell Clefted lymphocyte Reed-Sternberg Reactive lymphocyte | Reed-Sternberg |
| Which of the following would not be found in CML? Eosinophilia WBC of 100 20% blasts LAP score of 12 | 20% blasts |
| List the four Myeloproliferative Disorders | CML, PV, ET, MMM/CIMF |
| What MDS has <1% blasts in bone marrow and blood and <15% ringed sideroblasts? RAEB-t RA RARS CMML | RA |
| What is the key characteristic of MDS? Left shift Pancytosis Dyspoiesis Leukoerythroblastosis | Dyspoiiesis |
| Which of the following is least likely to contribute to death for patients with MDS? Organ failure Neuropathy Thrombocytopenia Neutropenia | Neuropathy |
| A patient had the following results: WBC 8.3 RBC 2.5 Platelet 75 Left shift Philadelphia chromosome - negative LAP 136 Differential showed nRBCs, schistocytes, teardrops, giant platelets Chronic granulocytic leukemia Idiopathic thrombocythemia Po | Leukoerythroblastosis in myelofibrosis |
| What markers would be found on an immature B cell ALL? CD 3 and 5 CD13, 14, and 34 CD 10 and TdT CD19 and 20 | CD 10 and TdT |
| PT - normal APTT - prolonged Serum - corrected Aged - corrected Adsorbed - corrected | XI and XII |
| PT - prolonged APTT - prolonged Serum - no correction Aged - no correction Adsorbed - corrected | V |
| PT - prolonged APTT - prolonged Serum - no correction Aged - corrected Adsorbed - no correction | II |
| PT - normal APTT - prolonged serum - corrected aged - corrected adsorbed - no correction | IX |
| PT - prolonged APTT - prolonged Serum - no correction Aged - no correction Adsorbed - no correction | Inhibitor circulating |
| What would be the PT and APTT results if someone were deficient in Factor XIII? | PT normal APTT normal |
| A patient had a prolonged PT but a normal APTT. What is the most likely factor deficiency? | Factor VII |
| The D-Dimer test is a specific test for: | Plasmin degradation of fibrin |
| Which of the following factors is not present in BaSO4 adsorbed plasma? | II |
| The integrity of the intrinsic coagulation system is evaluated by the: | APTT |
| If a patient has a prolonged PT and prolonged APTT but both are corrected by aged plasma and serum but not corrected with adsorbed plasma, the most likely deficiency is factor: | X |
| The urea solubility test is specific for detecting deficiencies of factor: | XIII |
| An abnormal thrombin time is associated with: | Fibrinogen deficiency |
| A sheep blood agar plate inoculated with 0.001 mL of urine grows 80 colonies of Enterococcus faecalis. How many colony forming units per mL of urine should be reported? 80 800 8,000 80,000 | 80,000 |
| Which of the following clean catch urine culture colony counts indicated the patient likely has a urinary tract infection? 10 CFU/mL 1,000 CFU/mL 100,000 CFU/mL no growth | 100,000 CFU/mL |
| An aspirate of a deep wound was plated on two BAP plates and incubated aerobically and anaerobically. At 24 hours there was growth on the anaerobic plate only. This indicates that the organism is a(n): nonfermentor obligate anaerobe aerobe facultati | obligate anaerobe |
| A penicillin-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae produces: alpha-hemolysin beta-lactamase enterotoxin coagulase | beta-lactamase |
| Three sets of blood cultures were obtained from an adult patient with fever and suspected endocarditis. The aerobic bottle of one set had growth of Staph epidermidis at 5 days of incubation. This indicated that: there was low-grade bacteremia the orga | the organism is most likely a contaminant |
| In order to isolate Campylobacter coli/jejuni, the fecal specimen should be: inoculated onto selective plating media and incubated in reduced oxygen with added CO2 at 42 degrees C stored in tryptic soy broth before plating to ensure growth of the orga | inoculated onto selective plating media and incubated in reduced oxygen with added CO2 at 42 degrees C |
| An expectorated sputum is sent to the lab for culture from a patient with respiratory distress. The Gram stain of the specimen shows many SEC (>25/lpf) and rare PMNs. The microscopic appearance of the organisms present include: Moderate GPC in chains and | oropharyngeal flora |
| Which of the following specimen requests is acceptable? feces submitted for anaerobic culture Foley catheter tip submitted for aerobic culture rectal swab submitted for direct smear for gonococci urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli | urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli |
| CSF from a febrile 25 year old man with possible meningitis is rushed to the lab for a STAT Gram stain and culture. While performing the Gram stain, the technologist accidentally spills most of the specimen. The smear shows many neutrophils and no microor | chocolate |
| Which of the following is the most appropriate organism and media combination? Legionella species - Regan Lowe Clostridium difficile - PEA Campylobacter species - charcoal yeast extract Yersinia enterocolitica - CIN | Yersinia enterocolitica - CIN |
| A medium that aids in the presumptive ID of organisms based on their appearance on the medium is called: enriched selective differential specialized | differential |
| Vibrio parahaemolyticus can be isolated best from feces on: EMB HE SS TCBS | TCBS |
| Media used to support the growth of Legionella pneumophilia should contain which of the following additives? X & V factors Hemin and Vitamin K Charcoal and yeast extract (BCYE) Dextrose and Laked blood | Charcoal and yeast extract (BCYE) |
| A urine Gram stain shows gram pos cocci in clusters. The organism tested catalase positive. To speciate this organism from culture, the tech should perform a coagulase test and a/an: polymyxin B susceptibility novobiocin susceptibility oxidase beta- | novobiocin susceptibility |
| Which two diseases are usually preceded by infection with beta-hemolytic streptococci? rheumatic fever, undulant fever glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever rheumatic fever, tularemia glomerulonephritis, undulant fever | glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever |
| A gamma-hemolytic Strep that blackens BE agar but does not grow in 6.5% NaCl broth is most likely: Group B Strep Enterococcus Group D Strep Strep pneumoniae | Group D Strep (does NOT grow in 6.5%) |
| Of the following bacteria, the most frequent cause of prosthetic heart valve infections occurring within 2-3 months after surgery is: Strep pneumoniae Strep pyogenes Staph aureus Staph epidermidis | Staph epidermidis |
| A beta-hemolytic Strep that is bacitracin resistant and CAMP positive is: Group A or B Group A Group B beta-hemolytic, Group D | Group B (Strep aglactiae) |
| MacConkey media for screening suspected cases of hemorrhagic E. coli O157:H7 must contain: indole citrate sorbitol lactose | sorbitol |
| An organism was inoculated to a TSI tube and gave the following reactions: K/A, H2S, gas This organism most likely is: Klebsiella pneumoniae Shigella dysenteriae Salmonella typhimurium Escherichia coli | Salmonella typhimurium |
| A TSI tube inoculated with an organism gave the following reactions: K/A, no H2S, no gas This organism is most likely Yersinia enterocolitica Salmonella typhi Salmonella enteritidis Shigella dysenteriae | Yersinia enterocolitica |
| A quality control of the spot indole test requires the use of ATCC cultures of: Pseudomonas aeruginosa/Proteus mirabilis Salmonella typhi/Shigella sonnei Escherichia coli/Proteus vulgaris Escherichia coli/Enterobacter cloacae | Escherichia coli/Enterobacter cloacae |
| An organism that exhibits the satellite phenomenon around colonies of Staph is: Haemophilus influenzae Neisseria meningitidis Neisseria gonorrhoeae Klebsiella pneumoniae | Haemophilus influenzae |
| An organism isolated from the surface of a skin burn is found to produce a diffusible green pigment on a BAP. Further studies of the organism would most likely show the organism to be: Staph aureus Serratia marcescens Flavobacterium meningosepticum | Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
| A gastroenterologist submits a gastric biopsy from a patient with a peptic ulcer. To obtain presumptive evidence of H. pylori, a portion of the specimen should be added to which media? urea broth tetrathionate selenite tryptophan | urea broth |
| Assuming the agent isolated from a patient's spinal fluid produces a positive oxidase test, the most likely diagnosis is: tuberculous meningitis meningococcal meningitis viral meningitis pneumococcal meningitis | meningococcal meningitis |
| Which of the following is the most reliable test to differentiate Neisseria lactamica from Neisseria meningitidis? acid from maltose growth on MTM lactose degradation nitrite reduction to nitrogen gas | lactose degradation |
| A strict anaerobe that produces terminal spores is: C. tetani C. diphtheriae B. anthracis P. acnes | C. tetani |
| A stool sample is sent to the lab for culture to rule out C. difficile. What media should the microbiologist use and what is the appearance of the organisms on this media? BBE: colonies turn black Brucella agar: red pigmented colonies CCFA: yellow, gro | CCFA: yellow, ground glass colonies |
| A smear of skin tissue reveals fluroescent septate hyphae. The smear was prepared using: Acridine orange Calcofluor white Auramine rhodamine Periodic acid-Schiff | Calcofluor white |
| The formation of germ tubes presumptively identifies: C. tropicalis C. parapsilosis C. glabrata C. albicans | C. albicans |
| The genus of a virus associated with anogenital warts, cervical dysplasia and neoplasia is: herpes simplex virus papillomavirus cytomegalovirus coxsackievirus | papillomavirus |
| Mycoplasmas differ from bacteria in that they: do not cause disease in humans cannot grow in artificial inanimate media lack cell walls are not serologically antigenic | lack cell walls |
| In absorption spectrophotometry: A) Absorbance is directly proportional to transmittance B) Percent transmittance is directly proportional to concentration C) Percent transmittance is directly proportional to the light path length D) Absorbance is | Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration |
| Which formula correctly described the relationship between absorbance and %T? A) A=2-log%T B) A=2+log%T C) A= -log%T - 2 D) A=1+log%T | A=2-log%T |
| 3. Which element is reduced at the cathode of a Clark polarographic electrode? A) Silver B) Oxygen C) Chloride D) Potassium | Oxygen |
| 4. Which of the following best represents the reference (normal) range for arterial pH? A) 7.35-7.45 B) 7.42-7.52 C) 7.28-7.68 D) 6.85-7.56 | 7.35-7.45 |
| 5. What is the normal ration of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide in arterial blood? A) 1:10 B) 10:1 C) 20:1 D) 30:1 | 20:1 |
| 6. A patient's blood gas results are as follows: pH = 7.26 | |
| dco2=2.0mmol/L | |
| HCO3-=29mmol/L. These results would be classified as: A) Metabolic acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Respiratory alkalosis | respiratory acidosis |
| 7. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of compensation for metabolic acidosis? A) Hyperventilation B) Aldosterone release C) Release of epinephrine D) Bicarbonate excretion | Hyperventilation |
| 8. Which of the following conditions will cause an increased anion gap? A) Diarrhea B) Hypoaldosteronism C) Hyperkalemia D) Renal failure | Renal failure |
| 9. Which of the following conditions is associated with hypophosphatemia? A) Rickets B) Multiple myeloma C) Renal failure D) Hypervitaminosis D | Rickets |
| 10. Which of the following conditions is associated with hypokalemia? A) Addison's disease B) Hemolytic anemia C) Digoxin intoxication D) Alkalosis | Alkalosis |
| 11. Which of the following condition is associated with hypernatremia? A) Diabetes insipidus B) Hypoaldosteronism C) Burns D) Diarrhea | Diabetes insipidus |
| 12. Which of the following values is the threshold critical value for low plasma potassium? A) 1.5mmol/L B) 2.0mmol/L C) 2.5mmol/L D) 3.5mmol/L | 2.5 mmol/L |
| 13. Which electrolyte level best correlates with plasma osmolality? A) Sodium B) Chloride C) Bicarbonate D) Calcium : | Sodium |
| 14. Which of the following is characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus? A) Requires an oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosis B) Is the most common form of diabetes mellitus C) Usually occurs after age 40 D) Requires insulin replacement to preve | Requires insulin replacement to prevent ketosis |
| 15. Which of the following is the reference method for measuring serum glucose? A) Somogyi-Nelson B) Hexokinase C) Glucose oxidase D) Glucose dehydrogenase | Hexokinase |
| 16. Creatinine is formed from the: A) Oxidation of creatine B) Oxidation of protein C) Deamination of dibasic amino acids D) Metabolism of purines | oxidation of creatine |
| 17. Urea is produced from: A) The catabolism of proteins and amino acids B) Oxidation of purines C) Oxidation of pyrimidines D) The breakdown of complex carbohydrates | The catabolism of proteins and amino acids |
| 18. Blood ammonia levels are usually measured in order to evaluate A) Renal failure B) Acid-base status C) Hepatic coma D) Gastrointestinal malabsorption | Hepatic coma |
| 19. Select the lipoprotein fraction that carries most of the endogenous triglycerides A) VDRL B) LDL C) HDL D) Chylomicrons | VDRL |
| 20. Which apoprotein is inversely related to risk for coronary heart disease? A) Apoprotein A-I B) Apoprotein B C) Apoprotein C-II D) Apoprotein E-IV | Apoprotein A-I |
| 21. Which condition produces the highest elevation of serum lactate dehydrogenase? A) Pernicious anemia B) Myocardial infarction C) Acute hepatitis D) Muscular dystrophy | Pernicious anemia |
| 22. A patient has a plasma myoglobin level of 10µg/L at admission. Three hours later the myoglobin is 14µ/L and the Troponin I is 0.04µg/L (reference range 0-0.04µg/L). These results are consistent with which condition? A) Skeletal muscle injury B) Acu | No evidence of myocardial or skeletal muscle |
| 23. Select the most sensitive marker for alcoholic liver disease A) GLD B) ALT C) AST D) GGT | GGT |
| 24. Hyperparathyroidism is most consistently associated with: A) Hypocalcemia B) Hypocalcuria C) Hypophosphatemia D) Metabolic alkalosis | Hypophosphatemia |
| 25. Which of the following diseases is characterized by primary hyperaldosteronism caused by adrenal adenoma, carcinoma, or hyperplasia? A) Cushing's disease B) Addison's disease C) Conn's disease D) Pheochromocytoma | Conn's disease |
| 26. The serum TSH level is decreased in: A) Primary hyperthyroidism B) Primary hypothyroidism C) Secondary hyperthyroidism D) Euthyroid sick syndrome | Primary hypothyroidism |
| 27. Which of the following is the best analyte to monitor for recurrence of ovarian cancer? A) CA-15-3 B) CA-19-9 C) CA-125 D) CEA | CA-125 |
| 28. What is the primary clinical utility of measuring CEA? A) Diagnosis of liver cancer B) Diagnosis of colorectal cancer C) Screening for cancers of endodermal origin D) Monitoring for recurrence of cancer | Monitoring for recurrence of cancer |
| 29. Which two liver enzymes are seen elevated in hepatobiliary disease? A) AST and ALT B) ALP and ALT C) ALP and GGT D) AST and GGT | ALP and GGT |
| 30. Beriberi is associated with deficiency of: A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin C C) Niacin D) Thiamine | Thiamine |
| 31. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by a marked elevation of: A) Gastrin B) Cholecystokinin C) Pepsin D) Glucagon | Gastrin |
| 32. Scurvy is associated with deficiency of: A) A B) C C) Niacin D) Thiamine | C |
| 33. This trace element plays a key role in protein and nucleic acid synthesis: A) Manganese B) Selenium C) Zinc D) Copper | Zinc |
| 34. In quality control, ±2 standard deviations from the mean include what percent of the sample population? A) 50 B) 68 C) 95 D) 99.7 | 95 |
| 35. During an evaluation of adrenal function, a patient had plasma cortisol determinations in the morning after awakening and in the evening. Laboratory results indicated that the morning value was higher than the evening concentration. This is indicativ | Normal finding |
| 36. Given the following results:ALP Slight increaseALT Marked increaseAST Marked increaseGGT Slight increaseThis is most consistent with: A) Acute hepatitis B) Chronic hepatitis C) Obstructive jaundice D) Liver hemangioma | Acute hepatitis |
| 37. Major actions of angiotensin II include: A) Increased pituitary secretion of renin B) Increased vasoconstriction C) Increased parathyroid hormone secretion by the parathyroid D) Decreased adrenal secretion of aldosterone | Increased vasoconstriction |
| 38. What is the metabolite of ethanol? A) Benzoylecgonine B) 6-acetylmorphine C) Acetaldehyde D) Carboxylic acid | Acetaldehyde |
| 39. What is the gold standard methodology for Toxicology testing? A) Immunoassay B) Electrophoresis C) Liquid Chromatography D) Mass Spectrometry | Mass Spectrometry |
| 40. Calculate the coefficient of variation for a set of data where the mean = 89 mg/dL and 2 standard deviations is A) 7.7% B) 7.9% C) 15.7% D) 15.8% | 7.9% |
| 41. In the condition Kernicterus, the abnormal accumulation of bilirubin occurs in what tissue? A) Brain B) Liver C) Kidney D) Blood | Brain |
| 42. Which of the following is the major mineralocorticoid? A) Aldosterone B) Cortisol C) Corticosterone D) Testosterone | Aldosterone |
| 43. Select the main estrogen produced by the ovaries and used to evaluate ovarian function. A) Estriol B) Estradiol C) Epiestriol D) Hydroxyestrone | Estradiol |
| 44. Regan isoenzyme has the same properties as alkaline phosphatase that originates in the: A) Skeleton B) Kidney C) Intestine D) Placenta | Placenta |
| 45. What is the percentage of serum calcium that is ionized? A) 30% B) 45% C) 60% D) 80% | 45% |
| 46. Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the: A) Tubular secretion of creatinine B) Glomerular secretion of creatinine C) Renal glomerular and tubular mass D) Glomerular filtration rate | Glomerular filtration rate |
| 47. Which of the following readies the uterus for implantation of an embryo? A) FSH B) LH C) hCG D) Progesterone | Progesterone |
| 48. Which of the formulas is correct for creatinine clearance? A) U/P x V x 1.73/A B) P/V x U x A/1.73 C) P/V x U x 1.73/A D) U/V x P x 1.73/A | U/P x V x 1.73/A |
| 49. Which hormone controls sodium reabsorption? A) Aldosterone B) Anti-Diuretic Hormone C) Renin D) Angiotensin II | Aldosterone |
| 50. The thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) stimulation test rules out the diagnosis of mild or subclinical hyperthyroidism if TRH infusion causes: A) Rise in plasma TSH B) No rise in plasma TSH C) Rise in plasma growth hormone D) No rise in plas | Rise in plasma TSH |
| 1. What test is used along with the mean cell volume (MCV) to morphologically classify anemias? A) red blood count B) hemoglobin C) hematocrit D) red cell distribution width (RDW) | red cell distribution width (RDW) |
| 2. Transferrin receptors can be measured and are elevated when: A) erythropoietin increases B) transferrin increases C) iron stores are decreased D) chronic disease is present | iron stores are decreased |
| 3. Mature T cells with cerebriform, clefted nuclei found in the skin and peripheral blood describe: A) hairy cells B) prolymphocytes C) lymphoblasts D) Sézary cells | Sezary cells |
| 4. What condition is most associated with autosplenectomy? A) abdominal trauma B) thrombocytopenia C) sickle cell anemia D) iron deficiency | sickle cell anemia |
| 5. Which of the following has a pyknotic nucleus? A) Pronormoblast B) basophilic normoblast C) polychromatophilic normoblast D) orthochromic normoblast | orthochromic normoblast |
| 6. Depletion of serum haptoglobin indicates: A) decreased erythropoiesis B) extravascular hemolysis C) intravascular hemolysis D) increased phagocytosis of macrophages | intravascular hemolysis |
| 7. The principle energy source for mature red blood cells is: A) Krebs cycle B) hexose monophosphate pathway C) adenosine triphosphate (ATP) generated from anaerobic glycolysis D) adenosine diphosphate (ADP) generated from aerobic glycolysis | adenosine triphosphate (ATP) generated from anaerobic glycolysis |
| 8. What important function does 2,3-biphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG) perform? A) maintains iron in the hemoglobin molecule in the ferrous state B) prevents oxidative injury to the red cell C) facilitates the delivery of oxygen to tissue D) aids in the ex | facilitates the delivery of oxygen to tissue |
| 9. Which of the following is true of megakaryocytes as they mature? A) nucleus becomes polyploidy B) cytoplasmic basophilia becomes more pronounced C) size decreases D) nucleoli become more prominent | nucleus becomes polyploidy |
| 10. Lymphocytes become transformed when they are: A) being stimulated by an antigen B) undergoing mitosis C) dying D) moving to secondary lymphoid tissues | being stimulated by an antigen |
| 11. What is the basic hemoglobin defect in the thalassemias? A) One of the globin chains has an amino acid substitution B) A structurally normal globin chain is absent or produced at lower levels C) Heme is produced at a lower concentration D) Iron i | A structurally normal globin chain is absent or produced at lower levels |
| 12. Why are infants with beta-thalassemia major not ill until approximately 6 months of age? A) Infants are protected by their high concentration of fetal hemoglobin. B) Infants have less need for hemoglobin because of their small body size. C) Infant | Infants are protected by their high concentration of fetal hemoglobin |
| 13. A patient has 30% hemoglobin F. Which of the following can be eliminated? A) four missing genes for alpha chain production B) heterozygous hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin C) thalassemia intermedia D) the patient is a normal 1-month-old | four missing genes for alpha chain production |
| 14. Megaloblastic anemias are caused by a defect in the synthesis of: A) DNA B) RNA C) Erythropoietin D) Heme | DNA |
| 15. Pernicious anemia (PA) can be distinguished from folate deficiency by the: A) presence of hypersegmented neutrophils B) mean cell volume (MCV) C) bone marrow findings D) presence of autoantibodies to intrinsic factor (IF) | presence of autoantibodies to intrinsic factor (IF) |
| 16. Why is glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) important for normal red cell survival? A) Hemoglobin oxygen affinity is increased in its absence. B) It is required to regenerate reduced glutathione. C) It is required for insertion of iron into th | It is required to regenerate reduced glutathione |
| 17. What is the pathogenesis of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA)? A) Microthrombi and fibrin formed on damaged endothelial cells trap and break red cells. B) Chemicals or heat destroy red blood cells. C) The spleen sequesters red cells in an a | Microthrombi and fibrin formed on damaged endothelial cells trap and break red cells |
| 18. Renal failure is a prominent feature of: A) hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) B) thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) C) Plasmodium malariae infection D) march hemoglobinuria | hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) |
| 19. Moderate to marked target cells are found on a blood smear. Which of the following can most likely be eliminated? A) hemoglobin C disease B) hereditary Spherocytosis C) hemoglobin E disease D) liver disease | hereditary spherocytosis |
| 20. Toxic granulation, Döhle bodies, and vacuolization in neutrophils are often found together in A) May-Hegglin anomaly B) bacterial infection C) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome D) Alder-Reilly anomaly | bacterial infection |
| 21. What do all chronic myeloproliferative disorders (MPDs) share? A) Philadelphia chromosome B) increased red cell mass C) increased blood cells | |
| overlapping clinical and laboratory features D) serious thromboembolic complications | increased blood cells |
| overlapping clinical and laboratory features | |
| 22. A patient has an increased red count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit. Which of the following features points to secondary polycythemia over polycythemia vera (PV)? A) increased white count B) increased red cell mass C) bone marrow erythroid hyperplasi | decreased arterial O2 saturation |
| 23. A child has monotonous blasts in the peripheral blood that have scant blue cytoplasm. They are CALLa (CD10) positive. Which form of acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) is most likely? A) immature B cell B) immature T cell C) mature B cell D) mature T c | immature B cell |
| 24. An adult patient has a white blood count of 80 x 109/L. The differential has 92% Sudan Black B-positive blasts and 8% lymphocytes. Which of the following is most likely? A) acute myeloid leukemia, minimally differentiated B) acute myeloid leukemia | acute myeloid leukemia without maturation |
| 25. A middle-aged man has a white blood cell (WBC) count of 80 x 109/L with 90% lymphocytes and many smudge cells. Which of the following is most likely? A) chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) B) hairy cell leukemia C) T cell lymphoma D) Sézary syndro | chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) |
| 26. What are the major hematopoietic sites in the fetus and in the adult? Fetus Adult a. lymph nodes spleen b. liver bone marrow c. liver spleen d. bone marrow liver A) a B) b C) c D) d | Fetus-liver/ Adult-bone marrow |
| 27. Malignant proliferation of plasma cells with osteolytic bone lesions and the presence of monoclonal immunoglobulin in the serum describe: A) Waldenström Macroglobulinemia B) marginal zone B cell lymphoma C) follicle center lymphoma D) multiple my | multiple myeloma |
| 28. Which of the following would be an unexpected finding in chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)? A) increased eosinophils and basophils in the peripheral blood B) 20% blasts in the peripheral blood C) hypercellular bone marrow with granulopoiesis D) whit | 20% blasts in the peripheral blood |
| 29. Which of the following anomalies is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by irregularly sized inclusions in polymorphonuclear neutrophils, abnormal giant platelets, and often thrombocytopenia? A) Pelger-Huet B) Chediak-Higashi C) Alder-Rei | May-Hegglin |
| 30. Which of the following is associated with Chediak-Higashi syndrome? A) Membrane defect of lysosomes B) Dohle-like bodies and giant platelets C) Two-lobed neutrophils D) Mucopolysaccharidosis | Membrane defect of lysosomes |
| 31. A bone marrow slide shows foam cells ranging from 20 to 100 µm in size with vacuolated cytoplasm containing sphingomyelin and is faintly PAS positive. This cell type is most characteristic of: A) Gaucher's disease B) Myeloma with Russell bodies C) | Niemann-Pick disease |
| 32. The most appropriate screening test for detecting hemoglobin S is: A) Osmotic fragility B) Dithionite solubility C) Kleihauer-Betke D) Heat instability test | Dithionite solubility |
| 33. Hemoglobin H disease results from: A) Absence of 3 of 4 alpha genes B) Absence of 2 of 4 alpha genes C) Absence of 1 of 4 alpha genes D) Absence of all 4 alpha genes | Absence of 3 of 4 alpha genes |
| 34. The presence of excessive rouleaux formation on a blood smear is often accompanied by an increased: A) Reticulocyte count B) Sedimentation rate C) Hematocrit D) Erythrocyte count | Sedimentation rate |
| 35. The leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is increased in: A) Erythroleukemia B) Leukemoid reaction C) Chronic granulocytic leukemia D) Acute granulocytic leukemia | Leukemoid reaction |
| 36. The most appropriate screening test for hereditary spherocytosis is: A) Osmotic fragility B) Sucrose hemolysis C) Heat instability test D) Kleihauer-Betke | Osmotic fragility |
| 37. The most appropriate screening test for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is: A) Heat instability test B) Sucrose hemolysis C) Osmotic fragility D) Dithionite solubility | Sucrose hemolysis |
| 38. Factors commonly involved in producing anemia in patients with chronic renal disease include: A) Marrow hypoplasia B) Ineffective erythropoiesis C) Vitamin B12 deficiency D) Increased erythropoietin production | Ineffective erythropoiesis |
| 39. If polychromasia is increased in the peripheral smear, the ____________ should be elevated. A) White cell count B) Red cell count C) Reticulocyte count D) Basophil count | Reticulocyte count |
| 40. Hemolysis in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is: A) Temperature dependent B) Complement independent C) Antibody mediated D) Caused by a red cell membrane defect | Caused by a red cell membrane defect |
| 41. Which of the following represents characteristic features of iron metabolism in patients with anemia of a chronic disorder? A) Serum iron is normal, transferrin saturation is normal, TIBC is normal B) Serum iron is increased, transferrin saturation | Serum iron is decreased, transferrin saturation is decreased, TIBC is normal or decreased |
| 42. In which of the following disease states are teardrop cells and abnormal platelets most characteristically seen? A) Chronic myelocytic leukemia B) Multiple myeloma C) Uremia D) Myeloid metaplasia | Myeloid metaplasia |
| 43. Lab findings in hereditary spherocytosis do NOT include: A) Reticulocytosis B) Shortened erythrocyte survival C) Decreased osmotic fragility D) Increased MCHC | Decreased osmotic fragility |
| 44. What is the MCH if the hematocrit is 20%, the RBC is 2.4 x 106/µL, and the hemoglobin is 5 g/dL? A) 21 pg B) 23 pg C) 25 pg D) 84 pg | 21 pg |
| 45. In an uncomplicated case of severe iron deficiency anemia, which of the following sets represents the typical pattern of results? Serum Serum % Marrow % Marrow Serum Iron TIBC Saturation Sideroblasts Iron Stores Ferritin a. Decreased increased d | Decreased increased decreased decreased decreased decreased |
| 46. The presence of schistocytes in the peripheral blood indicates which of the following processes? A) iron deficiency anemia B) intravascular hemolysis C) megaloblastic anemia D) extravascular hemolysis | intravascular hemolysis |
| 47. Why does Plasmodium falciparum infection result in the most serious hemolysis of the various forms of malaria? A) Only reticulocytes are invaded B) Reticulocytes and red blood cells <10 days old are invaded C) Only mature red blood cells are invad | Red blood cells of all ages are invaded |
| 48. In which malaria species do you see a characteristic band in the trophozoite stage? A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium ovale C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium malariae | Plasmodium malariae |
| 49. What is the last erythrocyte precursor capable of cell division? A) Orthochromic Normoblast B) Reticulocyte C) Basophilic Normoblast D) Polychromatic Normoblast | Polychromatic Normoblast |
| 50. Given the following data:WBC 8.5 x 103/µL Differential Segs 56% Bands 2% Lymphs 30% Monos 6% Eos 6%What is the absolute lymphocyte count? A) 170 B) 510 C) 2550 D) 4760 | 2550 |
| 1. Which of the following is part of primary hemostasis? A) Fibrinolysis B) blood vessels C) Coagulation factors D) Inhibitors | blood vessels |
| 2. Which of the following aids in preventing excess clotting? A) Thrombin B) factor VII C) calcium D) protein C | protein C |
| 3. What substance digests the fibrin clot after healing? A) Plasmin B) activated protein C C) tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) D) alpha-2-antiplasmin | Plasmin |
| 4. Which of the following is decreased in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? A) Fibrinogen B) PT C) PTT D) FDP | Fibrinogen |
| 5. Patients who have a deficiency of protein C or protein S have which type of disorder? A) Bleeding B) Thrombotic C) Bruising D) Hypercalcemia | Thrombotic |
| 6. What platelet membrane receptor binds fibrinogen and supports platelet aggregation? A) GP Ib/IX/V B) GP IIb/IIIa C) GP Ia/IIa D) P2Y1 | GP IIb/IIIa |
| 7. Which of the following is associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia? A) Normal bleeding time B) Normal ADP aggregation C) Abnormal ristocetin aggregation D) Absence of clot retraction | Absence of clot retraction |
| 8. Which of the following is characteristic of Bernard-Soulier Syndrome? A) Giant platelets B) Normal bleeding time C) Abnormal aggregation with ADP D) Increased platelet count | Giant platelets |
| 9. Which of the following platelet responses is most likely associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia? A) Decreased platelet aggregation to ristocetin B) Defective ADP release, normal response to ADP C) Decreased amount of ADP in platelets D) Marked | Markedly decreased aggregation to epinephrine, ADP, and collagen |
| 10. Which of the following platelet responses is most likely associated with Bernard Soulier Syndrome? A) Decreased platelet aggregation to ristocetin B) Defective ADP release, normal response to ADP C) Decreased amount of ADP in platelets D) Markedl | Decreased platelet aggregation to ristocetin |
| 11. Coagulation factors affected by Coumadin (warfarin) drugs are: A) VIII, IX, and X B) I, II, V, and VII C) II, VII, IX, and X D) II, V, and VII | II, VII, IX and X |
| 12. A bleeding time is used to evaluate the activity of: A) Platelets B) Prothrombin C) Labile factor D) Factor XIII | Platelets |
| 13. What would be the expected screening test results for a patient with a fibrin stabilizing factor deficiency? A) PT prolonged B) APTT prolonged C) PT and APTT prolonged D) PT and APTT normal | PT and APTT normal |
| 14. The thrombin time will be prolonged in the presence of all the following except A) Elevated fibrinogen degradation products B) Heparin C) Factor I deficiency D) Factor II deficiency | Factor II deficiency |
| 15. The prothrombin time test requires that the patient's plasma be combined with: A) Platelet lipids B) Thromboplastin C) Calcium and activator D) Calcium and thromboplastin | Calcium and thromboplastin |
| 16. All the following test results are characteristic of DIC except A) Decreased fibrinogen concentration B) Negative test for degradation products C) Decreased platelet count D) Prolonged PT | Negative test for degradation products |
| 17. Which factors are consumed in clotting and therefore absent in serum? A) I, V, VIII, XIII B) I, II, V, VIII, XIII C) II, VII, IX, X D) VIII, IX, XI, XII | I, II, V, VIII, XIII |
| 18. What is the diagnosis of a child who has onset of bleeding signs and symptoms, while having a normal CBC, a normal physical examination, and no family history of hemorrhagic abnormalities or thrombocytopenia? A) TTP B) ITP C) HUS D) May-Hegglin A | ITP |
| 19. Which of the following is characteristic of platelet disorders? A) Deep muscle hemorrhages B) Retroperitoneal hemorrhages C) Mucous membrane hemorrhages D) Severely prolonged clotting times | Mucous membrane hemorrhages |
| 20. Identify the platelet receptor and plasma protein required for normal platelet adhesion. A) Platelet receptor GP IV Plasma protein factor VIII B) Platelet receptor PF-4 Plasma protein factor V C) Platelet receptor GP IIb/IIIa Plasma protein fibri | Platelet receptor GP Ib/IX/V Plasma protein von Willebrand factor |
| 21. The following data were obtained on a patient:PT 20 secTT 13 sec (Ref range 9-13 sec)APTT 55 secAPTT plus aged serum CorrectedAPTT plus adsorbed plasma Not correctedWhich of the following coagulation factors is deficient? A) Factor V B) Factor VIII | Factor X |
| 22. The following lab results were obtained for a patient with an inherited autosomal dominant trait: Bleeding time Prolonged Platelet adhesiveness Abnormal PT Normal APTT Normal These findings are most consistent with: A) Hemophilia A B) Factor X defi | Von Willebrand's disease |
| 23. A patient develops unexpected bleeding and the following test results were obtained:Prolonged PT and APTT, Decreased fibrinogen, Increased fibrin split products, Decreased platelets What is the most probable cause of these results? A) Familial afibr | DIC |
| 24. The following results are obtained on a 3-year-old boy with sudden severe hemorrhagic problems:Bleeding time NormalPT NormalAPTT ProlongedAPTT 1:1 Mixing Study CorrectedPlatelet aggregation Normal with ristocetin, ADP, collagen, and epinephrineThese | Hemophilia A |
| 25. Results on a patient presenting with sudden severe hemorrhagic problems are as follows:Bleeding time NormalPT NormalAPTT ProlongedAPTT 1:1 Mixing Study No correctionThese clinical manifestations and lab results are consistent with A) Coumadin therap | Presence of a circulating inhibitor |
| 1. What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes? A) Heterophile antibody-based B) Monoclonal-based C) Alloantibody-based D) Polyclonal-based | Polyclonal-based |
| 2. The frequency of the D-negative phenotype in the population is: A) 85% B) 50% C) 35% D) 15% | 15% |
| 3. The phase of the agglutination reaction is important in the interpretation of the antibody screen or antibody identification panel because it: A) determines whether an autoantibody is present. B) determines whether there is a delayed transfusion rea | indicates the class of the antibody |
| 4. An antibody screen on a patient with a prior history of transfusion was negative. The crossmatch, performed at immediate spin and antihuman globulin, was incompatible with 1 unit selected. The next step in the investigation would be to: A) perform a | perform a direct antiglobulin test on the incompatible unit |
| 5. How long following transfusion must the recipient sample be stored? A) 14 days B) 7 days C) 5 days D) 10 days | 7 days |
| 6. To be considered a candidate for Rh immune globulin, the mother is __________ and the infant is __________. A) D-positive, D-positive B) D-negative, D-negative C) D-positive, D-negative D) D-negative, D-positive | D-negative, D-positive |
| 7. Why is incubation omitted in the direct antihuman globulin test? A) Incubation will cause hemolysis. B) The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo. C) IgM antibodies are detected in the direct antiglobulin test. D) The direct antiglob | The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo. |
| 8. Antibodies detected in the immediate spin crossmatch are usually of which of the following immunoglobulin classes? A) IgD B) IgA C) IgG D) IgM | IgM |
| 9. A person who inherits the Le, Se, and H genes will have red cells that phenotype: A) Le(a+b-) B) Le(a-b-) C) Le(a-b+) D) Le(a+b+) | Le(a-b+) |
| 10. A patient demonstrated the following symptoms: hypotension, tachycardia, cold or clammy skin, and cyanosis. What is the most likely cause? A) Anaphylactic shock B) Congestive heart failure C) Hypovolemic shock D) Graft-versus-host disease | Hypovolemic shock |
| 11. Proteolytic enzymes should not be used to screen for antibodies because: A) some antigens are destroyed by enzymes, which would cause the antibodies to be missed. B) red cells must be treated with enzymes first, which makes this technique impractic | some antigens are destroyed by enzymes, which would cause the antibodies to be missed |
| 12. A facility does not validate a refrigerator before use. What is a potential outcome? A) The facility is in compliance if the equipment functions properly. B) The facility is in compliance if the blood products stored in it are not transfused. C) T | The facility is in violation of current good manufacturing practices and could be cited by the Food and Drug Administration |
| 13. In which type of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is the first-born affected? A) M B) D C) ABO D) E | ABO |
| 14. Which of the following blood group systems has been implicated in transfusion reactions on the first exposure to incompatible red blood cells? A) Rh B) Kidd C) ABO D) Kell | ABO |
| 15. Antibody screening of the recipient is performed as a component of compatibility testing to detect: A) red cell alloantibodies. B) irregular antigens on the recipient's red cells. C) human leukocyte antigen antibodies. D) incompatibilities with t | red cell alloantibodies |
| 16. Antibodies to which of the following blood group system show dosage (i.e., are stronger with homozygous expression of the antigen)? A) Lutheran B) P C) Kell D) Duffy | Duffy |
| 17. What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used? A) No effect B) Hemolysis C) False positives D) False negatives | False negatives |
| 18. Most "naturally occurring" ABO system antibodies fall into which class? A) IgG B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE | IgM |
| 19. A 300-µg dose of Rh immune globulin contains sufficient anti-D to protect against how much whole blood? A) 100 mL B) 25 mL C) 30 mL D) 50 mL | 30 mL |
| 20. A 44-year-old woman has a hemoglobin level of 6.1 g/dL. White blood cell and platelet counts are within normal levels. The patient is group O D-negative with a negative antibody screen. Crossmatches are compatible. However, 15 minutes after the first | Urticarial |
| 21. To prevent graft-versus-host disease, red blood cells prepared for intrauterine transfusions should be: A) saline washed. B) ABO and D-compatible with the mother. C) frozen and deglycerolized. D) irradiated. | irradiated |
| 22. Which ABO phenotype selection contains the most H antigen and the least H antigen, respectively, on the red cell's surface? A) A2, A1B B) A1B, O C) O, A1B D) B, A | O, A1B |
| 23. Nucleic acid tests are used to screen for: A) hepatitis C virus, West Nile virus, and HIV. B) human T-cell lymphotropic virus-I/human T-cell lymphotropic virus-II, HIV-1/HIV-2, and hepatitis C virus. C) Chagas disease, malaria, and syphilis. D) h | hepatitis C virus, West Nile virus, and HIV |
| 24. Infants do not require crossmatching if they are less than: A) 5 months old B) 4 months old C) 6 months old D) Crossmatching is always required | 4 months old |
| 25. A technologist was being trained in a different area of the blood bank and noticed that the person training her had not recorded the results of a test. To be helpful, she carefully recorded the results she saw at a later time, using the technologist' | |
| because she used the other technologist's initials. B) No | |
| she should have brought the error to the technologist's attention. C) Yes | |
| as long as she records the result in pencil. D) Yes | |
| all results must be recorded regardless of who did the test. | No |
| she should have brought the error to the technologist's attention | |
| 26. Given the following ABO phenotyping data: REVERSE Anti-A: 2+mf A1 cells: 0 Anti-B: 0 B cells: 3+ What could be a plausible explanation for this discrepancy? A) Rouleaux formation B) Positive direct antiglobulin test C) T-activation of red | Group O blood products given to group A |
| 27. The indirect antihuman globulin test is incubated at what temperature? A) 37° C B) 56° C C) 22° C D) 4° C | 37° C |
| 28. A recipient with group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of frozen plasma. Which of the following types are appropriate to select for transfusion? A) AB and A B) AB and B C) B and A D) O and A | AB and A |
| 29. Compatibility procedures will address all of the following except to: A) maximize in vivo survival rate of red cells. B) check ABO compatibility. C) prevent life-threatening transfusion reactions. D) prevent antibody formation. | prevent antibody formation. |
| 30. Which of the following phenotypes is heterozygous? A) Jk(a+b-) B) Fy(a-b+) C) Le(a+b-) D) Fy(a+b+) | Fy(a+b+) |
| 31. The antiglobulin test was performed using gel technology. A button of cells was observed at the bottom of the microtube following centrifugation. This result indicates a: A) problem with the card B) failure to wash correctly C) negative reaction | negative reaction |
| 32. Patient M.M. was admitted to the hospital with acute bleeding. Anti-E was detected in the patient's serum. Four E-negative units of blood were crossmatched for the patient. The units were compatible at immediate spin and following the antiglobulin te | antihuman globulin washing procedure was adequate |
| 33. A transfusion reaction investigation should include all of the following except: A) posttransfusion patient temperature. B) collection of a blood sample. C) human leukocyte antigen type. D) reidentification of the patient and transfused component | human leukocyte antigen type |
| 34. The temperature of a shipment of red blood cell units that were received from the local blood center was recorded as 8° C. The correct course of action is to: A) place the units in inventory because the temperature is acceptable. B) have the units | place the units in inventory because the temperature is acceptable |
| 35. How often can a person donate a unit of whole blood for a directed donation? A) 2 weeks B) 8 weeks C) 48 hours D) 24 hours | 8 weeks |
| 36. Which of the following transfusion reactions has the highest incidence? A) Transfusion-related acute lung injury B) Graft-versus-host disease C) Hemolytic reactions due to ABO incompatibility D) Urticarial | Urticarial |
| 37. Cold autoantibodies are typically of which specificity? A) Leb B) M C) I D) N | I |
| 38. The weak D test detects: A) missing D mosaic B) Du antigen C) weak D antigen D) weak D antibody | weak D antigen |
| 39. Select the test that uses IgG-sensitized red cells (check cells). A) Rh-antigen typing B) B-antigen detection C) Antiglobulin test D) D-antigen typing | Antiglobulin test |
| 40. In an antibody identification panel, only one red cell was negative at the antihuman globulin phase. On ruling out and matching the pattern, an anti-k was identified. What further testing is necessary to confirm the antibody? A) Perform an adsorptio | Two more k-negative cells should be tested |
| 41. A thorough donor history is the only way to prevent: A) Syphilis B) Cytomegalovirus C) human T-cell Lymphotropic virus-I D) malaria | malaria |
| 42. How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions? A) Unable to determine without further testing B) Depends on whether the sample was from a patient or a blood donor C) D-positive D | Unable to determine without further testing |
| 43. Unacceptable quality control results for the antiglobulin test performed in test tubes may be noticed if: A) the reagents used were improperly stored. B) the technologist performing the test was never trained. C) preventive maintenance has not bee | all are correct |
| 44. Which of the following products is tested for bacterial contamination following storage? A) Red blood cells, frozen B) Platelets C) Cryoprecipitated AHF D) Fresh frozen plasma | Platelets |
| 45. Leukocyte-poor red blood cells are indicated for patients with: A) febrile transfusion reactions. B) iron deficiency anemia. C) hemophilia A. D) cancer undergoing chemotherapy treatments. | febrile transfusion reactions |
| 46. Rh system antibodies characteristically give: A) reactions that are enhanced with enzymes. B) weak reactions with panel cells. C) mixed-field reactions on panels. D) strong reactions with panel cells when read at immediate spin phase. | reactions that are enhanced with enzymes |
| 47. When group O blood is not available for transfusion, what is the next alternative? A) Washed group B red blood cells B) Group AB red blood cells C) None D) Group A red blood cells | None |
| 48. Which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f? A) rr B) R2R2 C) R1R2 D) R1R1 | rr |
| 49. Which of the following is used in the treatment of hemophilia A? A) Factor VIII concentrate B) Fresh frozen plasma C) Platelets D) Factor XIII concentrate | Factor VIII concentrate |
| 50. A group O patient was crossmatched with group B red blood cells. What phase of the crossmatch will first detect this incompatibility? A) Indirect antiglobulin B) Immediate spin C) None of them | |
| unit is compatible D) 37˚ C low-ionic strength solution | Immediate spin |
| 1. Cell-mediated immune responses such as attacking and killing microorganisms or host cells damaged or infected are carried out by A) lymphocytes of the T (thymus-derived) class B) lymphocytes of the B (bone marrow-derived) class C) neutrophils D) b | lymphocytes of the T (thymus-derived) class |
| 2. Which immune system cells destroy infected or malignant host cells? A) B lymphocytes B) T lymphocytes C) Natural killer cells D) Neutrophils | Natural killer cells |
| 3. The presence of this antibody usually indicates recent or active infection. A) IgG B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE | IgM |
| 4. The antibody that primarily protects body surfaces lined with mucous membranes such as the eyes and intestines is A) IgG B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE | IgA |
| 5. All of the following are true statements about IgM except: A) it is produced during a primary antibody response B) it has the largest molecular weight of all of the immunoglobulin classes C) it fixes complement D) it is capable of crossing the mat | it is capable of crossing the maternal-fetal placental barrier |
| 6. The name of the process that promotes attraction of phagocytic cells toward a foreign particle is: A) Diapedesis B) Chemotaxis C) Opsonization D) Cytolysis | Chemotaxis |
| 7. When an antibody-coated antigen is phagocytized, what component of the antibody molecule must fit into a receptor on the phagocytic cell? A) Variable H B) Variable L C) Fab region D) Fc region | Fc region |
| 8. Which characteristic is not associated with B lymphocytes? A) Demonstrate surface immunoglobulin (sIg) B) Differentiate into plasma cells with antigenic stimulation C) Participate in an anamnestic response as memory cells D) Can directly lyse a fo | Can directly lyse a foreign antigen |
| 9. The force of attraction between an antibody and a single antigenic determinant is: A) Avidity B) Affinity C) ionic bonding D) Van der Waals forces | Affinity |
| 10. In indirect hemagglutination testing, the: A) antigens of the red blood cells are bound by antibodies B) antigen passively attached to red blood cells are bound by antibodies C) antibody reacts with antibodies D) soluble antigens react with antib | antigen passively attached to red blood cells are bound by antibodies |
| 11. The radioallergosorbent test (RAST): A) uses antigen specific IgE antibody B) uses non-covalently-bound antibody on a cellulose disc C) uses non-covalently-bound antibody on a cellulose RIA plate D) has an excess of antibody present in the test s | uses antigen specific IgE antibody |
| 12. The TORCH IgM and IgG assay includes detection of all of the following except: A) Cytomegalovirus B) Epstein-Barr virus C) Rubella D) infectious mononucleosis | infectious mononucleosis |
| 13. The substance detected by the RPR assay is: A) T. pallidum B) Cardiolipin C) Reagin D) B. burgdorferi | Reagin |
| 14. Which hepatitis B serologic marker is the classic first indication of a hepatitis B infection? A) Anti-Hbc B) Anti-Hbe C) HbsAg D) HbcAg | HbsAg |
| 15. Anaphylaxis is characterized by all of the following statements except: A) it can cause death due to asphyxiation B) massive release of histamine from mast cells and basophils C) prior sensitization to an allergen D) associated with a significant | associated with a significant increase in eosinophils in the circulating blood |
| 16. Histamine can: A) cause obstructed airflow to the bronchioles B) exert an anticoagulant effect C) cause decreased capillary permeability D) enhance opsonization in phagocytosis | cause obstructed airflow to the bronchioles |
| 17. A speckled pattern relates to: A) dsDNA, histones, DNA-histone complexes B) Sm, RNP, SS-A, SS-B, hnRNP, others C) centromere proteins A, B, and C D) nuclear lamins A, B, and C | |
| nuclear pore proteins | Sm, RNP, SS-A, SS-B, hnRNP, others |
| 18. Which of the following is cleaved as a result of activation of the classical complement pathway? A) Properdin factor B B) C1q C) C4 D) C3b | C4 |
| 19. The antigen marker most closely associated with transmissibility of HBV infections is: A) HBs B) HBe C) HBc D) HBV | HBe |
| 20. Antibody class and antibody subclass are determined by: A) Constant region of heavy chain B) Constant region of light chain C) Disulphide bonds D) Fab region | Constant region of heavy chain |
| 21. A transfusion reaction to erythrocyte antigens will activate which of the following immunopathologic mechanisms? A) Immediate hypersensitivity B) Arthus reaction C) Delayed hypersensitivity D) Immune cytolysis | Immune cytolysis |
| 22. Systemic lupus erythematosus patients often have which of the following test results? A) High titers of DNA antibody B) Decreased serum immunoglobulin levels C) High titers of anti-smooth muscle antibodies D) High titers of antimitochondrial anti | High titers of DNA antibody |
| 23. Which IgG subclass is most efficient at crossing the placenta? A) IgG1 B) IgG2 C) IgG3 D) IgG4 | IgG1 |
| 24. Which of the following is the "C3 activation unit" in the classical complement pathway? A) C1q B) C3 C) C4b, C2a D) C5, C6, C7, C8, C9 | C4b, C2a |
| 25. This product of Group A Strep is responsible for the beta hemolysis on the blood agar plate: A) Streptolysin O B) Streptolysin S C) Hyaluronidase D) Erythrogenic toxin | Streptolysin S |
| 1. Nosocomial infections are those that A) develop and progress slowly B) develop quickly C) are contracted in the hospital environment D) develop quickly but last longer | are contracted in the hospital enviroment |
| 2. Latent infections are those that A) develop and progress slowly B) develop quickly and end sooner C) exist as a silent phase in which the agent is causing no notable effect D) develop quickly but last longer | exist as a silent phase in which the agent is causing no notable effect |
| 3. Organisms that have nutritional needs that are relatively complex and require extra media components to be used for growth are called A) Fastidious B) Capnophiles C) Neutrophils D) Halophiles | Fastidious |
| 4. Which category of media would MacConkey agar best fit? A) Selective B) Differential C) Selective and differential D) Supportive | Selective and differential |
| 5. What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces incomplete hemolysis and a greening discoloration of the medium? A) Beta hemolysis B) Gamma hemolysis C) Alpha hemolysis D) Kappa hemolysis | Alpha hemolysis |
| 6. Anaerobes grow best in A) ambient air, which contains 21% oxygen (O2) and a small amount (0.03%) of carbon dioxide B) increased concentrations of CO2 (5% to 10%) and approximately 15% O2 C) 5% to 10% hydrogen (H2), 5% to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% nitroge | 5% to 10% hydrogen (H2), 5% to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% nitrogen (N2), and 0% O2 |
| 7. Choose the group of bacteria that is described as catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci that grow facultatively anaerobic and that form grapelike clusters. A) Neisseria B) Staphylococcus C) Micrococcus D) Streptococcus | Staphylococcus |
| 8. The bacterial species that can be described as able to hydrolyze hippurate, beta hemolytic, a major cause of neonatal meningitis and sepsis, and producer of the CAMP factor is A) Enterococcus faecalis B) Streptococcus pneumoniae C) Streptococcus py | Streptococcus agalactiae |
| 9. Enterococci can be described as A) able to grow in 6.5% NaCl B) usually alpha hemolytic C) a major cause of pharyngitis D) often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule E) All of the above are true | able to grow in 6.5% NaCl |
| 10. The drug of choice for most streptococcal infections is A) Vancomycin B) Streptomycin C) Penicillin D) Septra | Penicillin |
| 11. Suspect spore-forming gram-positive bacilli that are hemolytic, motile, and penicillin-resistant and that produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified as A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae B) Bacillus anthracis C) Bacillus cer | Bacillus cereus |
| 12. The isolation of a small gram-positive, catalase-positive rod with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis isolated from blood or CSF should be used as strong presumptive evidence for A) Listeriosis B) Diphtheria C) Pertussis D) Tetanus | Listeriosis |
| 13. The wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis will reveal A) large, squamous epithelial cells with numerous attached pleomorphic gram-variable or gram-negative coccobaci | large, squamous epithelial cells with numerous attached pleomorphic gram-variable or gram-negative coccobacilli and rods |
| 14. Not only is this group of gram-negative bacteria considered normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract of humans and animals, but also it contains agents of important diseases such as gastroenteritis and enteric fevers, urinary tract infections, and | Enterobacteriaceae |
| 15. The gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, citrate-positive, methyl red-positive, urease-negative, H2S-positive is A) Klebsiella pneumoniae B) Proteus vulgaris C) Salmonella enteritidis | Salmonella enteritidis |
| 16. The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, and H2S- positive is A) Proteus aerogenes B) Proteus vulgaris C) Proteus mirabilis D) Escherichia coli | Proteus mirabilis |
| 17. Pertussis (whooping cough), an epidemic disease, is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by A) Brucella species B) Bordetella species C) Pasteurella species D) Francisella species | Bordetella species |
| 18. Of the following media, which provides the factors necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.? A) 5% sheep blood agar B) Brain heart infusion agar C) Chocolate agar D) Nutrient agar | Chocolate agar |
| 19. Campylobacter spp. can sometimes be detected by direct Gram stain examination of fecal sample, which would reveal many A) large, faintly staining gram-negative bacilli B) small, curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli C) small gram-negative | small, curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli |
| 20. The selective medium thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar is especially formulated for isolating what pathogen from stool cultures? A) Vibrio B) Salmonella C) Shigella D) Plesiomonas | Vibrio |
| 21. Organisms belonging to the genus Neisseria are A) gram-positive diplococci B) gram-negative diplococci C) gram-negative coccobacilli D) gram-negative bacilli | gram-negative diplococci |
| 22. Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and is transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites? A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis B) Eikenella corrodens C) Pasteurella multocida D) Weeksella virosa | Pasteurella multocida |
| 23. The tuberculin skin test, or PPD test, is based on A) delayed hypersensitivity cell-mediated immunity to certain antigenic components of the organism B) injection of M. tuberculosis under the skin and subsequent mild cutaneous infection C) antigen | delayed hypersensitivity cell-mediated immunity to certain antigenic components of the organism |
| 24. Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form? A) Chlamydia B) Mycoplasma C) Rickettsia D) Coxiella | Mycoplasma |
| 25. The most common larvae found in stool specimens is A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Strongyloides stercoralis C) Paragonimus westermanni D) Naegleria fowleri | Strongyloides stercoralis |
| 26. A flagellate trophozoite that can be described as 9 to 12 μm, with one to two nuclei with no nuclear peripheral chromatin, a karyosome composed of four to eight large granules, and finely granular cytoplasm would most likely be A) Giardia lamblia B | Dientamoeba fragilis |
| 27. Varicella-zoster virus, Epstein-Barr virus, and cytomegalovirus are included in this widely disseminated group of viruses. A) Coronaviruses B) Herpes viruses C) Caliciviruses D) Filoviruses | Herpes viruses |
| 28. Which of the following bacteria is positive for oxidase? A) Proteus mirabilis B) Klebsiella pneumonia C) Acinetobacter D) Neisseria | Neisseria |
| 29. All of the following are capable of causing tuberculosis except: A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis B) Mycobacterium avium C) Mycobacterium bovis D) Mycobacterium africanum | Mycobacterium avium |
| 30. One specific agar for Mycobacterium spp. is: A) Regan-Lowe B) Cystine tellurite C) Lowenstein-Jennings D) BCYE | Lowenstein-Jennings |
| 31. Which of the following is known to cause Q fever? A) Bartonella henselae B) Bartonella quintana C) Coxiella D) Rickettsia rickettsii | Coxiella |
| 32. Chlamydial infections have been implicated in: A) Urethritis and conjunctivitis B) Gastroenteritis and urethritis C) Neonatal pneumonia and gastroenteritis D) Neonatal meningitis and conjunctivitis. | Urethritis and conjunctivitis |
| 33. The scolex of Taenia saginata has: A) 4 suckers B) No suckers and 14 hooklets C) 24 hooklets D) 26 to 28 sucking disks | 4 suckers |
| 34. In a suspected case of Hansen's disease, a presumptive diagnosis is established by: A) Isolation of organisms on Lowenstein-Jensen medium B) Detection of weakly acid-fast rods in infected tissue C) Isolation of organisms on Loeffler's medium D) D | Detection of weakly acid-fast rods in infected tissue |
| 35. A patient is suspected of having amebic dysentery. Upon microscopic examination of a fresh fecal specimen for ova and parasite, the following data were obtained:Trophozoite of 25 µmProgressive crawlEvenly distributed peripheral chromatinFinely granul | Entamoeba histolytica |
| 36. Three sets of blood cultures were obtained. The aerobic bottle of one set had growth of Staphylococcus epidermidis on the 7-day subculture. This indicates that: A) There was a low-grade bacteremia B) The organism is most likely a contaminant C) Th | The organism is most likely a contaminant |
| 37. A gastroenterologist submits a gastric biopsy from a patient with a peptic ulcer. To obtain presumptive evidence of Helicobacter pylori, a portion of the specimen should be added to which media? A) Urea broth B) Tryptophane C) Hippurate hydrolysis | Urea broth |
| 38. An HIV-positive patient began to show signs of meningitis. Spinal fluid was collected and cultured for bacteria and fungus. A budding, encapsulated yeast was recovered. Which organism is consistent with this information? A) Cryptococcus neoformans | Cryptococcus neoformans |
| 39. An anaerobic, spore-forming, gram positive bacillus isolated from a deep wound of the leg is most probably: A) Francisella tularensis B) Clostridium perfringens C) Bacillus subtilis D) Bacteroides | Clostridium perfringens |
| 40. The formation of germ tubes presumptively identifies: A) Candida tropicalis B) Candida parapsilosis C) Candida glabrata D) Candida albicans | Candida albicans |
| 41. Examine the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) tray shown below and determine the MIC for gentamicin.64 Clear 32 Clear 16 Clear 8 Clear 4 Clear 2 Clear Control Cloudy A) ≥64 g/mL B) 32 g/mL C) 16 g/mL D) ≤2 g/mL | ≤2 g/mL |
| 42. Rose Gardener's disease is caused by A) Histoplasma capsulatum B) Sporothrix schenckii C) Blastomyces dermatitidis D) Coccidioides immitis | Sporothrix schenckii |
| 43. Respiratory Syncytial virus (RSV) is best isolated using a: A) Nasopharyngeal aspirate B) Cough plate C) Expectorated sputum D) Throat swab | Nasopharyngeal aspirate |
| 44. A gram stain from a swab of a hand wound reveals:Moderate gram positive cocci in chainsModerate large gram negative bacilliSelect the appropriate media that will selectively isolate each organism. A) KV-laked agar, Thayer-Martin B) Sheep blood, Mac | PEA, MacConkey |
| 45. Which of the following has rhizoids between the sporangiophores? A) Mucor B) Absidia C) Rhizopus D) Trichophyton | Absidia |
| 46. Erysipelothrix infections in humans characteristically produce A) Raised lesions on skin B) Central nervous system disease C) Formation of abscesses in visceral organs D) Disease in the lower respiratory tract | Raised lesions on skin |
| 47. Which of the following antimicrobial agents acts by inhibiting protein synthesis? A) Rifampin B) Methicillin C) Gentamicin D) Vancomycin | Gentamicin |
| 48. Which of the following antimicrobial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis? A) Vancomycin B) Clindamycin C) Naladixic acid D) Gentamicin | Vancomycin |
| 49. A very small, single-stranded DNA virus that causes a febrile illness with a rash and is called the fifth childhood disease after rubeola, rubella, varicella, and roseola is: A) Rotavirus B) Adenovirus C) Coxsackie A virus D) Parvovirus | Parvovirus |
| 50. Mycobacteria spp. can be detected by all of the following methods except: A) Ziehl-Neelson B) Auramine-rhodamine C) Acridine orange D) Kinyoun | Acridine orange |
| 1. Which is the proper vein selection for venipuncture? A) Basilic, cephalic, median cubital B) Cephalic, median cubital, basilic C) Median cubital, basilica, cephalic D) Median cubital, cephalic, basilic | Median cubital, cephalic, basilic |
| 2. The difference between serum and plasma is: A) Plasma contains fibrinogen B) Plasma is clear, serum is cloudy C) Serum is collected with an anticoagulant D) Serum is darker yellow in color than plasma | Plasma contains fibrinogen |
| 3. Which of the following tubes are in the proper order of draw for the evacuated tube method? A) Lavender, light blue, red B) Light blue, red, green C) Red, green, light blue D) SST, light blue, green | Light blue, red, green |
| 4. What special handling does a bilirubin specimen require? A) Keep at body temperature B) Protect from light C) Transport on ice D) None of the above | Protect from light |
| 5. The tourniquet must not be on longer than: A) 30 seconds B) 45 seconds C) 1 minute D) 2 minutes | 1 minute |
| 6. You are performing a glucose tolerance test. You collect the fasting specimen at 0610. You give the patient the glucose beverage at 0613 and he finishes is at 0618. When is the 1 hour specimen collected? A) 0710 B) 0713 C) 0718 D) 0743 | 0718 |
| 7. Which anticoagulant inhibits thrombin? A) Citrate B) EDTA C) Heparin D) Oxalate | Heparin |
| 8. Which test is most affected by tissue fluid contamination? A) Electrolytes B) Glucose C) H & H D) Protime | Protime |
| 9. Which of the following is NOT a safe site for heel puncture? A) Medial plantar surface of the heel B) Lateral plantar surface of the heel C) Posterior curvature of the heel D) None of the above | Posterior curvature of the heel |
| 10. Prolonged tourniquet application may cause a change in blood composition primarily because of: A) Hemoconcentration B) Hemoglobin C) Hemolysis D) Homeostasis | Hemoconcentration |
| 11. You must draw a protime specimen from a patient with IV's in both arms. Which of the following is the best thing to do? Draw the specimen...? A) Above an IV B) Below an IV C) From an ankle vein D) From an IV | Below an IV |
| 12. Which of the following tubes contains an anticoagulant that works by binding calcium? A) Green top B) Light blue top C) PST D) SST | Light blue top |
| 13. EDTA is a/an A) Anticoagulant B) Clot activator C) Glucose preservative D) Plasma separator | Anticoagulant |
| 14. A PST tube contains A) Citrate and gel B) Heparin and gel C) EDTA and gel D) Silica and gel | Heparin and gel |
| 15. For which of the following tubes is the blood-to-additive ratio most critical? A) Green top B) Lavender top C) Light blue top D) Red top | Light blue top |
| 16. What is the purpose of a royal blue top tube? A) Minimize trace element contamination B) Preserve glucose C) Prevent the specimen from clotting D) Protect the specimen from light | Minimize trace element contamination |
| 17. This needle is the standard for routine venipuncture is A) 20 gauge B) 21 gauge C) 22 gauge D) 23 gauge | 21 gauge |
| 18. An antiglycolytic agent A) Enhances coagulation B) Inhibits thrombin formation C) Keeps the specimen from clotting D) Prevents the breakdown of glucose | Prevents the breakdown of glucose |
| 19. How long before obtaining blood for testing should drugs known to interfere with blood tests be discontinued? A) 1 to 4 hours B) 4 to 24 hours C) 24 to 36 hours D) 48 to 72 hours | 4 to 24 hours |
| 20. When a test requires a fasting specimen, but the serum is_____, is it a clue that the patient was not fasting. A) Hemoconcentrated B) Hemolyzed C) Jaundiced D) Lipemic | Lipemic |
| 21. If collected by capillary puncture, which test specimen is collected first? A) CBC B) Electrolytes C) Glucose D) Phosphorous | CBC |
| 22. According to CLSI, a heel puncture lancet should not puncture deeper than A) 1.5 mm B) 2.0 mm C) 2.5 mm D) 3.0 mm | 2.0 mm |
| 23. Which of these tests are most affected if the patient is not fasting? A) CBC and protime B) Glucose and Triglycerides C) RA and cardiac enzymes D) Blood culture and thyroid profile | Glucose and Triglycerides |
| 24. Blood collection tubes are labeled A) As soon as the test order is received B) Before the specimen is collected C) Immediately after specimen collection D) Whenever it is most convenient | Immediately after specimen collection |
| 25. After cleaning the venipuncture site with alcohol, the phlebotomist should A) Allow the alcohol to dry completely B) Fan the site to help the alcohol dry C) Dry the site with a regular gauze pad or cotton ball D) Insert the needle quickly before | Allow the alcohol to dry completely |
| 1. Which of the following would be affected by allowing a urine specimen to remain at room temperature for three hours before analysis? A) Occult blood B) Specific gravity C) pH D) Protein | pH |
| 2. Which of the following urine results is most apt to be changed by prolonged exposure to light? A) pH B) Protein C) Ketones D) Bilirubin | Bilirubin |
| 3. The normal pH for a healthy adult's urine is: A) 4.5 B) 5.0 C) 6.0 D) 8.0 | 6.0 |
| 4. Which of the following is the average volume of urine excreted by an adult in 24 hours? A) 750 mL B) 1000 mL C) 1500 mL D) 2000 mL | 1500 mL |
| 5. A urine's specific gravity is directly proportional to its: A) Turbidity B) Dissolved solids C) Salt content D) Sugar content | Dissolved solids |
| 6. Failure to mix a specimen prior to inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the: A) Glucose reading B) Blood reading C) Nitrate reading D) pH reading | Blood reading |
| 7. The amber color of urine is primarily due to: A) Urochrome pigment B) Methemoglobin C) Bilirubin D) Homogentisic acid | Urochrome pigment |
| 8. Urine reagent strips should be stored in a(an): A) Refrigerator (4°C-7°C) B) Incubator (37°C) C) Cool dry air D) Open jar exposed to air | Cool dry air |
| 9. A urine specimen comes to the laboratory 7 hours after it is obtained. It is acceptable for culture only if the specimen has been stored: A) At room temperature B) At 4°C-7°C C) Frozen D) With a preservative additive | At 4°C-7°C |
| 10. All casts typically contain: A) Albumin B) Globulin C) Immunoglobulins G and M D) Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein | Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein |
| 11. An ammonia-like odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients who: A) Are diabetic B) Have hepatitis C) Have an infection with Proteus sp D) Have a yeast infection | Have an infection with Proteus sp |
| 12. When using the glass slide and coverslip method, which of the following might be missed if the coverslip is overflowed? A) Casts B) aRBC's C) WBC's D) Bacteria | Casts |
| 13. Which of the following are reported as number per LPF? A) RBC's B) WBC's C) Crystals D) Casts | Casts |
| 14. The largest cells in the urine sediment are: A) Squamous epithelial cells B) Urothelial epithelial cells C) Cuboidal epithelial cells D) Columnar epithelial cells | Squamous epithelial cells |
| 15. Increased transitional cells are indicative of: A) Catheterization B) Malignancy C) Pyelonephritis D) Both Catheterization and Malignancy | Both Catheterization and Malignancy |
| 16. A primary characteristic used to identify renal tubular epithelial cells is: A) Elongated structure B) Centrally located nucleus C) Spherical appearance D) Eccentrically located nucleus | Eccentrically located nucleus |
| 17. A person submitted a urine specimen following a strenuous exercise routine can normally have all of the following in the sediment except: A) Hyaline casts B) Granular casts C) RBC casts D) WBC casts | WBC casts |
| 18. WBC casts are primarily associated with: A) Pyelonephritis B) Cystitis C) Glomerulonephritis D) Viral infections | Pyelonephritis |
| 19. Which of the following crystals may be found in acidic urine? A) Calcium carbonate B) Calcium oxalate C) Calcium phosphate D) Triple phosphate | Calcium oxalate |
| 20. Which of the following is an abnormal crystal described as a hexagonal plate? A) Cystine B) Tyrosine C) Leucine D) Cholesterol | Cystine |
| 21. Tiny colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals were found in alkaline urine sediment. They most likely are: A) Calcium oxalate B) Calcium carbonate C) Calcium phosphate D) Amorphous phosphate | Calcium carbonate |
| 22. The most valuable initial aid for the identification of crystals in a urine specimen is: A) pH B) Solubility C) Staining D) Polarized microscopy | pH |
| 23. Which type of casts signals the presence of chronic renal failure? A) RBC casts B) Fine granular casts C) Waxy casts D) Fatty casts | Waxy casts |
| 24. The following urine results were obtained on a 25-year-old female:Color= amberAppearance = cloudySpecific Gravity= 1.015pH= 5.0Protein= 1+Glucose= negativeBlood= smallMicroscopic:Bacteria= manyWBC casts= fewWBC/HPF= 30-40The results are most compatib | Pyelonephritis |
| 25. A sediment with moderate hematuria and RBC casts most likely results from: A) Chronic pyelonephritis B) Nephrotic syndrome C) Acute glomerulonephritis D) Lower urinary tract obstruction | Acute glomerulonephritis |
| If a titer is performed and agglutination is present in the 1:64 dilution tube, but negative in the 1:32 dilution tube, how do you report the titer? negative 32 64 inconclusive | 64 |
| In which of the following assays is a substrate first exposed to a patient's serum, then after washing, AHG labeled with a flurochrome added. . Immunoassay Fluorescent quenching Direct Fluorescence Nephlometry | Fluorescent quenching |
| Which of the following tests can cause sore throat, fatigue, lymphadenopathy, and liver inflammation. Reactive lymphs are usually noted on differential. Cytomegalovirus Epstein Barr Virus Toxoplasmosis Erlichiosis | Epstein Barr Virus |
| After taking a medication, a patient develops respiratory distress, vomiting, and hives. What is this reaction mediated by?* IgG IgM IgA IgE | IgE (anaphylactic reaction) |
| Macrophage phagocytosis of bacteria is enhanced by which of the following? opsonin hapten antigen secretory piece | opsonin |
| Which of the following tests is an acute phase reactant that could be elevated in post operative patients? AFP CRP albumin Immunoglobulin | CRP |
| The actual strength of a bond between antigen and antibody is: affinity avidity alkalinity acidity | avidity |
| What is the causitive agent of lymes disease? treponema pallidum borellia burdorferi erlichia babesia | borellia burdoferi (erythema migrans is the rash) |
| What is the genetic target of CARCINOGENS? Please respond and click submit. codons viruses prions oncogenes | Oncogenes |
| __________are cytokines that regulate chemotaxis Please respond and click submit. chemokines leukotrienes interferons complement | Chemokines |
| The propensity, or the attraction of a bond between antigen and antibody is termed? Please respond and click submit. affinity avidity urticaria valence | affinity |
| What are long lived T cells that have been stimulated by an Ag? Please respond and click submit. Memory cells Thelper cells Plasma cells Cytotoxic cells | Memory cells |
| Which of the following is responsible for the beta hemolysis on a blood agar plate? Please respond and click submit. erythrogenic toxin streptolysin S streptolysin O hyaluronidase | Streptolysin S |
| These cells are responsible for inhibiting the action of other T cells: Please respond and click submit. T-helper T-supressor T-cytotoxic Natural killer | T-supressor |
| In Bruton disease, measurements of serum immunoglobulins would show: Please respond and click submit. High IgE High IgG Normal IgG but low IgA absence of all Ig | absence of all Ig |
| Which of the following is sometimes used as a tumor marker? Please respond and click submit. Alpha-feto protein HbsAg Biotin CD1 | Alpha-feto protein |
| When inflammation and infection overwhelm the body, it is called: | Sepsis |
| The portion of the antigen that binds to an antibody or T cell receptor is called:* Please respond and click submit. allergin epitope avidin valence | epitope |
| Which mediator is responsible for "wheal and flare"? Please respond and click submit. Histamine Tumor necrosis factor Interleukin-1 Interferon | Histamine |
| Antibody expression in the development for autoimmune disease is: Please respond and click submit. Antigen excess Antigen deficiency Antibody excess circulating immune complexes | circulating immune complexes |
| The role of the macrophage during an ANTIBODY response is to: Please respond and click submit. Make antibody Lyse virus infected cells Process antigen and present it Activate cytotoxic T cells | process antigen and present it |
| Patients with severely reducedC3 levels tend to have: Please respond and click submit. Increased viral infections Increased bacterial infections low Ig levels hemolytic anemia | increased bacterial infections |
| The binding of complement components by antigen-antibody complexes is known as: Please respond and click submit. complement fixation agglutination precipitation all of the above | complement fixation |
| Bone marrow transplantation in Immunocompromised patients presents which type of major problem? Please respond and click submit. Leukemia delayed hypersensitivity Graft vs host disease death | Graft vs host disease |
| Humoral mediated immunity is associated with* Please respond and click submit. T lymphs Macrophages B lymphs Neutrophils | B lymphs |
| The fundamental principle of immunology is recognition of: Please respond and click submit. Body cells Antibodies self antigens | self |
| Serology is the study of: Please respond and click submit. Antigens Antibodies Infections chemicals | Antibodies |
| Lattice formation is formed by cross links between: Please respond and click submit. Antigens and Antibodies Antibodies and complement B lymphs and antibodies WBC's and MHC antigens | Antigen and antibodies |
| Which disease would you expect with a speckled ANA pattern throughout the nucleus and a positive test for Anti-Smith? Please respond and click submit. SLE RA Sjogrens Scleroderma | SLE |
| Which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation?* Please respond and click submit. IgA IgG IgD IgM | IgM |
| What is the term for the negative charge on cells that keep the red cells from agglutinating in the blood stream? Please respond and click submit. chemotaxis zeta potential vanderwalls forces ionic bonds | zeta potential |
| Where would you find undifferentiated lyphocytes? Please respond and click submit. Bone Marrow Thymus Spleen Lymph Nodes | Bone marrow |
| Prozone phenomenon occurs when: Please respond and click submit. Antigen and Antibody are equal Antigen is in excess Antibody is in excess Antigen or Antibody is missing | antibody is in excess |
| A substance is most antigenic when its biochemical composition is: Please respond and click submit. Carbohydrate Lipid Lipoprotein Protein | Protein |
| Cytokines are capable of: Please respond and click submit. Chemotaxis Cell migration Fever All of the above | all of the above |
| Which is the last complement component that ends in red blood cell lysis? Please respond and click submit. 3 4 8 9 | 9 |
| Circulating complement proteins are in the form of: Please respond and click submit. Cytokines Lysozymes Proenzymes Epitopes | Proenzymes |
| T cells are capable of:* Please respond and click submit. making immunoglobulins antigen presenting phagocytosis all of the above | antigen presenting |
| What is a serum factor that is formed in response to foreign substances? Please respond and click submit. Hapten Antigen Antibody Atopy | antibody |
| The antigen binding portion of the antibody is:* Please respond and click submit. Constant region of the light chain Constant region of the heavy and light chain Variable region of the heavy and light chains Variable region of the light c | variable region of the heavy and light chains |
| Which of the following cells produce Antibodies? Please respond and click submit. Mast Cells T cells B cells/Plasma Cells Eosinophils | B cells/Plasma Cells |
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