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Trabeculae carneae are found in the ventricles and never the atria.
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A+P 2 Final
Question | Answer |
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The papillary muscles contract after the other ventricular muscles so that they can take up the slack on the chordae tendineae before the full force of ventricular contractions sends blood against the AV valve flaps. | false |
Trabeculae carneae are found in the ventricles and never the atria. | true |
The myocardium receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries. | true |
Which of the events below does NOT occur when the semilunar valves are open? | Ventricles are in diastole. |
During contraction of heart muscle cells ________. | some calcium enters the cell from the extracellular space and triggers the release of larger amounts of calcium from intracellular stores |
Select the CORRECT statement about the structure of the heart wall. | The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts. |
Small muscle masses attached to the chordae tendineae are the ________. | papillary muscles |
If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from ________. | decreased delivery of oxygen |
he ___________ valve prevents backflow into the left atrium. | bicuspid (mitral) |
Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle | has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium |
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to | pump blood with greater pressure |
Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes ________. | a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output |
The time of day most hazardous for heart attacks is ________. | morning |
The tricuspid valve is closed ________. | when the ventricle is in systole |
Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events? | closure of the heart valves |
The major contributor to plasma osmotic pressure. | Albumin |
Thrombin catalyzes the activation of these molecules present in plasma. | Fibrinogen |
Forms the structural framework of a blood clot. | Forms the structural framework of a blood clot. |
Makes up most of plasma protein. | Albumin |
A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of ________. | pernicious anemia |
Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean? | There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma |
Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin. | False |
Leukocytes move through the circulatory system by amoeboid motion. | False |
Positive chemotaxis is a feedback system that signals leukocyte migration into damaged areas. | True |
Granulocytes called neutrophils are phagocytic and are the most numerous of all white blood cell types. | False |
All lymphocytes are leukocytes, but not all leukocytes are lymphocytes. | False |
The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting. | False |
The process of fibrinolysis disposes of bacteria when healing has occurred. | False |
The RBC "graveyard" is the liver. | false |
If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, ________. | threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase |
If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________. | the heart rate would increase |
All of the following conditions impair coagulation EXCEPT ________. | vascular spasm |
Which of the following is NOT a phase of hemostasis? | fibrinolysis |
Platelets | stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break |
An embolism is a | a free floating thrombus in the bloodstream |
Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood? | hemocytoblast |
Which of the following best describes the process by which a leukocyte leaves the circulatory system and enters the tissue? | diapedesis |
All of the following can be expected with polycythemia EXCEPT ________. | A. increased blood volume CorrectB. low blood viscosity C. high blood pressure D. high hematocrit |
Visible cytoplasmic granules are NOT present in ________. | monocytes |
Place the following in correct developmental sequence: 1. reticulocyte 2. proerythroblast 3. normoblast 4. late erythroblast | 2, 4, 3, 1 proerythroblast, late erythroblast,normoblast,reticulocyte |
Which of the following statements regarding red blood cells is FALSE? | They have a tiny surface area. |
What is the average normal pH range of blood? | 7.35-7.45 |
This type of white blood cell is the largest WBC, it is crucial in defense against viruses, and is associated with chronic infections. | monocyte |
Which of the following is characteristic of ALL leukocytes? | They are nucleated. |
This type of white blood cell has a bi-lobed nucleus, contains granules of lysosomal enzymes, and functions in attacking parasitic worms. | eosinophil |
This type of white blood cell contains a U or S shaped nucleus, has granules that stain very dark, and releases histamines and other mediators of inflammation. | basophil |
Which of the following would most likely trigger erythropoiesis? | hypoxia of EPO-producing cells |
This type of white blood cell is agranular, contains an indented or spherical nucleus, and attacks infected cells and produces antibodies. | lymphocyte |
Colony stimulating factors will result in | white blood cell production |
Blood is a ________. | suspension |
The pulse pressure is ________. | systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure |
A patient with hypertension has a blood pressure of 180/115 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes EXCEPT | decreased size of the heart |
Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure? | renal regulation |
Secondary hypertension can be caused by ________. | arteriosclerosis |
Which of the following chemicals does NOT help regulate blood pressure? | nitric acid |
Mechanisms that do NOT help regulate blood pressure include ________. | he dural sinus reflex |
In the dynamics of blood flow through capillaries, hydrostatic pressure ________. | decreases from the arterial end to the venule end of the capillary |
Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension? | 170/96 in a 50-year-old man |
his blood vessel is commonly used as a coronary bypass vessel. | great saphenous vein |
The largest artery of the body is the | aorta |
The _______ artery supplies the kidney. | renal |
Most of the fluid filtered from capillaries is reabsorbed by diffusion back into the last half (venule end) of the capillary. The force for this resorption primarily comes from the presence of | colloid osmotic pressure created by albumin |
A ring or cuff of smooth muscle that regulates blood flow in the capillaries is a(n) | sphincter |
In which type of blood vessel is the velocity (rate) of blood flow fastest? | artery |
The GREATEST influence to increase blood flow is | increased vessel radius |
n which type of blood vessel is the velocity (rate) of blood flow slowest? | capillary |
Blood flow to the skin ________ | increases when environmental temperature rises |
Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as resistance vessels? | The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter. |
Where in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high levels causing vasodilation? | lungs |
In which type of blood vessel is the pressure lowest? | vein |
Cerebral blood flow is regulated by ________. | intrinsic autoregulatory mechanisms |
Which of the following does NOT influence arterial pulse rate? | the vessel selected to palpate |
Modified capillaries that are lined with phagocytes are called ________. | sinusoids |
The formation of lymph increases as a result of | increasing osmotic pressure in tissue fluid |
Which of the following correctly lists the structures according to the sequence of fluid flow? | CorrectD. blood capillaries, interstitial spaces, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic vessels, lymphatic ducts, subclavian veins |
Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity. | Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies. |
Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called | haptens |
Which of the following is a part of the SECOND line of defense against microorganisms? | phagocytes |
What is the role of interferon in defense against disease? | protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses |
Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed | opsonization |
Graft rejection may be caused by ________. | using a xenograft |
The primary immune response | has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells |
Immunocompetence | is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it |
T lymphocytes are responsible for | cell mediated immunity |
Regulatory T cells | may function in preventing autoimmune reactions |
Natural killer (NK) cells ________. | can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated |
Which of the following is associated with passive immunity? | passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus |
Peyer's patches are clusters of lymphoid tissue found primarily in the large intestine. | False |
Lymphocytes reside temporarily in lymphoid tissue, then move to other parts of the body. | True |
Lymphoid tissue is mainly reticular connective tissue. | True |
All lymphatic organs are composed of epithelial tissue. | False |
The most important role of the spleen is to provide a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response. | False |
Which antibody (immunoglobulin) class is the main class of both the primary and secondary immune response, is found in abundant quantities in plasma, and can cross the placenta to confer passive immunity to the fetus? | IgG |
Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies? | composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains |
Proteins known as CD4 and CD8 are | attachment (adhesion) proteins on the surface of T cells |
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the adaptive immune system? | A critical component is inflammation. |
Which of the following cells is the MOST critical cell in immunity? In other words, without this type of cell, the immune system is severely weakened. | helper T cell |
A vaccine produces its effects by | stimulating a primary immune response |
Clonal selection of B cells | results in the formation of plasma cells |
Cytotoxic T-cells recognize antigens combined with | MHC-1 antigens |
Which antibody (immunoglobulin) class protects mucosal barriers, and is found in body secretions such as saliva, sweat, and milk? | IgA |
In clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned? | antigen |
The only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells are | cytotoxic cells |
ome immunocompetent cells will never be called to service in our lifetime. | Correct True |
The directional movement of cells in response to chemicals is called chemotaxis. | True |
Select the CORRECT statement about lymph transport. | Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles. |
Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) | tonsil |
Lymph capillaries are absent in all but which of the following? | digestive organs |
Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones? | lymphocytes |
The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________. | lingual tonsils |
The lymphatic capillaries are | more permeable than blood capillaries |
The composition of lymph is most similar to | interstitial fluid |
Digestive tract-associated lymphatic tissue includes all of the following except ________. | islets of Langerhans |
Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system? | transporting respiratory gases and hormones |
Which of the following is NOT a method that maintains lymph flow? | smooth muscle contraction |
The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not: | directly fight antigens |
Which of the following is NOT a function of lymph nodes? | production of plasma proteins |
The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________. | vasodilation |
Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by | natural killer cells |
Innate (nonspecific)immune system defenses include | phagocytosis |
hich statement about carbon dioxide is FALSE? | More carbon dioxide dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the red blood cells. |
Tidal volume is air ________. | exchanged during normal breathing |
The lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is the ________ | vital capacity |
No exchange of gases occurs here. | Segmental bronchi |
Secrete a fluid containing surfactant. | Type II cells |
Where the respiratory zone of the lungs begins. | Respiratory bronchioles |
Composed of simple squamous epithelium. | Type I cells |
Terminates in alveoli. | Alveolar duct |
Composed of cuboidal cells. | Type II cells |
The respiratory membrane is composed of fused basement membrane of the capillary walls and ________. | Type I cells |
Which center is located in the pons? | pontine respiratory group (PRG) |
Respiratory control centers are located in the ________. | medulla and pons |
With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because | a decrease in pH (acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond |
Select the CORRECT statement about oxygen transport in blood. | A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal. |
Ventilation-perfusion coupling means that | more blood flows past functional alveoli (those that have more oxygen) than past nonfunctional alveoli |
In an asthma attack the _________________ muscle in the ______________ contract. | smooth, terminal bronchioles |
Possible causes of hypoxia include ________. | too little oxygen in the atmosphere |
The loudness of a person's voice depends on the | force with which air rushes across the vocal folds |
If the elastic fibers were removed from around the alveolar sacs, the lungs in normal breathing would lose most of their ability to | recoil so exhalation would be impeded |
The left and right lungs in humans do not contain the same number of lobes. The right lung contains _________ lobes while the left lung contains ________ lobes because | 3, 2; the heart takes up space on the left side. |
In premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome, surfactant is not produced in adequate quantities and a respirator may be required. This is because surfactant helps to prevent alveolar collapse by | reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid |
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ________. | diffusion |
Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________. | ciliated mucous lining in the nose |
Which of the choices below is NOT a role of the pleura? | aids in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs |
The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is | increase of carbon dioxide |
The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall is/are ________. | surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity |
ntrapulmonary pressure is the | pressure within the alveoli of the lungs |
Air moves OUT of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is | greater than the pressure in the atmosphere |
Which of the following determines lung compliance? | alveolar surface tension |
Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. Expiration, however, depends on two factors. Which of the choices below lists those two factors? | CorrectC. the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid |