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The papillary muscles contract after the other ventricular muscles so that they can take up the slack on the chordae tendineae before the full force of ventricular contractions sends blood against the AV valve flaps.
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Trabeculae carneae are found in the ventricles and never the atria.
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A+P 2 Final

QuestionAnswer
The papillary muscles contract after the other ventricular muscles so that they can take up the slack on the chordae tendineae before the full force of ventricular contractions sends blood against the AV valve flaps. false
Trabeculae carneae are found in the ventricles and never the atria. true
The myocardium receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries. true
Which of the events below does NOT occur when the semilunar valves are open? Ventricles are in diastole.
During contraction of heart muscle cells ________. some calcium enters the cell from the extracellular space and triggers the release of larger amounts of calcium from intracellular stores
Select the CORRECT statement about the structure of the heart wall. The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts.
Small muscle masses attached to the chordae tendineae are the ________. papillary muscles
If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from ________. decreased delivery of oxygen
he ___________ valve prevents backflow into the left atrium. bicuspid (mitral)
Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to pump blood with greater pressure
Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes ________. a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output
The time of day most hazardous for heart attacks is ________. morning
The tricuspid valve is closed ________. when the ventricle is in systole
Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events? closure of the heart valves
The major contributor to plasma osmotic pressure. Albumin
Thrombin catalyzes the activation of these molecules present in plasma. Fibrinogen
Forms the structural framework of a blood clot. Forms the structural framework of a blood clot.
Makes up most of plasma protein. Albumin
A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of ________. pernicious anemia
Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean? There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma
Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin. False
Leukocytes move through the circulatory system by amoeboid motion. False
Positive chemotaxis is a feedback system that signals leukocyte migration into damaged areas. True
Granulocytes called neutrophils are phagocytic and are the most numerous of all white blood cell types. False
All lymphocytes are leukocytes, but not all leukocytes are lymphocytes. False
The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting. False
The process of fibrinolysis disposes of bacteria when healing has occurred. False
The RBC "graveyard" is the liver. false
If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, ________. threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase
If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________. the heart rate would increase
All of the following conditions impair coagulation EXCEPT ________. vascular spasm
Which of the following is NOT a phase of hemostasis? fibrinolysis
Platelets stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break
An embolism is a a free floating thrombus in the bloodstream
Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood? hemocytoblast
Which of the following best describes the process by which a leukocyte leaves the circulatory system and enters the tissue? diapedesis
All of the following can be expected with polycythemia EXCEPT ________. A. increased blood volume CorrectB. low blood viscosity C. high blood pressure D. high hematocrit
Visible cytoplasmic granules are NOT present in ________. monocytes
Place the following in correct developmental sequence: 1. reticulocyte 2. proerythroblast 3. normoblast 4. late erythroblast 2, 4, 3, 1 proerythroblast, late erythroblast,normoblast,reticulocyte
Which of the following statements regarding red blood cells is FALSE? They have a tiny surface area.
What is the average normal pH range of blood? 7.35-7.45
This type of white blood cell is the largest WBC, it is crucial in defense against viruses, and is associated with chronic infections. monocyte
Which of the following is characteristic of ALL leukocytes? They are nucleated.
This type of white blood cell has a bi-lobed nucleus, contains granules of lysosomal enzymes, and functions in attacking parasitic worms. eosinophil
This type of white blood cell contains a U or S shaped nucleus, has granules that stain very dark, and releases histamines and other mediators of inflammation. basophil
Which of the following would most likely trigger erythropoiesis? hypoxia of EPO-producing cells
This type of white blood cell is agranular, contains an indented or spherical nucleus, and attacks infected cells and produces antibodies. lymphocyte
Colony stimulating factors will result in white blood cell production
Blood is a ________. suspension
The pulse pressure is ________. systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
A patient with hypertension has a blood pressure of 180/115 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes EXCEPT decreased size of the heart
Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure? renal regulation
Secondary hypertension can be caused by ________. arteriosclerosis
Which of the following chemicals does NOT help regulate blood pressure? nitric acid
Mechanisms that do NOT help regulate blood pressure include ________. he dural sinus reflex
In the dynamics of blood flow through capillaries, hydrostatic pressure ________. decreases from the arterial end to the venule end of the capillary
Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension? 170/96 in a 50-year-old man
his blood vessel is commonly used as a coronary bypass vessel. great saphenous vein
The largest artery of the body is the aorta
The _______ artery supplies the kidney. renal
Most of the fluid filtered from capillaries is reabsorbed by diffusion back into the last half (venule end) of the capillary. The force for this resorption primarily comes from the presence of colloid osmotic pressure created by albumin
A ring or cuff of smooth muscle that regulates blood flow in the capillaries is a(n) sphincter
In which type of blood vessel is the velocity (rate) of blood flow fastest? artery
The GREATEST influence to increase blood flow is increased vessel radius
n which type of blood vessel is the velocity (rate) of blood flow slowest? capillary
Blood flow to the skin ________ increases when environmental temperature rises
Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as resistance vessels? The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter.
Where in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high levels causing vasodilation? lungs
In which type of blood vessel is the pressure lowest? vein
Cerebral blood flow is regulated by ________. intrinsic autoregulatory mechanisms
Which of the following does NOT influence arterial pulse rate? the vessel selected to palpate
Modified capillaries that are lined with phagocytes are called ________. sinusoids
The formation of lymph increases as a result of increasing osmotic pressure in tissue fluid
Which of the following correctly lists the structures according to the sequence of fluid flow? CorrectD. blood capillaries, interstitial spaces, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic vessels, lymphatic ducts, subclavian veins
Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity. Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies.
Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called haptens
Which of the following is a part of the SECOND line of defense against microorganisms? phagocytes
What is the role of interferon in defense against disease? protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses
Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed opsonization
Graft rejection may be caused by ________. using a xenograft
The primary immune response has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
Immunocompetence is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it
T lymphocytes are responsible for cell mediated immunity
Regulatory T cells may function in preventing autoimmune reactions
Natural killer (NK) cells ________. can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated
Which of the following is associated with passive immunity? passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
Peyer's patches are clusters of lymphoid tissue found primarily in the large intestine. False
Lymphocytes reside temporarily in lymphoid tissue, then move to other parts of the body. True
Lymphoid tissue is mainly reticular connective tissue. True
All lymphatic organs are composed of epithelial tissue. False
The most important role of the spleen is to provide a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response. False
Which antibody (immunoglobulin) class is the main class of both the primary and secondary immune response, is found in abundant quantities in plasma, and can cross the placenta to confer passive immunity to the fetus? IgG
Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies? composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains
Proteins known as CD4 and CD8 are attachment (adhesion) proteins on the surface of T cells
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the adaptive immune system? A critical component is inflammation.
Which of the following cells is the MOST critical cell in immunity? In other words, without this type of cell, the immune system is severely weakened. helper T cell
A vaccine produces its effects by stimulating a primary immune response
Clonal selection of B cells results in the formation of plasma cells
Cytotoxic T-cells recognize antigens combined with MHC-1 antigens
Which antibody (immunoglobulin) class protects mucosal barriers, and is found in body secretions such as saliva, sweat, and milk? IgA
In clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned? antigen
The only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells are cytotoxic cells
ome immunocompetent cells will never be called to service in our lifetime. Correct True
The directional movement of cells in response to chemicals is called chemotaxis. True
Select the CORRECT statement about lymph transport. Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.
Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) tonsil
Lymph capillaries are absent in all but which of the following? digestive organs
Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones? lymphocytes
The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________. lingual tonsils
The lymphatic capillaries are more permeable than blood capillaries
The composition of lymph is most similar to interstitial fluid
Digestive tract-associated lymphatic tissue includes all of the following except ________. islets of Langerhans
Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system? transporting respiratory gases and hormones
Which of the following is NOT a method that maintains lymph flow? smooth muscle contraction
The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not: directly fight antigens
Which of the following is NOT a function of lymph nodes? production of plasma proteins
The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________. vasodilation
Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by natural killer cells
Innate (nonspecific)immune system defenses include phagocytosis
hich statement about carbon dioxide is FALSE? More carbon dioxide dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the red blood cells.
Tidal volume is air ________. exchanged during normal breathing
The lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is the ________ vital capacity
No exchange of gases occurs here. Segmental bronchi
Secrete a fluid containing surfactant. Type II cells
Where the respiratory zone of the lungs begins. Respiratory bronchioles
Composed of simple squamous epithelium. Type I cells
Terminates in alveoli. Alveolar duct
Composed of cuboidal cells. Type II cells
The respiratory membrane is composed of fused basement membrane of the capillary walls and ________. Type I cells
Which center is located in the pons? pontine respiratory group (PRG)
Respiratory control centers are located in the ________. medulla and pons
With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because a decrease in pH (acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
Select the CORRECT statement about oxygen transport in blood. A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal.
Ventilation-perfusion coupling means that more blood flows past functional alveoli (those that have more oxygen) than past nonfunctional alveoli
In an asthma attack the _________________ muscle in the ______________ contract. smooth, terminal bronchioles
Possible causes of hypoxia include ________. too little oxygen in the atmosphere
The loudness of a person's voice depends on the force with which air rushes across the vocal folds
If the elastic fibers were removed from around the alveolar sacs, the lungs in normal breathing would lose most of their ability to recoil so exhalation would be impeded
The left and right lungs in humans do not contain the same number of lobes. The right lung contains _________ lobes while the left lung contains ________ lobes because 3, 2; the heart takes up space on the left side.
In premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome, surfactant is not produced in adequate quantities and a respirator may be required. This is because surfactant helps to prevent alveolar collapse by reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ________. diffusion
Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________. ciliated mucous lining in the nose
Which of the choices below is NOT a role of the pleura? aids in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs
The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is increase of carbon dioxide
The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall is/are ________. surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity
ntrapulmonary pressure is the pressure within the alveoli of the lungs
Air moves OUT of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is greater than the pressure in the atmosphere
Which of the following determines lung compliance? alveolar surface tension
Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. Expiration, however, depends on two factors. Which of the choices below lists those two factors? CorrectC. the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid
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