what is role of Acetylcholinesterase

destroy ACH a brief period after its release by the axon endings

White matter of the spinal cord contains

Myelinated and unmeyelinated nerve fibers

cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except

dilation of blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera

parasympathetic functions include

lens accommodation for close vision

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A&P 1 Final Exam

Question	Answer
Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes	provide defense for the CNS
what are ciliated CNS neuroglia that play an active role in moving the cerebrospinal fluid are called?	ependymal cells
Bipolar neurons are commonly	found in the retina of the eye
Which of the following is not a characteristic of neurons	they are mitotic
the part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is?	Axon
the impulse from one nerve cell to another is communicated via?	synapse
what is role of Acetylcholinesterase	destroy ACH a brief period after its release by the axon endings
which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system?	Innervation of skeletal muscle
collection of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called?	Ganglia
Schwann Cells are similar to	oligodendrocytes
Arbor Vitae refers to	Cerebellar white matter
Brain stem consists of	Midbrain medulla pons
the primary auditory cortex is located where	temporal lobe
what cells line the ventricles of the brain	ependymal cells
The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges	arachnoid and pia
The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the	Medulla
What fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres	longitudinal fissure
which of the following best describes the cerebrum	executive suite
a shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is	sulcus
central sulcus separates what lobes	frontal and parietal
White matter of the spinal cord contains	Myelinated and unmeyelinated nerve fibers
ridges of tissue located on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called	gyri
frontal lobe is separated from the temporal lobe by the	lateral sulcus
Broca's Area	considered a motor speech area
the brain area that controls awakefulness or alertness in the cerebral cortex is the	Reticular formation
the patellar "Knee jerk" reflex is an example of	stretch reflex
subdivisions of brachial plexus in order	roots trunks divisions cords
major nerve of lumbar plexus	femoral
spinal nerve extending from L4 to S4 form the	sacral plexus
pressure pain and temperature receptors in the skin are	exteroceptors
potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by	nociceptors
nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are	afferent nerves
cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except	dilation of blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
the resting and digesting division of the ANS is the	parasympathetic division
control of endocrine temperature and thirst are functions associated with the	hypothalamus
which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the ANS	skeletal muscle
which is a uniquely sympathetic function	regulation of body temperature
parasympathetic functions include	lens accommodation for close vision
emotions influence ANS reactions through integration in the	hypothalamus
main function of rods in the eye	vision in dim light
what regulates amount of light passing through visual receptors In the eye	iris
receptors for hearing are located	cochlea
receptors for static equilibrium are located	macula
farsightedness is also called	hyperopia
70% of all sensory receptors are found	in the eye
taste buds are not found	on filiform papillae
only special sense not fully functional at birth	vision
the blind spot of the eye is where	optic nerve leaves the eye
receptor membranes of gustatory cells are	gustatory hairs
histology is best defined as	study of tissues
the study of large structures visible to the eye such as the heart is called _______ anatomy	gross
consider home air conditioner in terms of homeostasis, then the wall thermostat would be	control center
what is the main general purpose of the negative feedback	maintain homeostasis
regional term for hip region	coxal
oblique cut	diagonally between vertical and horizontal planes
heart lies in the _____ cavity	pericardial
cavities housing the eyes are called ______ cavities	orbital
______ cavities are spaces in a joint	synovial
the elbow is_____ to the wrist	proximal
the bridge of the nose is ______ to the left eye	medial
the stomach is _____ to the spine	anterior
back of the body or behind	dorsal
the anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except	palms turned posteriorly
positive feedback example	enhancement of labor contractions
the parietal pleura would represent a serous membrane	lining the thoracic cavity
cavities in which the lungs are located	pleural ventral thoracic
place from simple to most complex	atoms molecules cells tissues organs
which is not a part of the dorsal cavity	thoracic cavity
dorsal cavity is the site of	brains
the basic structural material of the body consists of	protein
carbs are store in the liver in the form of	glycogen
a chemical reaction in which chemical bonds are broken is usually associated with	release of energy
major positive ion outside of cells	Na+
which of the following would be regarded as a organic molecule	CH3
select correct statement on isotopes	isotopes of same element have the same atomic number but different mass
four elements that make up 90% of body matter	carbon oxygen nitrogen hydrogen
what does C6H12O6 mean	6 carbon 12 hydrogen 6 oxygen
amino acids joining together form to make a peptide is an example	synthesis reaction
what is the ratio of fatty acids to glycerol to in neutral fats	3:1
which vesicular transport process occurs primarily occurs in some white blood cells and macrophages	phagocytosis
red blood cell placed in pure water?	swell and burst
which of the following statements is correct regarding net fusion	greater the concentration gradient, the faster the rate
which of the following is a function of plasma membrane protein	molecular transport through the membrane
which of the following would not be a constituent of a plasma membrane	messenger RNA
miosis	is division of the nucleus
passive membrane transport processes include	movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
mitochondria	contain some DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function
in which stage of mitosis do the identical sets of chromosome uncoil and resume their chromatin form	telophase
crenation is like to occur in blood cells immersed in	a hypertonic solution
some hormones enter cells via	receptor-mediated endocytosis
the main component of the cytosol is	water
the function of centrioles includes	organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division
which of these is an inclusion, not an organelle	melanin
what moves cell organelles from one location to another inside a cell	motor protein
the RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the ribosome for protein formation is	tRNA
which bonds often bind different parts of a molecule into a specific three dimensional shape	hydrogen
sucrose is a	disaccharide
which of the following is not considered a factor in influencing a reaction rate	time
a needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order	corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
acne is disorder associated with	sebaceous gland
which of the following cutaneous receptors is specialized for the reception of touch or light pressure	meissner's corpuscles
which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch	tactile corpuscles
although the integument is a covering its by no means simple, and some of its functions include	resident macrophage-like cells whose function is to ingest antigenic invaders and present them to the immune system
which glands produce ear wax	ceruinous glands
the epidermis consist of 5 layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement	stratum basale
a dendritic or langerham cell is a specialized	phagocytic cell
suoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are two types of sweat glands	eccrine and apocrine
which of the following I not found in the matrix of cartilage but is found in bone	blood vessels
the reason that interertebal discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to absorb shock is because thy possess	collagen fibers
what tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels	osseous tissue
the blast cell for blood production is the	hemocyblast
psuedostratified columnar epithelium ciliated variety	lines most of the respirator tract
which of the following is a single layer of epithelium that forms the lining of serous membranes	simple squamous
connective tissue matrix is composed of	fibers and ground substances
the fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is	collagen
the shape of the external ear is maintained by	elastic cartilage
inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which tissue	simple columnar
chondroblast	are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae
a many layerd epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as	stratified squamous
heart muscle cells would tend to separate without	intercalated discs
which is true concerning muscle tissue	highly cellular an well vascularized
what are three components of connective tissue	ground tissue,fibers, and cells
select the correct statement regarding the stem cells of connective tissue	"blast" cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cell
select the correct statement is regarding adipose tissue	its primary function is nutrient storage
which cells are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells	goblet cells
mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in _____ connective tissue	embryonic
yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of	fat
the cell responsible for secreting the matrix of the bone is the	osteoblast
a fracture in the shaft of a bone would break in the	diaphysis
ossification of the ends of long bones	is produced by secondary ossification centers
which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood	epiphyseal plate
which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system	communication
what is the structural unit of compact bone	the osteon
the canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of	blood vessels and nerve fibers
bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplish this process	osteoclast
cranial bones develop	within fibrous membranes
the structural unit of spongy bone is called	trabeculae
what tissue forms the model for endochondrial ossification	cartilage
which is a bone marking name that indicates an arm-like bar of bone	ramus
what causes osteoporosis	osteoclast out pace osteoblast due to low hormone production f the ovaries
the process of bone increasing in width is known as	appositional growth
the membrane area between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are called	fontanelles
what makes up the axial skeleton	the skull, vertebral column, the rib cage
the suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the	sagitial
what is the major function of the axial skeleton	provides central support for the body and protects internal organs
what is the major function of the intervertebral disc	absorb shock
which bones acts as a moveable base for the tongue	hyoid bone
paranasal sinuses are found in which of these facial bones	maxillae
a fibrous joint that is a peg-in-sockets is called a _____ joint	gomphosis
the cruciate ligaments of the knee	prevent hyperextension of the knee
articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to	provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called	bursae
the gliding motion of the wrist uses ---- joints	plane
in the classification of joints, which of the following is true	all synovial joins are freely movable
in symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with	hyaline cartilage
what are menisci	semilunar cartilage pads
what is moving a limb away from the median plane of he body along the frontal plane called	abduction
the terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the	feet
which ligament of the knee initiates the knee-jerk reflex when tapped	the patellar ligament
pointing the toes is an example of	plantar flexion
an example of an interosseous fibrous joint is	the radius and ulna along its length
tendon sheaths	act as friction-reducing structures
which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate	smooth
most skeletal muscle contain	a mixture of fiber types
myoglobin	stores oxygen in muscle cells
the major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction is to	regulate intracellular calcium concentration
which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell	endomysium
rigor mortis occurs because	no atp is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
what is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called	a sarcomere
in an isotonic contraction, the muscle	changes in length and moves the "load"
muscle tissues has all of the following properties except	secretion
which of the following statements is true	striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei
muscle tone is	a state of sustained partial contraction
what is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue	the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
what part of the sarcolemma contains actylcholine receptors	motor end plate
what is the major factor controlling how levers work	the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum
what is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle	the total number of muscle cells available for contraction
the most powerful muscle in the body is the	quadriceps femoris
which of the following muscles is not a rotator cuff muscle	levator scapulae
which group of muscles flexes and rotates the neck	the scalenes
a muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is an	antagonist
which of the these is not a way of classifying muscles	the type of muscle fibers
which muscle group is involved when a "pulled groin" occurs	thigh adductors
which muscles are contracted to exhale forcibly	internal intercostals and rectus abdominus
extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include	lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing lateral or medial angular movements
fibrous joints are classified as	sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses
synarthrotic joints	permit essentially no movement
bending you head back until it hurts is an example of	hyperextension
articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are	aphiarthroses
what is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles	tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules
fatigued muscle cells that recover rapidly are the products of	intense exercise of duration
what structure in skeletal muscle cell functions in calcium storage	sarcoplasmic reticulum
the term aponeurosis refers to	a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element
the contractile units of skeletal muscles are	myofibrils
what is the functional role of the T tubules	enhance cellular communication during muscle contractions
which of the following is not a component of the standard treatment for muscle strain	stretching of the muscle
which of he following is not a connective tissue sheath that wraps individual muscle fibers	aponeurosis
during vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. as a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to	lactic acid

Created by: morgan_shuttleworth

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