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Ch.15 Trauma, mobile, and Surgical Radiography
| True or false, a fully charged battery powered mobile unit has a driving range up to 10 miles on level ground? | True |
| With a battery powered type, how long does recharging take if the battery is fully discharged? | 8 hours |
| Which type of mobile unit is lighter in weight? | Standard power source, non-motor driven. |
| What is the common term for a mobile Fluoroscopy unit? | C-arm |
| List the two primary types of mobile x-ray units | Battery powered, battery driven type. Standard AC power source, nonmotor driven. |
| What are the two primary components of a mobile fluoroscopy unit ( located on each end of the structure from which it gets its name)? | X-ray tube, image intensifier. |
| Why shouldn't they mobile fluoroscopy unit be placed in a the AP projection ("tube on top" position) . | Because it results in a significant increase in exposure to the end and neck region of the operator. |
| With the tube and intensifier in a horizontal position, at which side of the patient should the surgeon stand if he or she must remain near the patient - the x-ray tube side or the intensifier side? | Intensifier side, because the radiation field pattern extends out farther on the x-ray tube side. |
| Of the two monitors found on most mobile fluoroscopy units, which one is generally considered the "active" monitor the right or the left ? | The left monitor. |
| True or false, image orientation on the mobile fluoroscopy monitors must be determined by the operator before the patient is brought into the room. | True. |
| True or false, all mobile digital fluoroscopy units have the ability to magnify the image on the monitor during fluoroscopy? | True. |
| A 30° C-arm tilt from the vertical perspective will increase exposure to the head and neck regions of the operator by a factor of ______ | 4 |
| True or false, AEC exposure systems are not feasible with mobile fluoroscopy. | False, can be used. |
| Name the feature that allows an image to be held on the monitor while also providing continuous fluoroscopy imaging? | Roadmapping. |
| True or false, the intermittent mode used during mobile fluoroscopy procedures is helpful during procedures to produce brighter images, but it results in significantly increase patient exposure. | False, reduces exposure to patient. |
| Which single term best describes the primary difference between trauma positions and standard positioning? | Adaptation. |
| What should be done to achieve specific projections if the patient cannot move because of trauma? | Move the CR and IR around the patient to produce similar projections rather than moving the patient. |
| What is the minimum number of projections generally required for a trauma study? | Two, two projection should be taken 90° to each other. |
| How many joints must be included for an initial study of an long bone? | Two, both joints must be included on the initial study. |
| True or false, a follow up postreduction radiograph of the middle portion of long bone should be collimated closely to the fracture region. | False, must include at least one joint nearest injury. |
| True or false, mobile CT units are available for use in emergency and surgical situations. | True |
| True or false, nuclear medicine is effective in diagnosing certain emergency conditions such as pulmonary emboli. | True |
| True or false, for trauma patients who cannot be moved for conventional diagnostic imaging, other modalities such as ultrasound or nuclear medicine, maybe use rather than trying to move the patient into specific positions. | False |
| List the two terms for describing displacement of a bone from a joint. | dislocation and luxation. |
| List the four regions of the body most commonly dislocated during trauma. | Shoulder, fingers/thumb, patella, and hip. |
| What is the correct term for a partial dislocation? | Subluxation. |
| A force wrenching or twisting of a joint that results in a tearing of support ligaments is a ______ | Sprain |
| An injury in which there is no fracture or breaking of the skin is called a ______ | Contusion |
| What is the correct term that describes the relationship of the long axes of fracture fragments? | Apposition |
| Which term describes a type of fracture in which the fracture fragment ends are overlapped and not in contact? | Bayonets Apposition |
| Which term describes the angulation of a distal fracture fragment toward the midline? | Varus (deformity) angulation. |
| What does fracture angulation be described as a medial or lateral apex? | Lateral apex. |
| What is the primary difference between a simple and compound fracture? | I simple fracture does not break through the skin, but a compound fracture protrudes through the skin. |
| List two types of incomplete fractures. | Torus fracture and green stick fracture. |
| Which type of comminuted fracture produces several wedge-shaped separate fragments? | Butterfly fracture. |
| What is the name of the fracture in which one fragment is driven into the other? | Impacted fracture. |
| The secondary name for the Hutchinson's fracture is the ________ | Chauffeur's |
| The secondary name for the baseball fracture is the ________ | Mallet |
| The secondary name for the compound fracture is the ______ | Open |
| The secondary name for the depressed fracture is the _______ | Ping - pong |
| The secondary name for the simple fracture is the ______ | Closed |
| True or false, An avulsion fracture is the same as a chip fracture. | False, a chipped fracture involves an isolated fracture not associated with a tendon or ligament. |
| What type of reduction fractured does not require surgery? | Close reduction. |
| Fracture of the proximal half of ulna with this location of radial head | Monteggia |
| Fracture of the base of the first metacarpal | Bennett's |
| Fracture of the pedicles of C2 | Hangman's |
| Fracture of distal radius with anterior displacement | Smith's |
| Complete fracture of distal fibula, frequently with fracture of the medial malleolus | Pott's |
| Fracture of the lateral malleolus, medial malleolus, and distal portion tip of tibia | Trimalleolar |
| Incomplete fracture with broken cortex on one side of bone only | Greenstick |
| Fracture resulting in multiple (two or more) fragment | Comminuted |
| Fracture of distal fifth metacarpal | Boxer's |
| Intraarticular fracture of radial styloid process | Hutchinson's |
| Fracture of distal radius with posterior displacement | Colles' |
| Indented fracture of the skull | Depressed |
| Fracture due to a severe stress to a tendon | Avulsion |
| Fracture with fractural lines radiating from center point | Stellate |
| Fracture producing a reduced height of the anterior vertebral body | Compression |
| List the 4 is essential attributes of the successful surgical technologist. | Confidence, mastery, problem-solving skills, communication. |
| Individuals who assist the surgeon is classified as a ? | Surgical assistant. |
| Health professional who prepares the OR by supplying it with the appropriate supplies and instruments is classified as a? | Certified surgical technologist |
| Individual who has the responsibility of technologist ensuring the safety of the patient and monitoring physiological functions and fluid levels of the patient during surgery is classified as a? | Anesthesiologist |
| Individual who has the primary responsibility for the surgical procedure and the well-being of the patient before, during, and immediately after surgery is classified as a | Surgeon |
| Individual who prepares the sterile field, scrubs, and gowns the members of the surgical team, and prepares and sterilizes the instruments before surgical procedure is classified as a? | Scrub |
| Individual who assists in the OR by to the needs of the scrubbed members within the sterile field before, during, and after surgical procedure is classified as a | Circulator |
| True or false, the technologist may violate the sterile environment in surgery if wearing sterile gloves, mask and surgical scrubs. | False. |
| True or false, the surgeon is responsible to maintain a safe radiation environment for all personnel in the OR. | False, The technologists is responsible to ensure radiation safety in the OR. |
| True or false, the technologist has a moral and ethical responsibility to report any violations of the sterile field during surgery if it is not noticed by another member of the surgical team. | True |
| Surgical _______ is the absence of infectious organisms. | Asepsis |
| _________ __________ consists of the practice and procedures to minimize the level of infectious agents present in the surgical environment. | Surgical Asepsis |
| Which part of the sterile gown are considered sterile? | The shoulders to the level of the sterile field, as well as the sleeve from the cuff to just above the elbow. |
| True or false, the entire OR table is considered to be sterile. | False |
| True or false, soft (canvas) shoes should be worn in surgery? | False |
| True or false, the pliable nose strip on this surgical masks helps prevent fogging of eye glasses? | True |
| True or false, protective eyewear is not recommended to be worn by the technologist during most surgical procedures. | True |
| True or false, sterile gloves must be worn when handling a contaminated IR in surgery | False |
| What type of equipment cleaner should not be used in surgery? | Aerosol |
| What is the primary disadvantage of using the "boost" feature during a mobile fluoroscopic procedure? | Added patient dose |
| What is the primary advantage of using the "boost" feature during a mobile fluoroscopic procedure? | Brighter image |
| Which cardinal rule is most effective in reducing occupational exposure? | Distance. |
| List the three terms describing the cardinal rules of radiation protection. | Time, distance, shielding. |
| Which one of the following measures is the most effective (and practical) in limiting exposure with mobile fluoroscopy? | Use intermittent or "foot-tapping" fluoroscopy. |
| What anatomy is exam during an operative "immediate" cholangiogram? | Biliary ductal system. |
| What is the common name for a special tray device that holds the IR and grid during an operative cholangiogram? | " Pizza pan". |
| How must the IR and grid be aligned if the OR table is tilted during an operative cholangiogram? | Crosswise to prevent grid cut off. |
| On the average, how much contrast media is injected during an operative cholangiogram? | 6-8 ml |
| List the three advantages to laparoscopic cholecystectomy over traditional cholecystectomy. | Can be performed as an outpatient procedure, less invasive procedure, and reduces hospital time and cost. |
| A radiographic examination of the pelvicaliceal system only during surgery is termed | Retrograde pyelogram. |
| In what position is a patient place during retrograde urography? | Modified lithotomy position |
| Which of the following orthopedic procedures is considered non-surgical? | Closed reduction. |
| Which of the following orthopedic devices is classified as an external fixator? | Ilizarov device |
| Which of the following orthopedic devices is often used during a hip pinning? | Cannulated screw assembly |
| Which of the following devices is often used to reduce femoral, tibial, and humeral shaft fractures? | Intramedullary nail |
| What is the name of the newer type of prosthetic device to replace a defective hip joint? | Modular bipolar hip prostheses. |
| A surgical procedure performed to alleviate pain caused by bony neural impingement involving the spine is termed _________ | Laminectomy |
| What is the name of the device used to stabilize the vertebral body in lieu of traditional spine fusion? | Interbody fusion cages |
| In what position is the patient place during most cervical laminectomies | Supine |
| List the two internal fixators commonly used during scoliosis surgery? | Harrington rods and luque rods. |
| Which type of pathology is addressed through a vertebroplasty? | Compression fracture of the vertebral body. |
| Orthopedic wire that tightens around fracture site to reduce shortening of limb. | Cerclage Wire |
| Narrow, orthopedic screw design to enter and fix cortical bone. | Cortical screw. |
| Large screw used in internal fixation of nondisplaced fractures of proximal femur. | Cannulated screw |
| Fabricated (artificial) substitute for a disease or missing anatomic part. | Prosthesis |
| Isolation drape that separates the sterile field from the non-sterile environment. | Shower curtain |
| Soaking of moisture through a sterile or non-sterile drape, cover, or protective barrier. | Strike through. |
| Unthreaded (smooth) or threaded metallic wire used to reduce fractures of wrist( carpals) and individual bones of the hands and feet. | Kirschner wire |
| Orthopedic screw designed to enter and fix porous and spongy bone | Cancellous Screw |
| Creation of an artificial joint to correct ankylosis | Arthroplasty |
| Electrohydraulic shock waves used to break apart calcifications in the urinary system. | ESWL. |
| Where are OR tables considered sterile? | at the level of the tabletop |
| Who supplies the OR room with supplies and instruments? | certified surgical technologist |
| What does ORIF stand for | open reduction with internal fixation |
| which position will provide an unobstructed view of the fibular head without rotation of the lower leg | optional medial oblique knee- lateromedial CR angle |
| what is the dose limit for HLF? | maximum exposure rate=20 R/min |
| how do you demonstrate a sternum on a patient in the supine position? | LPO |
| How is the CR aligned for Danelius-Miller projection? | CR is perpendicular to the femoral neck and IR |
| what device is used to reduce midhumeral fractures? | intramedullary fixation (rod) |
| what are the advantages of laparscopic cholecystectomy? | can be performed as an outpatient procedure, a minimally invasive procedure involves shorter hospital stay and lower cost |
| What is the amount of body rotation for scapular Y projection? | 25* to 30* posterior oblique |
| what is the primary clinical indication for an operative cholangiogram | stones in the biliary ducts |
| The AP modified waters and horizontal beam lateral facial bone projections will best demonstrate a | blowout fracture for a patient on a backboard |
| What device is an alternative to traditional spinal fusion procedures? | interbody fusion cages |
| which abdominal position will demonstrate an abdominal aortic aneurysm? | dorsal decubitus |
| how do you position the CR on an AP projection of the chest | angle 3* to 5* caudad, Place CR perpendicular to the sternum |
| who prepares the sterile field and srub and gowns the members of the surgical team? | the scrub |
| what does asepsis mean? | practice and procedures used to minimize the levels of infectious agents present in the surgical environment |
| which procedure uses a high powered microscope? | high powered stereoscopic microscope |
| how do you demonstrate a pneumothorax on a patient who cannot sit or stand? | a lateral decubitus projection, with affected side up |
| battery driven mobile units can go up a maximum of incline of how many degrees | 7* |
| What is the CR angle on an axial clavicle for an asthentic patient | 30* |
| what is an example of an external fixator | ilizarov device |
| what is the rotation for oblique sternum on a hypersthenic patient? | 15* |
| How do you adjust technical factors for casts? | small to medium plaster=increase 5 to 7 Kv, large, increase 8 to 10 kv, and fiberglass increase 3 to 4 kv |
| which positioning line is parallel to the CR on a projection of C1-2 for a patient who cannot open their mouth? | mentomeatal line |
| what is a laminectomy? | a surgery performed to alleviate pain caused by neural impingement. It is designed to remove a small portion of the bone or herniated disk material impinging on the nerve root |
| how do you get a mortise view on a patient who is in traction. | CR is 15* to 20* lateromedial angle |
| what device is used to protect the sterile environment during a hip pinning | shower curtain |
| how much contrast is used for an operative cholangiogram | 6-8 ML |
| Subluxation of the radial head on a child | Nursemaid Elbow |
| Fracture of distal phalanx with finger extended | Baseball |
| Fracture due to a disease process | Pathologic |
| Also called a march fracture | Stress or fatigue |
| Fracture resulting in an isolated bone fragment | Chip |
| Also called a chauffeur's fracture | Hutchinson's |
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