What are the 4 basic types of tissues?

Connective, Muscular, Nervous, Epithelial

The 3 classifications of joints

Synovial, Cartilaginoius, Fibrous

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Positioning CH 1

Positioning CH 1 A

Question	Answer
What are the 4 basic types of tissues?	Connective, Muscular, Nervous, Epithelial
How many bones are in the body?	206
Which system distributes nutrients and oxygen?	Circulatory
Which body system maintains acid-base balance?	Urinary
What is the largest organ system?	Integumentary system
What are the 2 divisions of the human skeleton?	Axial, Appendicular
What portions of the long bones is responsible for red blood cells?	Spongy or cancellous
What type of tissue covers the ends of long bones?	Hyaline cartilage
The narrow space between the inner and outer table of the flat bones in the cranium?	Diploe
Primary center for endochondral ossification?	Diaphysis
Secondary center for endochondral ossification?	Epiphysis
The aspect of long bones where bone growth occurs?	Metaphysis
A skull suture has the structural classification of what joint?	Fibrous
The symphysis pubis has the structural classification of what joint?	Cartilaginous
Long bones-	Humerus, Femur,
Short bones-	Tarsal,
Flat bones-	Sternum, Scaoulae, Calvarium
Irregular bones-	Pelvic, Vertebrae
The 3 classifications of joints	Synovial, Cartilaginoius, Fibrous
First carpometacarpal joint	Sellar
Intercarpal joint	Plane
Hip joint	Spheroidal
Proximal radioulnar joint	Trochoidal
Interphalangeal joint	Ginglymous
Fourth metacarpophalangeal joint	Ellipsoidal
Knee joint	Bicondylar
Wrist joint	Ellipsoidal
Joint between C1 and C2	Trochoidal
Ankle joint	Sellar
Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior parts?	Midcoronal
A longitudinal plane divides the body into right and left parts	Sagittal plane
Near the source or beginning	Proximal
Away from head, end of body	Caudad
Inside of something	Interior
Increasing the angle of a joint	Extension
Outward stress of the foot	Eversion
Movement of an extremity away from the midline	Abduction
Turning palm downward	Pronation
A backward movement	Retraction
To move around in the form of a circle	Circumduction
Toward the center	Medial
Away from the center source of beginning	Distal
On the opposite side of the body	Contralateral
Lying down in any position	Recumbent
Head lower than the feet position	Trendelenburg position
Upright position, palms forward	Anatomic position
Top of the foot	Dorsum Pedis
Frankfort horizontal plane	Base plane of the skull
A plane at a right angle to the longitudinal plane	Horizontal plane
Head higher than the feet position	Fowler's position
Palm of hand	Palmer
Sole of foot	Plantar
Front half of the body	Anterior
A plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts	Midcoronal plane
A recumbent position with the knees and hips flexed with support for legs	Lithotomy position
The direction or path of the central ray of the x-ray beam defines the positioning term	Projection
A patient is placed in a recumbent position facing downward. The left side of the body is turned 30 degrees toward the image receptor. Which position has been performed?	LAO
A patient is placed into a recumbent position facing downward. The x-ray tube is directed horizontally and enters the left side and exits the right side of the body. An image receptor is placed against the right side of the body. Which position is this?	Ventral Decubitus
A patient is erect with her back to the image receptor. The central ray enters the anterior aspect and exits in the posterior aspect of the body. Which projection has been performed?	Anteroposterior
A patient is lying down facing upward with the posterior surface of the body against the image receptor. The right side of the body is turned 45 degrees toward the image receptor. The x-ray tube is directed vertically and enters the anterior surface	RPO
An elbow projection is taken with the posterior surface pressed against the image receptor. The elbow is rotated 20 degrees outward. Which position is this?	AP oblique with lateral rotation
A specific rotation of the foot in which the central ray enters the anterior surface and exits the posterior surface.	Dorsoplantar
The anterior surface of the right knee of the patient is facing the image receptor. The anterior aspect of the knee and lower leg is rotated 15 degrees toward the midline. What projection is being performed?	PA oblique with medial rotation
What is the name of the projection in which the central ray merely skims the body?	Tangential
What is the name of the projection in which the central ray enters the left side of the chest and exits the opposite side?	Transthoracic
What is the projection that enters the posterior aspect of the skull and exits the acanthion?	Parietoacanthial
What is an example of an axial projection?	AP chest with a 20 degree cephalic angle
What positioning term is no longer valid in the US?	Radiographic view
Match the terms with their opposites. 1.Proximal 2.Cephalad 3. Ipsilateral 4.Medial 5.Superficial 6.Interlateral 7.Lordosis 8.AP 9.Superior 10.Dorsoplantar	1.Distal 2.Caudad 3.Contralateral 4.Lateral 5.Deep 6.External 7.Kyphosis 8.PA 9.Inferior 10.Plantodorsal
True or false: If a patient is younger than 18 years old, any confidential information obtained during the procedure must be shared with the patient or guardian.	False
True or false: The technologist must provide a preliminary interpretation of any radiographs if requested by the referring physician	False
True or false: Personal patient information can be shared with another technologist even if he or she has no role in the patient's procedure	False
True or false: The technologist can explain a radiograph procedure to the patient without permission from the referring physician or radiologist	True
Which structures require 2 projections?	Humerus, Sternum, Tibia/Fibula, Chest, Hip, Forearm
Which structure require 3 projections?	Knee, Fourth finger, Ankle, Hand,
Which radiograph procedure requires only one AP projection?	Pelvis
A patient enters the ER with a fracture forearm. The fracture is set, or reduced. The orthopedic physician orders a post reduction series. How many projections are required?	Two
A patient enters the ER with a dislocated elbow. What is the minimum number of projections that can be performed?	Two
A patient comes to radiology for a rib study. What is the minimum number of projections that can be performed?	Two
A patient enters the ER with a possible fractured ankle. She can move it but its painful. What is the minimum number of projections that can be performed?	Three
A patient enters the ER with a small piece of wire embedded in the palm of the hand. What is the minimum number of projections that can be performed?	Two
A patient has fallen on the ice and has a possible fractured hip. What is the minimum number of projections that can be performed?	Two
A patient enters the ER with a possible fractured pinkie toe. What is the minimum number of projections that can be taken?	Three
What position should be taken for a wrist study?	PA, oblique, and lateral projections
What positioning should be performed for a chest study?	PA, and lateral projections
The technique used for bony and soft tissue of radiograph landmarks is termed Palpation
What are the 4 primary image quality factors?	Density, Contrast, Detail, Distortion
The blackness on a processed radiograph is called	Density
Which exposure factor primarily controls radiographic density?	mAs
True or False: For an underexposed radiograph, the mAs must be increased by a factor of four to produce a visible change in radiographic density	False
A radiograph of the knee reveals that it is overexposed and must be repeated. The original technique used 10 mAs. What change will improve the image when repeating exposure?	Decrease ton 5 mAs
The primary control for radiographic exposure	kV
Chest radiography requires long-scale contrast. Which set of exposure factors will produce this?	110kV, 2 mAs
Which exposure factor will will produce the highest (short-scale) radiographic contrast?	60 kV, 30 mAs
True or false: kV is a secondary controlling factor for radiographic density?	True
True or false: 50 kV produces a long-scale contrast image?	False
What technique or device can reduce the amount of scatter radiation striking the IR?	Grids, collination, lower kV
True or false: Recorded detail or spatial resolution is optimal with a long object image receptor distance (OID) and a short SID	False
What factor best controls involuntary cardiac motion artifact?	Shortening the exposure time
Rather than rely on the anode heel effect, what can be used to equalize density of specific anatomy?	Compensating filter
Which type of compensating filter is recommended for an AP projection of the shoulder?	Boomerang
Which type of compensation filter is recommended for an axiolateral hip projection?	Wedge
Which type of grid cutoff is created if the CR and the face of the grid are not perpendicular to each other?	Off-level
What projection requires the use of a grid?	AP abdomen
The misrepusentaion of an objects size or shape projected on a radiograph is	Distortion
What factor minimizes distortion to the greatest degree?	72in SID, and 3in OID
True or false: To best use the anode heel effect, the inner aspect of the anatomic part should be placed under the cathode aspect of the x-ray tube.	False
The best method to reduce distortion of the joints of the hand is to keep the fingers _____ to the IR	Parallel
What factors affects spatial resolution to the greatest degree?	Focal spot size
Each digital image is formed by 2D elements termed:	Pixels
Highly complex math problems used in creating digital images are	Algorithms
True or false: Changes in kV have little impact on patient dose with digital imaging.	False
True or false: kV and mAs do not have the same direct effect on image quality with digital imaging as they do with IR-screen imaging.	True
True or false: A wide exposure latitude associated with digital imaging systems will reduce repeat exposures.	True
The intensity of light that represents the individual pixels in the image on the monitor	Brightness
The primary controlling factor of contrast on the digital image	Processing algorithms
The greater the bit depth of a digital system the greater the	Contrast resolution
What term describes the minimum pixel size that can be displayed on a monitor	Display pixel size
True or false: OID and SID have little impact on spatial resolution of the digital image	False
True or false: The current range of spatial resolution for digital general radiographic imaging is between 2.5 to 5 line pairs per mm	True
A numeric value that is representative of the exposure the IR received is	Exposure indicator
Random disturbance that obscures or reduces clarity is	Noise
True or false: If an acceptable exposure indicator range is between 2.0 and 2.4, an exposure indicator of 4.0 would indicate overexposure of the image.	True
True or false: A high SNR results when insufficient mAs is used in creating a digital image.	False
What result is an increase in noise?	Scatter radiation
Changing or enhancing the electronic image to improve its diagnostic quality	Post processing
What is the application of a specific image processing that alters the pixel values across the image so as to present a more uniform image appearance.	Equalization
Window width controls the______ of the digital image.	Contrast
True or false: Post-processing can correct for a low-SNR image.	False
What statement is true in regard to PSP?	PSP provides a wide exposure latitude
What process is used to erase the PSP imaging plate following exposure?	Bright light
Patient information is linked to the image on the CR imaging plate by	Bar code reader
The PSP imaging plate is composed of	Photostimulable phosphor
The latent image recorded on the PSP image plate is read by a	Laser
True or false: Close collimation must be avoided when acquiring an image on a PSP IP.	False
True or false: Grids can't be used with a PSP system.	False
True or false: Grids are often used for extremity exams.	True
True or false: FPD-TFT often requires less exposure than film screen systems.	True
Close collimation should be avoided when using DR.	False
True or false: RIS is a digital network that permits viewing and storage of both digital and film-screen produced images.	False
True or false: FPD-TFT can be either cassette less or cassette based systems	True
What controls the brightness of a certain image (within a certain range)	Window level
The acronym DICOM refers to	A set of standards to ensure communication among digital imaging systems
A digital transmission system for transferring radiographic images to remote locations is	Teleradiography
CCD-based digital imaging systems have the advantage of ______ over other digital acquisitions systems.	Rapid display of the image
A series of "boxes" that give form to the image is	Display matrix
A 30 x 35 cm IR is equivalent to	11 x 14 inches IR
The application of specific image processing to reduce the display of noise in an image is the definition for	Smoothing
The recorded sharpness of structures on the image is the definition for	Spatial Resolution
What is the SI unit of radiation measurement for absorbed dose?	Gray
Which term is replacing "exposure" to describe skin dose?	Air Kerma
What is the annual whole-body effective dose (ED) for technologist?	50 mSv or 5 rem
What is the cumulative lifetime ED for a 25 year old technologist?	250 mSv
What is the annual ED limit for an individual younger than 18 years of age?	1 mSv or 0.1 rem
The federal set maximum limit on exposure rates for intensified fluoroscopy units is?	10 R/minutes
For most modern equipment, the average fluoroscopy tabletop exposure rate is	1 and 3 R/minutes
What is the primary purpose of x-ray tube filtration?	absorb lower (unusable) energy x-rays
What is the highest ED for females?	AP thoracic spine (14 x 17in collimation)
The use of a 1-mm lead equivalent gonadal shield reduces the gonadal dose by _________ if the gonads are within the primary x-ray field.	50% to 90%
Which type of shield is ideal when the affected tissue is part of a sterile field?	Shadow shield
True or false: Low kV and high mAs techniques greatly reduce patient dose compared with high kV and low mAs techniques	False
True or false: The use of a positive beam limiting collimator is no longer required by the FDA for new x-ray equipment manufactured after 1994.	True
True or false: Collimators must be accurate within 5% of the selected SID.	False
What are the cardinal principles of radiation protection	Distance, Shielding, Time
What change will best reduce patient dose	Increase kV and decrease mAs
Where is the safest place for a tech to stand during a fluoroscopic procedure?	Behind the radiologist

Created by: J_Proctor

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