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Microbiology Test 1
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| AZT treats? | AIDS |
| Vancomycin is a antiviral T or F | False. It is an antibiotic |
| Lamisil & Tinactin are examples of what? | Antifungals |
| Chloroquinone treats what? | Malaria |
| Chloroquinone is what type of drug? | Antiprotozoan |
| Praziquantel is what type of drug? | Anthelmintic |
| Praziquantel treats what? | Schistosomiasis, tapeworm |
| Acyclovir treats? | Herpes |
| Imiquod treats? | Warts |
| A pyrazinoisoquinoline derivative is effective against? | a synthetic heterocyclic broad-spectrum anthelmintic agent effective against all schistosome species parasitic of humans as well as most other trematodes and adult cematodes |
| Why use penicillin or amoxicillin for pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and not pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae? | No true cell wall & lack PEPTIDOGLYCAN. |
| Microorganisms are considered ____ or ____ of many drugs. | sources; factories |
| Adriamycin treats? | Cancer |
| The fermentation product of Aspergillus terreus provides what drug? | Zocor |
| Human insulin (“Humulin”) is made in ____ by ____ ______ | Yeast;genetic engineering |
| Rudolf Virchow's experiment supports what idea? | Life arises from pre-existing life |
| Cholera, Lyme disease, Syphilis, Meningitis, Tuberculosis are caused by Fungal, parasitic, or bacterial infection? | Bacterial |
| Athlete’s foot, Thrush, Other skin infections are caused by Fungal, parasitic, or bacterial infection? | Fungal |
| Tape worms, Schistosomiasis, River blindness, Malaria, Sleeping sickness, Giardiasis are caused by Fungal, parasitic, or bacterial infection? | Parasitic |
| Malaria, Sleeping sickness, Giardiasis are what type of parasitic infection? | Protozoa (Eukaryote) |
| What type of infection is prokaryotic? | BACTERIAL |
| Tape worms, Schistosomiasis, River blindness are what type of parasitic infection? | Helminths or worms (eukaryotic) |
| Viruses are parasites at the ____ level. | genetic |
| Viruses do not have their own metabolism but are capable of reproduction on their own? T or F | False. They have neither metabolism nor reproduction on their own. |
| Some viruses have genomes that encode as few as __ proteins | 6 |
| Hepatitis, Polio, Measles, Rubella, Yellow fever are examples of what type of infection? | Viral |
| Can bacteria be intracellular and not parasitic? | Yes. Because they live independently on own machinery. |
| A Virus is definitely not considered cells? T or F | T |
| Can a Virus have both RNA and DNA genetic material? | Yes |
| Why are viruses considered obligate intracellular parasites? | They only replicate within the host. |
| Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is what type of disease? | Prion |
| What disease is referred to as a slow viral disease? | Prion |
| ___ is considered an acellular infectious agent apparently lacking nucleic acid? | Prions |
| Many antibiotics exist for most bacterial infections although development of _____ is a problem | resistance |
| There are few drugs to treat worm infections, often they are not very effective or toxic. T or F | T |
| What type of infection has no effective drugs yet? | Prion |
| ___ lack membrane-bound compartments. | Prokaryotes |
| Peptidoglycan are found in prokaryotic cells or eukaryotic or both? | Prokaryotes |
| ___ are diploid and rarely haploid. | Eukaryotes |
| Flagella found on few viruses. T or F | False. On most bacteria for movement |
| G+ has 1 or 2 membranes? | 1 |
| G+ or G- has the thinner membrane? | G- |
| (OM)represents ____ ____ | Outer membrane |
| Bacteria is of the kingdom ____. | Monera |
| Slime molds were clasified as ____ but are not. | Fungi |
| Physarum and Physarum sporangium are examples of ____. | Slime molds |
| They are filamentous protists which must absorb their food from the surrounding water or soil, or may invade the body of another organism to feed. | Oomycota |
| Are the nuclei in the filaments of oomycetes haploid or diploid? | Oomycetes are Diploid and also have cellulosic and glycan cell walls and Fungi is haploid with chitin cell walls. That's why they are no longer considered Fungi. |
| Protista, Plantae, and Bacteria all can do photosynthesis. T or F | True |
| Can one consider most bacteria are generally autotrophs? | No. Heterotrophs |
| What is the only source of carbon for autotrophs? | CO2 |
| Does the autothroph or Heterotroph depend on inorganic material? | Autotroph |
| A drug that kills fungi or yeasts would be more likely to be toxic to___. | Humans |
| Pasteur debunked what theory? | Spontaneous generation |
| Introduction of gene into avirulent strain induces ____. | virulence |
| Will a chicken inoculated with attenuated chicken cholera bacteria survive the reinfection? | Yes |
| Will a chicken not inoculated with attenuated chicken cholera bacteria survive when inoculated with virulent bacteria? | No |
| A periplasmic space is attributable to G+. T or F | False. Only Gram negative |
| G+ or G- has (OM) | G- |
| The outer most layer of G+ and G- is ____. | Capsule |
| How does penicillin work? | beta-Lactam (penicillin)Antibiotics inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis which weakens the cell wall. |
| Without a strong cell wall because lack of peptidoglycan _____ the bacterium will usually burst from ____ _____. | peptidoglycan; osmotic pressure (beta-Lactam Antibiotics inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis) |
| Autolysins do what? | Break the peptide cross links in the peptidoglycan (part of process to increase size of bacteria) |
| _____ enzymes, after autolysins do there job, insert and link new peptidoglycan monomers into the breaks in the peptidoglycan. | transglycosidase |
| ______ enzymes reform the peptide cross-links between the rows and layers of peptidoglycan to make the wall strong. | Transpeptidase |
| It is possible to consider penicillin and cephalosporins as beta-lactam antibiotics. T or F | True. They both are |
| Beta-lactam's block the ______ from cross-linking the sugar chains & results in a weak CW and subsequent osmotic lysis of the bacterium | transpeptidases; Penicillins and cephalosporins bind to the transpeptidases responsible for resealing the cell wall |
| Penicillinase is an enzyme that destroys penicillin is also known as ____. | beta-lactamase |
| A monomer consists of two amino sugars like NAG and NAM, which contains more sugar, NAG or NAM? | NAM. Nag-> nags because nam has all the sugar. |
| D-alanine is G+ or G-? | Both |
| Diaminopimleic acid is G+ or G-? | G- |
| L-lysine is G+ or G-? | G+ |
| Teichoic acid is G+ or G-? | G+ |
| Is Mycolic acid G+, G-, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, or Eukaryote? | Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
| Lipopolysaccharide is G+ or G-, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, or Eukaryote? | G- |
| pentapeptide cross-linking bridge is G+ or G-, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, or Eukaryote? | G+ |
| Periplasmic space is G+ or G-, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, or Eukaryote? | G- |
| Bacillus anthracis is G+ or G-? | G+; rod |
| Brucella abortus is G+ or G-?? | coccobacillus; gram - |
| Clostridium botulinum is G+ or G-?? | rod; gram + |
| Corynebacterium diphtheria is G+ or G-?? | rod; gram + |
| Klebsiella pneumoniae is G+ or G-?? | rod; gram - |
| Salmonella typhi is G+ or G-?? | rod; gram - |
| Streptococcus pyogenes is G+ or G-?? | cocci; gram + |
| Treponema sp. is G+ or G-? | spirochete ; gram - |
| Vibrio cholerae is G+ or G-? | curved-rod; gram - |
| Yersinia enterocolitica is G+ or G-? | coccobacillus; gram - |
| Staphylococcus aureus is G+ or G-? | cocci; gram + |
| Escherichia coli is G+ or G-? | rod; gram - |
| inside mouth is G+ or G-? | cocci; gram + |
| Bacillus anthracis is G+ or G-? | rod; chain; gram + |
| Yersinia enterocolitica is G+ or G-? | coccobacillus; single; gram - |
| Borrelia burgdorferi is G+ or G-? | spirochete ; ? ;gram - |
| Neisseria gonorrhoeae is G+ or G-? | cocci; diploccocci; gram - |
| Streptococcus pyogenes is G+ or G-? | cocci; chain; gram + |
| Peptidoglycan monomers are synthesized in the _____ of the bacterium where they attach to a membrane carrier molecule called _____. | cytosol;bactoprenol |
| The _____ transport the peptidoglycan monomers across the cytoplasmic membrane and helps insert them into the growing _____ chains. | bactoprenols;peptidoglycan |
| (NAG)represents? | N-acetylglucosamine |
| (UDP) represents? | uridine diphosphate |
| (NAM)represents? | N-acetylmuramic acid |
| In UDP-NAG some of the NAG is enzymatically converted to _____. | NAM; takes place in step 1 of peptidoglycan monomer synthesis |
| Five amino acids are sequentially added to the UDP- NAM forming a ______. What step is this in the synthesis of peptidoglycan monomers? | pentapeptide; step 2 |
| The last two amino acids on the pentapeptide are ____ molecules enzymatically produced from _____, the usual form of the amino acid. | D-alanine;L-alanine |
| Remember the pentapeptide is attached to ____. | NAM-UDP |
| The_____is attached to the bactoprenol carrier molecule in the cytoplasmic membrane, energy supplied via _____. | NAM peptide;UDP (this is step 3)Breaking of sulfide bonds |
| The ____ is attached to the NAM-pentapeptide on the bactoprenol to complete the peptidoglycan monomer. | NAG (step 4)At this point cell wall is weak |
| Bactoprenols transport the peptidoglycan monomers across the _______ membrane and enzymatically insert the monomers into _____ ______. | cytoplasmic;existing peptidoglycan (this is step 4) |
| What does step 4 allow following binary fission? | Bacterial growth |
| Once the new peptidoglycan monomers are inserted, _______ bonds then link these monomers into the growing chains of peptidoglycan. | glycosidic |
| How are the lone sugar chains made in step 4 linked together? | These long sugar chains are then joined to one another by means of peptide cross-links between the peptides coming off of the NAMs. |
| What is the major differences between the G- and G+ cell walls? | The major differences lie in the thickness of the rigid peptidoglycan layer and in the presence of an outer membrane in gram negative cells. |
| The peptidoglycan monomers are synthesized in the ____ of the bacterium. | cytosol. |
| What function does autolysins have in peptidoglycan synthesis? | Autolysins break both the glycosidic bonds at the point of growth along the existing peptidoglycan, as well as the peptide cross-bridges that link the rows of sugars together. |
| After autolysins perform there function ______ & ______ then insert the new peptidoglycan monomers into the breaks in the peptidoglycan. | Bactoprenol and transglycosidases. |
| What is the function of transglycosidases?? | Transglycosidase enzymes catalyze the formation of glycosidic bonds between the NAM and NAG of the peptidoglycan monomers and the NAG and NAM of the existing peptidoglycan. |
| What enzymes reforms the peptide cross-links between the rows and layers of peptidoglycan to make the wall strong? | transpeptidase |
| ____ to ____ % of the gram-positive CW is peptidoglycan. | 60 to 90 |
| Does G+ or G- in electron micrographs, have a cell wall that appears as a broad, dense wall 20-80 nm thick? | gram-positiv. |
| Does G+ or G- have teichioc acids extending beyond the rest of the cell wall? | G+ |
| What is teichoic acids composed of? | Teichoic acid is composed of polymers of glycerol, phosphates, and the sugar alcohol ribitol. |
| In G+ bacteria the outer surface of the peptidoglycan is studded with ____ that differ with the _____ & _____ of the bacterium. | proteins;strain and species |
| What function does peptidoglycan and teichoic acid binding to pattern-recognition receptors on a variety of defense cells do in G+ bacteria ?? | Triggers innate immune defenses such as inflammation, fever, and phagocytosis. |
| Peptidoglycan and teichoic acid initiate inflammation and production of many cytokines in G+ bacteria such as? | IL-1, IL-6, IL-8, TNF-alpha, and PAF (platelet activating protein) |
| When would you see high levels of G+ cell wall components released resulting in excessive cytokine production by the monocytes and macrophages?? | During severe systemic infections with large numbers of bacteria present. |
| What is the main function of the G+ cell wall? | Protection and support of cell against osmotic lysis. |
| Name some functions of the surface proteins on G+ cell walls of bacterial peptidoglycan? | Functioning as enzymes,serving as adhesins,functioning as invasins, aiding certain bacteria in resisting phagocytic destruction. (SLIDE 24 lecture 3 & 4) |
| _____ have a thin, inner wall composed of peptidoglycan, generally 2-3 nm thick. | G- bacteria |
| How many layers of peptidoglycan does the G- bacteria have? | 2-3 layers |
| ____ to ____% of the gram-negative cell wall is peptidoglycan. | 10 to 20 |
| The _____ is the gelatinous material between the OM, PG, and Cytoplasmic Membrane (CM)in G- bacteria. It contains enzymes & binding proteins. | periplasm. |
| How thick is the G- outer membrane and what is it composed of?? | OM composition: a lipid bilayer about 7 nm thick composed of phospholipids, lipoproteins, lipopolysaccharides (LPS), and proteins. |
| Phospholipids and lipoproteins are located on the inner membrane of the outer membrane, but which connects the OM to the peptidoglycan in G- bacteria? | lipoproteins |
| Where is the lipopolysaccharides (LPS; endotoxin)located in G- bacteria? | located in the outer layer of the outer membrane. |
| What does the lipopolysaccharides (LPS; endotoxin)consist of in G- bacteria? | Lipid A, lipopolysaccharides, and protiens.(slide 26 lecture 3&4). |
| What G- membrane protects from toxic substances like penicillin G and lysozymes, and at the same time retains certain enzymes? | OM |
| The ____ adds strength to the outer membrane, in a manner similar to the glycopeptides and teichoic acids of the gram-positive cell wall> | lipopolysaccharides (LPS). |
| What does the immune system use to identify G- bacteria and what type of immunity is initiated?? | LPS is used by the immune system to recognize Gram-negative bacteria and mount immune response against them. LPS activates the innate immunity |
| When does the LPS portion of the outer membrane functions as a harmful endotoxin? | when released. |
| During severe systemic infections with large numbers of bacteria present, high levels of ____ are released resulting in excessive cytokine production by the monocytes and macrophages and this can harm the body. | LPS. |
| What pathway(s) are activated by LPS in an immune response? | The LPS activates the alternative complement pathway and the lectin pathway. |
| Name some functions of the surface proteins on G- cell walls of bacterial peptidoglycan? | Functioning as enzymes,serving as adhesins,functioning as invasins, aiding certain bacteria in resisting phagocytic destruction. (SLIDE 28 lecture 3 & 4). |
| Polymyxins do what to bacterial membranes? | disrupt them |
| Common topical antibiotics such as polymyxin A (colistin) and polymyxin B work against bacteria by?? | disrupting bacterial membranes |
| Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus, Enterococcus faecalis, and Clostridium are examples of G+ or G-? | G+ |
| What type of cell wall has Mycobacterium containing glycolipids, especially mycolic acids? | Acid-fast cell wall |
| The peptidoglycan layer of an acid-fast cell wall in mycobacterium is linked to _____ which is then linked to high-molecular weight mycolic acids. | arabinogalactan (D-arabinose and D-galactose). |
| The polypeptides and mycolic acids that overlay the arabinogalactan/mycolic acid layer consist of ____, ____, and _____. | free lipids, glycolipids, and peptidoglycolipids. (Slide 33 lecture 3 & 4) |
| Lipoarabinomannan and phosphatidyinositol mannosides (PIM) are glycolipids that can be found on the acid-fast Mycobacterium. (T or F) | True.(Slide 33 lecture 3 & 4). |
| What inhibits mycolic acid synthesis and thus is used to treat tuberculosis?? | Isoniazid (INH)(Slide 33 lecture 3 & 4) |
| During the acid-fast stain procedure acid-fast resist stain with what type of mixture? | Acid-alcohol mixture of the acid stain procedure. |
| During the acid-fast stain procedure acid-fast retains the dye _____ and appears what color? | carbolfuchsin;red |
| Name some common acid-fast bacteria that are of medical importance. | Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium leprae, and Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex |
| Give an example of a glycocalyx protein capsule that surrounds G+ or G- bacteria. | Bacillus anthracis. Last slide lecture 3 & 5 |
| Glycocalyx capsules can be made up of polysaccharides. T or F | True |
| Name the 3 types of glycocalyx layers that can surround a G+ or G- cell. | Slime layer, capsule, and biofilm. |
| Pseudomonas aeruginosa & Streptococcus mutans are examples of what type of glycocalyx layer? | biofilm |
| Why are capsules necessary for survival in the host, and an important virulence factor? | antiphagocytic, poorly immunogenic, act as a barrier to hydrophobic toxicants, and promote adherence. |
| Streptococcus mutans is a glycocalyx biofilm; tell what it does in the body and how it does it. | Promote adherence- S. mutans stick to tooth enamel by dextran & levan (fructose polysaccharide) capsules. |
| Klebsiella pneumoniae are G-large rods that cause what type of disease? | meningitis |
| Give examples of 2 species of G+ bacteria that that form spores? | bacillus and clostridium. |
| G- bacteria do not form spores. T or F | True |
| What initiates sporogenesis? | Unfavorable living conditions such as dehydration and lack of critical nutrients such as alanine. |
| Dipicolinic acid and calcium are involved in sporogenesis. T or F | True |
| Endospore cortex surrounded with _______ protein coat. | keratin-like. |
| What is needed for a spore to go from the germination to vegetative state and how long does it take? | Water & triggering nutrient (alanine) and takes ~90 min. |
| Most pathogens can grow in what temp. range and have an optimal temp. of what? | 8-50 deg. celsius and 37 is optimal |
| Why are pathogens considered mesophiles? | Because a mesophile grows best in a moderate temperature. |
| What are the 2 common pathogens that can grow at 4 degrees celsius? | Listeria and Yersinia enterocolitica |
| Most bacterial pathogens are killed at temperatures above degrees celsius, the temperature of Pasteurization | 63 celsius |
| What kind of bacteria can survive at higher temperatures? | spore forming |
| _____ organisms prefer cold environments. | Psychrophilic. |
| ______organisms thrive in extremely hot environments. | Hyperthermophilic . |
| Pathogens prefer to grow in what type of PH? | neutral |
| Aerotolerant/indifferent anaerobes grow without, but killed by O2. T or F | False. they are not killed by O2 |
| Microaerophiles like low O2 concentration. T or F | True |
| ______ anaerobes grow best with O2 but can do without it. | Facultative |
| Aerobic metabolism often generates ________ byproducts | toxic |
| Detoxifying enzymes for oxygen byproducts are present in some bacteria and absent from others. T or F | True |
| Aerobes, microaerophiles and facultative anaerobes generally have what two enzymes? | catalase and superoxide dismutase |
| Some bacteria can grow with a single organic carbon source, such as methane (CH4) and the essential elements. T or F | True |
| Bacteria cultured only on special media such as blood agar and are termed ______ organisms. | fastidious. |
| Bacteria have the ability to grow on just carbon, hydrogen, oxygen (CHO) and energy. T or F | False. Some of the additional requirements may be “growth factors” such as amino acids or vitamins. |
| Bacteria require what major essential elements? | Mg,Cl,Na,P,K,I(actually iron),N,S To remember this I think Magnesium Chloride NAPKINS where the I is Iron instead of Iodide. :-) Just an idea |
| The process cells use to convert the energy in the chemical bonds of nutrients to ATP energy defines what? | Cellular respiration. |
| Depending on the organism, cellular respiration can be aerobic or anaerobic, but not both. T or F | False. Cellular respirations can be both as well. |
| Aerobic respiration is a(n)______ pathway that requires molecular oxygen (O2). | exergonic (releasing energy). |
| Anaerobic exergonic pathways do not require oxygen and include _____ respiration & ____. | anaerobic;fermentation. |
| Aerobic respiration is the aerobic catabolism of nutrients to ____, ____, and____. | carbon dioxide, water, and energy. |
| Aerobic respiration is the aerobic catabolism involves an _____ ______system in which molecular _____ is the final electron acceptor> | electron transport;oxygen |
| Most eukaryotes and prokaryotes use aerobic respiration to obtain energy from _____. | glucose. |
| Glucose is reduced to produce carbon dioxide and oxygen is oxidized to produce water. T or F | False. Glucose is oxidized to produce carbon dioxide and oxygen is reduced to produce water. (slide 11 Lectures 5&6) |
| What makes an organism an aerobe or facultative anaerobe?? | aerobe requires O2 to make ATP; Facultative anaerobes can make ATP w/ O2 or through fermentation. |
| All pathogens catabolize organic compounds. T or F | True |
| Many bacteria use TCA cycle intermediates such as _____ or _____ as carbon sources. | citrate;succinate. |
| Utilizing organic compounds by bacteria is diagnostic. T or F | True |
| The function of catabolism is to produce energy (often in the form of ATP) for ____, _____, and ____. | biosynthesis, maintenance, motility. |
| Catabolism provides carbon skeletons for _____. | biosynthesis |
| Catabolism provides reducing power (usually in the form of ______) for biosynthesis. | NADPH |
| Aerobic respiration involves ____ stages. | four. |
| What are the stages of aerobic respiration? | 1.Glycolysis 2.Transition reaction that forms acetyl coenzyme A 3.Citric acid (Krebs) cycle 4. Electron transport chain, Chemiosmosis & oxidative phosphorylation. |
| Some prokaryotes are able to carry out anaerobic respiration, in which an inorganic molecule other than O2 is the final electron acceptor. T or F | True |
| Some bacteria called ____ reducers can transfer electrons to sulfate reducing it to H2S. | sulfate. |
| Metabolites involved in energy production can be used to synthesize what? | carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and cellular structures |
| First step of glycolysis what ATP is used to make glucos into _____. | glucose 6-phosphate. 1 ATP used |
| In the second step of glycolysis glucose 6-phosphate is rearranged into and isomer ______. | fructose 6-phosphate. |
| In the 3rd step of glycolysis a 2nd ATP is hydrolized to make _____. | Frc1,6-bP. |
| In glycolysis the 6 Carbon Fructose 1,6-biphosphate is split into 2 molecules of ____ & ____. | dihyroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate. |
| Didn't use info. from slide 18 of lectures 5&6 so might want to check out | ... |
| Fermentation is an anaerobic breakdown of ____ in which a(n) _______ molecule is the final electron acceptor. | carbohydrates;organic |
| What happens to pyruvate after glycolysis in aerobic respiration? | Pyruvate enters mitochondria where the oxygen requiring reactions, the Krebs Cycle followed by electron transport, occur, and a large quantity of ATP is made.. |
| What process begins cellular respiration & does it produce much ATP? | Glycolysis. A net production of 2 ATP molecules per 1 Glucose |
| If there is no oxygen in cells, the products of glycolysis enter _____ pathways that yield no additional ATP. | Fermentation (anaerobic) |
| If oxygen is present in cells, the glycolysis products enter the _________ respiration pathway. | aerobic (Kreb’s cycle) |
| Does aerobic respiration produce much ATP? | Yes. 2 ATP per 1 Glucose inKreb’s cycle and 34 per 1 Glucose in electron transport = 36 ATP (plus 2 fromglycolysis = 38 total ATP per 1Glucose total) |
| In glycolysis, glucose is broken into 2 molecules of ______ in the ______ of the cell. | Pyruvic acid;cytoplasm |
| In which part of the cell does fermentation occur? | cytoplasm |
| Yeast (kingdom fungi) produces what 2 end products? | ethanol and carbon dioxide |
| With Eubacterium what organic acids are produced from fermentation of carbohydrates? | butyric, acetic, lactic or formic acids, but not propionic and succinic acids, as major products. |
| How many ATP's does fermentation produce?? | ZERO. It provides the NAD+ needed in glycolysis to produce 2 ATP's when there is a lack of oxygen.. |
| Which part of aerobic respiration makes most of the ATP (cell’s energy)? | Electron transport |
| What is substrate-level phosphorylation? | It takes place in glycolysis and is when an energized phosphate is added to ADP forming ATP. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate and phosphoenolpyruvate are the phosphate donors. |
| The transition reaction connects glycolysis to the ___________. | citric acid cycle. |
| In the transition rxn, decarboxylation of the 2 pyruvates from glycolysis makes what? | two acetyl CoA and two CO2 |
| What is the importance of forming acetyl-CoA in aerobic respiration? | That is what enters the Citric acid cycle |
| What are the reactants for the transition reaction in aerobic respiration? | 2-CoA (not acetyl-CoA),2-NAD+,2-Pyruvate |
| In prokaryotic cells, the transition step occurs in the ____. | cytoplasm. |
| Where does the transition rxn take place in eukaryotic cells? | In the matrix of the mitochondria |
| What are the products from the transition reaction?? | two acetyl-CoA, two NADH, two H+, and two CO2. |
| Read notes under slide 28 of lectures 5 & 6 | ... |
| The 2-C acetyl-CoA entering the CAC combines with the ______ of the TCA to form 6-C citrate. | four Carbon oxaloacetate. |
| In the CAC citrate is converted to _____. | isocitrate |
| Isocitrate is oxidized by ____ to produce reduced _____ and 5-C alpha-ketoglutarate. | NAD+;NADH. Note the 5 carbon indicates a lost carbon in the form of CO2 |
| Alpha-ketoglutarate is oxidized by NAD+ to produce reduced NADH and ____. | four Carbon succinyl-CoA. A carbon is lost via CO2 |
| Oxidation of succinyl-CoA produces _____ and one ____ that is converted to ____. | succinate;GTP;ATP. You also lose CoA in this step |
| When you take Hydrogens away from a molecule are you reducing or oxidizing?? | Oxidizing. |
| Succinate oxidation by ___ produces reduced ____ & ______. | FAD;FADH2;fumarate |
| How do you convert fumarate to malate? | By adding H2O |
| Oxidation of malate by ____ produces reduced ____ and _____. | NAD+;NADH;oxaloacetate |
| The molecules _____ & ____ carry electrons to the electron transport system (ETS) from the CAC for further production of ATP by ______ _______. | NADH; FADH2; oxidative phosphorylation. |
| What is the function of succinate-CoA ligase? | It catalyzes a substrate level phosphorylation of GDP to GTP and releases CoA from succinyl-CoA. |
| With glucose metabolism how many ATP's gained from substrate-level phosphorylation? | 4; 2 from glycolysis and 2 from CAC. NOTE there is no sub.-level phosphorylation in ETS. |
| How many ATP's gained from oxidative phosphorylation? | 34; 4 from two FADH2's of the CAC & 30 ATP from NADH's( 2 NADH's from glycolysis, 2 NADH's from transition rxn, 6 NADH's from the CAC.) |
| How many ATP's produced from each NADH in the ETS? from each FADH2? | 3;2 |
| What is the stationary phase of the bacterial growth curve? | Time on the bacterial growth curve when growth and death of bacteria are at the same rate. (Slide 37 & 38 lectures 5 & 6) |
| What is a likely reason the decline in the bacterial growth phase? | The lack of nutrients or toxic waste products. |
| 1 cell in 20 generations becomes how many? | 1 million |
| How long does it take to reach 20 generations? | Under 7 hours with 20 min. per generation |
| What takes place in the lag phase of the bacterial growth curve? | New enzymes are being made in response to the new medium. |
| What phase of the bacterial growth curve is most sensitive to drugs and radiation? | The log phase |
| The last electron carrier in the electron transport chain transfers it's electrons to ____. | O2 the terminal electron acceptor |
| Name the membrane associated electron carriers in the electron transport system (ETS)? | Riboflavin,Iron-Sulfur proteins,Quinone, and Cytochromes. |
| Using oxidative-reduction rxn's in the electron transport chain so electrons are transported from the ________ ______ to the _________ to produce a positive motive force or electron gradient which allows production of ATP. | mitochondrial matrix;intermembrane. THIS IS THE CHEMIOSMOTIC THEORY (summed up) |
| How does replication of a Circular Bacterial Chromosome take place? List direction of replication,where it starts, ends, and how seperation takes place. | Replication is bi-direction, starts at the (ORI),ends at the (Ter)and is seperated by breaking endonuclease activity then rejoining break by ligase activity. |
| Name 2 ways that mutations arise in bacterial populations. | Either induced or spontaneous |
| Genetic transfer in bateria results in what? | genetic variation. |
| Name 3 ways genetic tranfer takes place in bacteria. | Transformation,conjugation, and transduction. |
| What does transformation mean in the context of genetic transfer in bacteria? | Naked DNA is histone-free DNA that is passed from cell to cell during a gene transfer process called transformation. |
| What is conjugation in the context of genetic transfer in bacteria? | Plasmids are transferred from one bacteria to another via a pilus. |
| What is transduction in the context of genetic transfer in bacteria? | DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus which = a bacteriophage. |
| Gene Transfer in Bacteria is generally bi-directional; donor to recipient and vice-versa. T or F | False. It is uni-directional. |
| What are merozygotes? | An incomplete bacterial zygote containing only a fragment of the genome from one of its parent cells. |
| Is gene transfer between species possible? | Yes |
| Name some factors of transformation in genetic transfer. | DNA size and state (sensitive to nuleases and DNases),Competence of the recipient which refers to COMPETENCE FACTOR a surface protein binds extracellular DNA and enables transformation & INDUCED COMPETENCE(think optimal temp. or growth medium alteration) |
| Around __% of all bacteria species are naturally capable of taking up DNA. | 1 |
| In cells that have natural competence what specifically do they carry that specifies the machinery needed to bring DNA across a membrane or membranes? | sets of genes |
| Why have many assumed that cells take up DNA? | To acquire new versions of genes. |
| What is the simplest explanation for cells taking up DNA explained by most observations? | cells take up DNA mainly as a source of nucleotides, which can be used directly or broken down and used for other purposes. |
| Artificial competence is not encoded in the cell's genes. T or F | True |
| How is Artificial competence induced? | It is induced by laboratory procedures in which cells are passively made permeable to DNA |
| In artificial competence what is the purpose of chilling a cell? | Chilling a cell in the presence of Ca2+ a divalent cation prepares the cell walls to become permeable to plasmid DNA. |
| Why are cells incubated with the DNA and then briefly heat shocked? and at what temp. are they heat shocked? | Cell are heat shocked @ 42 degrees celsius for 30-120 seconds with DNA so DNA uptake can take place through invagination or leaky membrane. |
| What takes place in the gene transfer of transformation? | The cell(recipient cell)takes up donor DNA and then recombination occurs between donor and recipient and the cell becomes genetically modified. |
| Recombination requires the bacterial recombination genes _____ and homology between the DNA's involved. | (recA, B and C) |
| Significance of transformation in bacteria? | Transformation occurs in nature and it can lead to increased virulence. In addition transformation is widely used in recombinant DNA technology. |
| In Griffith's experiment were the smooth encapsulated bacterial strains virulent (pathogenic) or the rough non-virulent? | They were virulent. |
| In Griffith's experiment when the virulent cells were heat killed and mixed with the non-virulent cells did it make them virulent and were they smooth or rough? | The rough non-virulent cells were made smooth & virulent by genetic transfer of the smooth heat killed virulent DNA. |
| Which of the 3 types of genetic transfer is Griffith's experiment considered? | Transformation |
| In conjugation which is male and which is female the F- or F+? | male F+;female F- |
| In conjugation does male become female or female become male upon F factor transfer? | F+ (male) transfers F factor making F- (female) an F+ and the original F+ stays F+ |
| What happens in conjugation when Hfr crosses with F-? | In crosses of the type Hfr with F- the F- rarely becomes Hfr and Hfr remains Hfr. In addition, there is a high frequency of transfer of donor chromosomal genes. |
| Which has a higher level of chromosomal gene transfer to F-, the Hfr or F+? | Hfr |
| Why is the F+ considered infectious? | It turns F- into F+ |
| Define conjugation. | It is the gene transfer from a donor to a recipient by direct physical contact between cells. |
| In conjugation with F+ and F- explain how DNA transfer takes place. | A single strand of DNA passes through the conjugation bridge and enters the recipient where the second strand is replicated. The plasmid DNA is nicked at a specific site called the origin of transfer and is replicated by a rolling circle mechanism. |
| _____factors are produced by excision of the F factor from an Hfr. | F' |
| In crosses of the type F' with F- the F- becomes F' while F' remains F'. T or F | True |
| With autonomous chromosomal genes (F') there is ____ frequency of transfer of those chromosomal genes on the F' and ____ frequency transfer of other donor chromosomal genes. | high;low |
| F' plasmid can carry as much as ____% of E. coli genome. | 15 |
| Shorter plasmids retard cell growth so larger are seen more often. T or F | False. small are seen more often and the larger actually retard cell growth. |
| What do Type 1-A F' bacterial genes do? | They carry bacterial genes near origin of Hfr (proximal) |
| What do Type 1-B F' bacterial genes do? | They carry bacterial genes near terminus of Hfr (distal) |
| What do Type 2 F' bacterial genes do? | They carry bacterial genes at both distal and proximal ends |
| What is the significance of conjugation in G- bacteria? | Antibiotic resistance, rapid spread |
| What is the significance of conjugation in G+ bacteria? | Production of adhesive material by donor cells. |
| Bacteriophage falls under what category of genetic transfer? (Transformation, Transduction, or Conjugation) | Transduction which is the genetic transfer from a donor to a recipient by way of bacteriophage. |
| In generalized transduction recombination can occur producing a genotype different from both the recipient and the donor. T or F | True |
| Modified bases of phages protect phage nucleic acids from nucleases that break down host nucleic acids during phage infection.T or F | True |
| The proteins of phages function in infection and to protect the nucleic acid from nucleases in the environment . | True |
| The head of a phage acts as the protective covering for the ______ _____. | nucleic acid |
| What is another name for the head of a phage? | capsid |
| What part of the phage passes nucleic acids during infection? | The tail which is a hollow tube |
| The tail of a phage is surrounded by a contractile sheath which does what during infection of the bacterium? | It contracts DUH!!! :-) |
| The base plate and tail fibers of the phage are involved in what? | Binding of phage to the bacterial cell. |
| Give an example of a receptor for a T4 bacteriophage? There is one he mentioned in class. | lipopolysaccharide (LPS) |
| At what point(s)is infection via a bacteriophage irreversible? | Irreversible binding of phage to a bacterium is mediated by components of the base plate. The irreversible binding of the phage to the bacterium results in the contraction of the sheath and the hollow tail fiber is pushed through the bacterial envelope. |
| What is a lytic or virulent phage? | It is a phage that can only multiply within the bacterial cell and will kill the cell by LYSIS at the end of the life cycle. |
| Can you consider a T4 phage a virulent phage? | Why yes you can... |
| When is the phage genome existing in a repressed state? | In this quiescent state most of the phage genes are not transcribed; and it's genome exists in a repressed state. |
| The phage DNA in the repressed state is called a ____ because it is not a phage but it has the potential to produce a phage. | prophage |
| The cell harboring a prophage is termed a ____. | lysogen. |
| What allows circularization of the phage chromosome and what type of bond is formed? | Single stranded 5" ends are complementary (cohesive ends) that can base pair and produce a circular molecule. Circle is covalently ligated to form circle. |
| Describe site-specific recombination. | A recombination event, catalyzed by a phage coded enzyme, occurs between a particular site on the circularized phage DNA and a particular site on the host chromosome. The result is the integration of the phage DNA into the host chromosome. |
| In site-specific recombination the recombination event is catalyzed by what? | a phage coded enzyme |
| How does repression of the phage genome take place? | A phage coded protein, called a repressor, is made which binds to a particular site on the phage DNA, called the operator, and shuts off transcription of most phage genes EXCEPT the repressor gene. |
| What is the result of repressing the phage genome? | A stable repressed phage genome which is integrated into the host chromosome. Each temperate phage will only repress its own DNA and not that from other phage, so that repression is very specific (immunity to superinfection with the same phage). |
| Which is more specific lysogeny or lytic phages? | Lysogeny phages are specific lytic is general. |
| Anytime a lysogenic bacterium is exposed to adverse conditions, the lysogenic state can be initiated. T or F | It can be not terminated not initiated. |
| Conditions which favor the termination of the lysogenic state include: desiccation, exposure to UV or ionizing radiation, exposure to mutagenic chemicals. This process of exposure to these conditions is called ____. | Induction. |
| Adverse conditions lead to the production of proteases which destroy the repressor protein. What is the protease mentioned in class? | (rec A protein) |
| What will result upon destruction of the repressor protein by proteases? | This in turn leads to the expression of the phage genes, reversal of the integration process and lytic multiplication. |
| In specialized transduction what determines what genes are transferred and why is it specialized? | What genes are transferred depends on WHERE the prophage has inserted in the chromosome.It is specialized because only specific regions of chromosome located near attachment site are transduced. |
| What does the following define? Segments of DNA that are able to move from one location to another on the chromosome or between chromosome and plasmid in the cell | Bacterial composite transposons |
| Transposable genetic elements can be called jumping genes. T or F | T as in True :) |
| Transposable genetic elements can are known for random movement and there capability of self-replication. T or F | False because they cannot self replicate |
| With transposable genetic elements, when is transposition mediated by site-specific recombination, is homology needed between the current and new site? | Transposition requires little or no homology between the current location and the new site. |
| The actual transposition event is mediated by a _____ coded for by the transposable genetic element. | Transposase which is an enzyme that binds to the ends of a transposon and catalyzes the movement of the transposon to another part of the genome. |
| Duplication can take place where one copy of genetic material remains at the original site and the other is transposed to the new site. T or F | True |
| Elements that carry no other genes except those involved in transposition are ____ ____. | Insertion sequences |
| What are small stretches of DNA that have at their ends repeated sequences, which are involved in transposition. | Insertion sequences |
| The introduction of an insertion sequence into a bacterial gene will have what effect on the gene? | It will result in the inactivation of the gene. |
| What is the significance of the insertion sequence when you have plasmid insertion into a chromosome? | The sites at which plasmids insert into the bacterial chromosome are at or near insertion sequence in the chromosome. |
| What controls the expression of many cell surface virulence factors in bacteria? | Phase variation |
| Type 1 fimbriae are a virulence factor in uropathogenic E.coli that cause ____, yet are also produced by many _____ strains. | cystitis ;commensal |
| What controls phase variation? | Phase variation is controlled by the site-specific inversion of a short (314bp) DNA element (the fim switch) that contains the promoter for the fimbrial structural genes. |
| Transposons are involved in genetic engineering. T or F | True |
| Because of _____ multiple drug resistance plasmids have become a major medical problem because the indiscriminate use of antibiotics have provided a selective advantage for bacteria harboring these plasmids. | Transposons |
| What is a Plasmid? | Extrachromosomal genetic elements that are capable of autonomous replication (replicon). |
| What is an Episome? | A plasmid that can integrate into the bacterial chromosome. |
| What does a conjugative plasmid mediate what and have all the genes necessay for what? | Conjugative plasmids mediate conjugation and have all the genes necessary for autonomous replication and for transfer of DNA to a recipient |
| What are non-conjugative plasmids? | They are usually smaller plasmids than conjugative plasmids and they lack one or more of the genes needed for transfer of DNA. |
| What in the heck is a bacteriocinogenic plasmid? | These plasmids have genes which code for substances that kill other bacteria. These substances are called bacteriocins or colicins. |
| What in the world are resistance plasmids (R factors)? | These plasmids carry antibiotic resistance genes. |
| Are R plasmids conjugative or non-conjugative plasmids? | conjugative |
| What is an R determinant? | It carries the resistance genes. The resistance genes are often parts of transposons. |
| What kind of bacteria is found on normal people and when does an individual acquire this bacteria? | Normal flora bacteria acquired early in life |
| What are resident flora? | Bacteria found in normal healthy individuals. |
| What are transient bacteria? | Come and go and usually not harmful. |
| What is pathogenesis? | Measure of an organism’s capacity to cause infection. |
| What is virulence? | The relative ability of a pathogen to cause disease. |
| What is a primary pathogen? and give an example. | Cause disease when in hostBordetella pertussis->Whooping cough |
| What are Nosocomial pathogens? | They are those that infect in the hospital. |
| What is a communicable disease? | It is one that spreads from person to person. |
| What is a zoonotic pathogen? | One that is transmitted by animals. |
| Disease present in low but constant level in area or region is a(n)_____. | endemic |
| What describes a disease that spreads throughout the world? | Pandemic |
| A product that affects whether the organism will cause an infection and whether that infection will be severe or mild is ____ ____. | Virulence |
| Many vaccines are based on virulence factors. Name a couple. | Toxins;envelope antigens |
| What are the 3 types of adherence factors? | Adhesins (Pili (fimbriae),Lipoteichoic acid ),capsules, and slime layer. |
| Fimbriae are shorter and straighter than flagella and are more numerous. T or F | True |
| Fimbriae function in motility. T or F | Totally false man. (Adherence is the word of the day) Important in attachment to surfaces of cells or in cells sticking together. |
| _____ refers to a class of fibrous proteins that are found in pilus structures in bacteria. | Pilin |
| Pyelonephritic strains have what type of pili? What do they help? and where do they bind to? | P-pili;help with adherence to kidney epithelium;bind to receptors of uroepithelial cells |
| Nonfimbrial Adhesins may bind _____ on host cells rather than carbohydrates. | proteins |
| What elicits a stronger immune response G- or G+? | G+ elicit weaker host response than Gram-negative endotoxin |
| Streptococcus pyogenes Lipoteichoic Acid (LTA) binds to mammalian host’s ____. | fibronectin |
| Alginate capsules are used to ____ cells. | protect |
| What are the capsules of bacteria sensitive to? | Heat and moisture |
| What effect does the antiphagocytic action of the capsule have? | Prevent complement activation, prevent phagocytosis |
| What type of layer is similar to the capsule but is loosely adherent? | slime layer |
| What does the biofilm layer protect against? | Protects from disinfectants and antibiotics |
| Where do biofilms form? | Form on body surfaces Teeth – plaques, cavities, form on plastic tubing, implantsheart valves, catheters |
| Mucin is found where as a protectant? | Lines intestinal, vaginal lining, respiratory tract |
| Secretory IgA is a dimer. T or F | True |
| Why does bacteria produce sIgA proteases. | Cleaves IgA at hinge region |
| Professional phagocytes definitely survive and thrive both in phagosomes. T or F | True |
| What is the Invasins’ mechanisms? | Actin rearrangement of host cells, facilitates uptake of organism |
| Sialic acid, known to be an antiphagocytic factor for many bacterial species, inhibits the activation of the alternative complement pathway. T or F | True |
| When IgA is coated on a bacterium what antiphagocytic effect may it have? | It may prevent binding of a phagocyte. |
| Mycobacterium tuberculosis has what effect on phagolysome fusion? | It prevents it |
| How does shigella dysenteriae ESCAPE phagosomes? | It invades epithelial cells and multiplies intracellularly. |
| _____ is a parasitic, unicellular flagellate that is resistant to lysosomal enzymes spread by the bite of infected sand flies. | Leishmania |
| What is described with the following? G- bacterium, inhibition of phagocytes oxidative pathway, No oxidative burst, No killing. | Legionella |
| _____ (Greek for iron carrier) is an iron chelating compound secreted by microorganisms such as bacteria. | Siderophore |
| Enterochelin is a high-affinity iron uptake system in Fungi. T or F | False. It is in bacteria |
| Ferrichrome is a high-affinity iron uptake system in Fungi. T or F | True |
| ______ are exotoxins produced by bacteria which cause lysis of red blood cells. | Hemolysins |
| Do tell.... What does streptokinase do???? | It is a proteolytic enzyme; breaks down blood clots & activates plasmin |
| Staphylococcus aureus produces the enzyme ____ which converts fibrinogen to fibrin &coagulates plasma. | coagulase |
| What enzyme is described by the following? Spreading enzyme breaks down hyaluronic acid. | Hyaluronidase |
| What produces leukocidin? Hmmmmm..... uhhhh... | Produced by Streptococcus pyogenes Staphylococci |
| What produces C5a peptidase and what is it's effect? | Streptococcus pyogenes inhibits complement pathway |
| Clostridium perfringens associated with gas gangrene infection produces what enzyme that breaks down collagen? | collagenase |
| Pattern recognition receptors include what and bind to what? | Lipoteichoic acid (TCA), Endotoxin LPS, Flagella and bind to toll-like receptors (TlR) |
| Pattern recognition receptors stimulate intracellular signal transduction leading to what? | Production of cytokines and activation both the innate and adaptive immune systems. |
| Name the 2 domains of bacterial exotoxins and what they each domain does. | A domain is the catalytic domain and the & B domain is the binding domain |
| What toxin Aligns A and B domains covalently within a single protein and the B domain is involved in receptor binding and translocation of the A domain. | Diphtheria toxin |
| _____ toxin is an AB5 toxin with six peptides noncovalently bound in a complex. | Cholera |
| _____ toxin is a 2A+B toxin they are expressed as independent proteins. | Anthrax |
| Endotoxin is characteristic for what type of bacteria? | Gram-negative bacteria |
| Explain the sepsis infection pathway. | Tumor necrosis factor α (TNF-α) triggers the release of interleukin 1 (IL-1). These cytokines act synergistically to produce IL-6 which is highly correlated with death from septic shock. |
Created by:
decak