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BIOL 2414 FINAL
Questions from previous test and quizes
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Compared to the nervous system, the endocrine system has: | A more widespread and long-lasting effects |
| Endocrine glands are; | Ductless, organs of the endocrine system, secrete hormones directly into the blood steam, and help maintain homeostatis |
| Which is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? | Rapid immediate response |
| Protein hormones are | Water soluble |
| Eicosanoids are synthesized from | Arachidonic acid |
| When a chemical messenger helps initiate an inflammatory response by causing cellular changes in neighboring cells, it is demonstrating ______ signaling | Paracrine |
| Which type of hormone requires a carrier protein in the blood? | Lipid-soluble hormone |
| Lipophilic hormones bind to ______ receptors of target cells | intracellular |
| Intracellular signaling pathways within target cells are organized such that | Each step allows fro amplification of the signal where one molecule can activate many |
| Reduce hormones concentration in the blood often causes target cells to: | up-regulate receptors in order to increase cell sensitivity |
| Glucagon and insulin work _____on blood glucose levels | antagonistically |
| Two regions of the hypothalamus that are associated with the posterior are the | paraventricular nucleus and supraoptic nucleus |
| Thyrotropin-releasing hormone is secreting by the | hypothalamus and it increases of thyroid-stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary |
| A rise in amino acid levels or decreases in glucose and fatty acid levels causes an _____ in GH levels | Increase |
| Which is not a tropic hormone | Prolactin |
| Which type of hormone requires a carrier protein in the blood? | Steroid hormones because they are lipid-soluble |
| Water-soluble hormones bind to receptors: | On the cell membrane of the target cell that results in a signal transduction pathway and amplification of the signal |
| Age, time of day, nutrient levels in the blood and stress or exercise are all stimuli for the release of growth hormone. Which of the following is the receptor and control over these stimuli? | Hypothalamus |
| When growth hormone is released into the blood, liver cells respond by ____ glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis and ____ glycogenesis | Increasing/decreasing |
| What is the target issue for thyroid-stimulating hormone? | Thyroid hormone |
| Which is the net effect of thyroid hormone on the body? | Increased metabolic rate, which is supported by increased release of stored fuel molecules, and increased delivery of oxygen |
| The disease caused by adrenal insufficiency that develops when the adrenal glands fail causing weight loss, general fatigue and weakness | Addison Disease |
| Which term best describes the function of blood when considering the presence of leukocytes and antibodies? | Protection |
| The "buffy coat" in a centrifuged blood sample is composed of | Platelets and leukocytes |
| The clinical definition of the hematocrit refers to the percentage of | Erythrocytes in the blood |
| A malnourished person might have abnormally low levels of plasma proteins. As a result, colloid osmotic pressure | Decreases, and there is fluid retention in the interstitial space |
| The smallest and most abundant plasma proteins are the | Albumins |
| The globulin's make up about _____ percent of all plasma proteins | 37% |
| The hemoglobin found in erythrocytes is able to chemically attach to | Both carbon dioxide and oxygen |
| Extensions from megakaryocytes that extend through blood vessels walls in red marrow are sliced off from the cells by the force of blood flow. These extensions are: | proplatelets |
| Which events occur during the recycling of aged or damaged erythrocytes | The heme group is converted into bilirubin, the iron ions in hemoglobin are removed, the iron ions are stored in the liver, membrane proteins and globin proteins are broken down and reused |
| Which are characteristics of type O blood | Has anti-A and anti-B antibodies |
| If agglutination occurs after a blood transfusion, it may indicate: | the wrong blood type was used |
| Which can be used to characterize blood flow in the human body? | There is a unidirectional flow, arteries carry blood away from the heart, veins carry blood toward the heart |
| Which circuit of the cardiovascular system is responsible for sending blood to the kidneys, stomach, and pelvic region? | Systemic circulation |
| The posterior interventricular sulcus | Is a groove between the ventricles on the back of the heart |
| How could a myocardial infarction cause a left atrioventricular valve (mitral) prolapse | Damage to the papillary muscles of the left ventricle |
| Why might a heart attack that causes mitral valve prolapse also causes eccentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle? | To enlarge the chamber of the left ventricle to compensate for a decrease in stroke column |
| Why might a heart attack cause pulmonary edema? | Left sided damage could cause an increase in pressure in the pulmonary circulation |
| An autorhythmetic heart cell is one in which | Action potentials fire spontaneously |
| Once an SA nodal cell reaches threshold, the depolarization phase occurs during which | Calcium comes in through fast voltage-gated channels |
| Vagal tone refers to the | Decreasing of the heart rate below its inherent rhythm by parasympathetic stimulation |
| What is the sequence of events in the transmission of an impulse through the heart muscle? | SA node, through the atria, AV node, bundle branches, purkinje fibers, through the ventricles |
| In an ECG, what does the T wave represent | Repolarization of the ventricles |
| Which process is the formation of triglycerides from glycerol and fatty acids? | Lipogenesis |
| Which process is the formation of glycogen from glucose? | Glycogenesis |
| Which process is the synthesis of protein from amino acids? | Protein anabolsim |
| Which process is the formation of glucose from nobcarbohydrate source? | Gluconeogenesis |
| Which process is the breakdown of triglycerides to glycerol and fatty acids? | Lipolysis |
| Which process is the breakdown of protein to amino acids? | Protein catabolism |
| Which process is the breakdown of glycogen to glucose? | Glycogenolysis |
| Which endocrine structure produces oxytocin? | Hypothalamus |
| Which endocrine structure produces prolactin? | Anterior pituitary |
| Which endocrine structure produces growth hormone-releasing hormone? | Hypothalamus |
| Which endocrine structure produces luteinizing hormone? | Anterior pituitary |
| Which endocrine structure produces antidiuretic hormone? | Hypothalamus |
| Which endocrine structure produces follicle-stimulating hormone? | Anterior pituitary |
| Which endocrine structure releases antidiuretic hormone into the blood? | Posterior pituitary |
| Which endocrine structure produces corticotropin-releasing hormone? | Hypothalamus |
| Which endocrine structure produces thyrotropin-releasing hormone? | Hypothalamus |
| Which endocrine structure produces growth hormone? | Anterior pituitary |
| Which endocrine structure release oxytocin into the blood? | Posterior pituitary |
| Which endocrine structure produces prolactin-releasing hormone? | Hypothalamus |
| Which endocrine structure produces adrenocorticotropic hormone? | Anterior pituitary |
| Which endocrine structure produces thyroid-stimulating hormone? | Anterior pituitary |
| Which endocrine structure produces gonadotropin-releasing hormone? | Hypothalamus |
| Cardiac output equals the: | Heart rate multiplied by stroke volume |
| Large doses of certain stimulants can lead to dangerous increases in heart rates. Such a stimulant is a: | Positive chronotropic agent |
| Norepinephrine is considered a positive chronotropic agent since it causes: | An increase in the firing rate of SA node cells |
| According to the Frank-Starling law: | As the volume of blood entering the heart increase, ventricular contractions become more forceful |
| The resistance in arteries to the ejection of blood by the heart is known as _____ | Afterload |
| Which of the following would cause a decrease in cardiac output? | An increase in afterload |
| Sympathetic innervation of the heart? | Increases the heart rate, increases the force of contractions |
| The function of the post-capillary venule is to: | Drain the capillary bed |
| Which is the common type of capillary? | Continuous |
| Which part of the circulatory system holds the largest amount of blood? | Systemic veins |
| A portal system: | Is one in which blood flows through two capillaries beds before being sent back to the heart |
| Which statement accurately compares filtration and absorption? | Filtration involves bulk flow of fluid out of the blood, whereas reabsorption is bulk how back into the blood |
| Blood colloid osmotic pressure is largely due to: | The proteins in the blood, and it promotes reabsorption |
| Net filtration pressure (NFP) is equal to the: | Net hydrostatic pressure minus the net colloid osmotic pressure |
| As blood moves from the arterial end to the venous end of a capillary, net filtration pressure: | Decreases, as blood hydrostatic pressure decreases |
| Lymph is transported through a network of increasingly larger lymphatic passageways What is the correct order of these, from smallest diameter to largest diameter? | Capillaries- vessels- trunks-ducts |
| The term "primary lymphatic structure" applies: | To the read bone marrow and thymus |
| Where do T-Lymphocytes mature? | Thymus gland |
| With respect to the lymphatic system, what do the letters in the acronym MALT stand for? | Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue |
| Which of the following list the body's first, second, and third line of defense, in order? | External innate immunity, internal innate immunity, adaptive immunity |
| If someone had a cut in their skin through which a bacterium entered, but that bacterium was then destroyed by a neutrophil, this would be an example of: | Failed external innate immunity, but successful internal innate immunity |
| Antigen presentation involves the display of an antigen: | On the surface of a cell so that a T-lymphocyte can be exposed to it |
| Which class is major histocompatibility molecules is specific to antigen-presenting cells? | MHC II |
| In a positive selection of T-lymphocytes, those cells that: | Can bind MHC survive |
| The first stimulation of helper T-lymphocytes activation involves: | CD4 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class II of the antigen-presenting cell |
| Most activated B-Lymphocytes differentiate into: | Plasma cells |
| Opsonization involves: | Marking a target for phagocytosis and is facilitated by interaction of the Fc region of the antibody with a phagocyte |
| The most prevalent antibody in blood and lymph is | IgG |
| Which type of antibody is formed in response to parasitic infections and allergies, and has the effect of activating mast cells and basophils? | IgE |
| In arteries, the thickest layer of the wall is: | Tunica media |
| Gas, nutrients, and waste exchange occur between the _____ and the tissues of the body | Capillaries |
| Composed of an endothelium adn a subednothelial layer | Tunica intima |
| Largest arteries of the body | Elastic arteries |
| Small arteries that provide a blood supply to the tunica externa of large vessels? | Vaso vasorum |
| Originate as closed-ended tubules associated with blood capillary networks? | Lymphatic capillaries |
| A lymphatic capillary that picks up dietary lipids in the small intestine? | Lacteal |
| A rounded sac-like structure at the base of the thoracic duct that collects chyle from the GI tract? | Cisterna chili |
| Migration of cancerous cells through the lymphatic system to other regions of the body | Metstasis |
| Drains lymph from the left leg | Thoracic duct |
| Virus infected cells will release ____ to prevent spread of the infection | Interferon |
| Nonspecific immunity is another name for _____ | Innate immunity |
| Cell type most effective in attacking multi-cellular parasites like tapeworms | Eosinophils |
| A delayed response to a specific antigen is provided by _____ | Adaptive immunity |
| Cell type that attacks a variety of pathogens and causes them to under apoptosis? | Natural Killer Cells |
| Something that an antibody or T-lymphocyte binds to | Antigen |
| A small protein that must bind with a body protein before it will trigger an immune responce | Hapten |
| A group of plasma proteins that aid in the immune response | Complement |
| The process by which cells migrate along a chemical gradient | Chemotaxis |
| Nonspecific process that occurs in vascularized tissue to increase blood flow to areas of infection | Inflammation |
| The juxtaglomerular (granular) cells release the enzyme ______ when the macula densa detects low blood volume or solute concentration. | Renin |
| How are nephrons, collecting ducts, and collecting tubules related to each other? | One nephron drains into one collecting tubule, and several collecting tubules empty into a collecting duct |
| Macula densa cells monitor the concentration of: | Sodium chloride in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule |
| Which is the correct sequence of arteries that a drop of blood would flow through as it entered the kidney and moved toward a glomerulus? | Renal artery- segmental artery- interlobar artery- arcuate artery- interlobular artery |
| Place the regions of the nephron in the correct order for the process of urine formation | Capsular space of glomerulus- proximal convoluted tubule- nephron loop- distal convoluted tubule- collecting duct |
| Which steps in the process of urine formation occurs in the renal tubule? | Secretion and reabsorption only |
| Passive movement of water and solutes from the plasma to the capsular space of kidney corpuscles is a process known as _____- | Filtration |
| The active transport of solutes out of the blood and into the tubular fluid is called _____ | Secretion |
| What are parts of the conducting portion of the respiratory system | Trachea, larynx, nasal cavity |
| The terms "upper respiratory system" and "lower respiratory system" are ______ categorization of the respiratory system | Structural and functional |
| Terminal bronchioles of the lower respiratory system are lined with: | simple cuboidal epithelium |
| Several things happen to inhale air in a process called conditioning, like: | Air is cleansed, humidified, and warmed |
| The region of the nasal cavity immediately internal to the nostrils is the ______; it contains course guard hairs | Vestibule |
| What connects the pharynx to the trachea? | Larynx |
| What prevents the trachea from collapsing? | The C-Shaped cartilaginous rings |
| Where are foreign particles more likely to be lodged? | Right primary bronchus |
| Relaxation of the smooth muscle within the walls of the bronchioles lead to _____- | Bronchiodilation |
| The alveolar cell that secretes pulmonary surfactant is the: | Alveolar type II cells |
| The lungs remain inflated because: | Intrapleural pressure is less than the intrapulmonary pressure |
| What is the proper order or gas exchange? | O2 is drawn into the lungs during inhalation- O2 is transported to cells by circulatory system- cells use O2 and generate CO2- the circulatory system transports CO2 to the lungs- CO2 is exhaled |
| What is the proper order for pulmonary ventilation? | Brain stem nuclei stimulate skeletal muscles to contract- thoracic cavity volume changes- dimensional changes in the thorax lead to pressure changes within the lung- air flows down its pressure gradient |
| You may have noticed that after a large meal you have some difficulty breathing. Which explanation is most accurate with regard to this situation? | A full stomach impedes contraction of the diaphragm, limiting inhalation |
| These muscles extend from a superior rib inferomedially to the adjacent inferior rib. They elevate the ribs upon contraction, thereby increasing the transverse dimensions of the thoracic cavity during inhalation? | External intercostals |
| According to Boyle's law, the pressure of a gas ______ if the volume of its container increases | Decreases |
| When central chemoreceptors detect a drop in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid | Medullary respiratory centers triggers an increases in rate and depth of breathing |
| The carotid bodies contain ____ chemoreceptors that respond to change in ______ | Peripheral; blood concentration of H+ and O2 |
| Following an automobile accident, a broken rib penetrates into the pleural cavity causing air to accumulate in the space between the visceral and parietal pleura. This condition is known as: | Pneumothorax |
| Two individuals of the same size (same dead space) have a pulmonary ventilation rate of 6 L/min, but one is breathing 10 breathes/min and the other is breathing 15 breathes/min. How do their alveolar ventilation rates compare? | The slower breather has a greater alveolar ventilation rate |
| Which accurately describes alveolar exchange of oxygen? | Oxygen diffuses form the blood to the alveolus because the alveolus has a lower partial pressure of oxygen |
| About 70% of the CO2 that diffuses into systemic capillaries: | Combines with water to form carbonic acid, which then dissociates to bicarbonate and hydrogen ions |
| When blood passes through systemic capillaries, the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin changes: | From about 98% to about 75% saturated |
| An actively contracting muscle will causes local temperature to rise and will produce acidic molecules. Warmth and lower pH causes the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve to shift ____ reflecting that hemoglobin releases _____ oxygen | Right; more |
| The _____ transfer urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder | Ureters |
| Do the kidneys regulate lymphocyte production? | No |
| The kidneys are located ____ the peritoneum | Posterior to |
| From innermost to outermost, the protective layers on the kidney are the: | Fibrous capsule, perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat |
| Which class of nephron is crucially important is establishing a salt concentration gradient in the kidney so that urine concentration can be regulated? | Juxtamedullary nephron |
| Which type of distal cell within kidney tubules and collecting ducts are responsive to aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone? | Principle cells |
| The main parts of the juxtaglomerular apparatus are the: | Granular cells and macula densa |
| Stimulation of granular cells by the sympathetic nervous system causes them to: | Contract |
| Granular cells synthesize and release the enzyme: | Renin |
| Macula densa cells monitor the concentration of: | Sodium chloride in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule |
| Which is the correct sequence of arteries that a drop of blood would flow through as it entered the kidney and moved toward a glomerulus? | Renal artery- segmental artery- interlobar artery- arcuate artery- interlobular artery |
| As it is leaving the kidney, blood passes directly from the arcuate vein to the: | Interlobar vein |
| Place the regions of the nephron in the correct order for the process of urine formation | Capsular space of glomerulus- proximal convoluted tubule- nephron loop- distal convoluted tubule- collecting duct |
| How are the processes of reabsorption and secretion related? | Materials moved in opposite directions; reabsorption moves materials into the blood, whereas secretion removes them from the bood |
| Glomerular hydrostatic pressure is the pressure of: | Blood in the glomerular capillaries |
| The countercurrent multiplier is a system by which the: | Nephron loop multiplies the concentration of salts in the interstitial fluid of the kidney medula |
| To measure GFR, an individuals urine is examined for the concentration of a test substance that they received by injection. How is that test substance treated by the kidney | It is filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted |
| The normal pH for urine: | 4.5 to 8.0 |
| Urine flow from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder is produced byL | Peristalsis of the ureters |
| Micturition: | Is another name for urination, is a reflex triggered by stretch receptors in the urinary bladder, requires the opening to two sphincters, requires contraction of the muscularis layer of the urinary bladder |
| Filtration occurs in the ____ | Renal corpusle |
| 10% of water reabsorption occurs in the: | Nephron loop |
| Most nutrients like glucose are reabsorbed in the ____ | Proximal convoluted tubule |
| ___ respond to systemic blood pressure changes to autoregulate blood flow to glomerulus | Afferent arterioles |
| Principle cells in the ____ help regulate sodium reabsorption and blood volume | Distal convoluted tubule |
| Most of the fixed acid in our body comes from: | Acid absorbed from the GI tract |
| When blood starts to become too acidic, the kidneys respond by: | Synthesizing and reabsorbing bicarbonate ion while secreting H+ |
| The process by which kidneys eliminate excess acid or base is relatively: | Slow (takes hours to days) but powerful |
| If someone beings to hyperventilate due to anxiety, the CO2 concentration in their blood decreases; this causes _____ in blood pH | An increase |
| If an individual's respiratory rate decreases, then blood CO2 levels: | rise; blood H+ levels rise , and blood pH falls |
| If a strong acid were to add H+ to the intracellular fluid, the effect would most likely be buffered, as | HPO(-2)4 would act as a weak base and accept an H+ to become H2PO(-)4 |
| The most common type of acid-base imbalance is: | Respiratory acidosis |
| Emphysema causes a decrease in the surface area of the respiratory membrane and thereby leads to respiratory: | Acidosis |
| Peristalsis: | Is the alternating contraction of muscle layers in the GI tract wall that propels materials through the tract |
| The initial site of both mechanical and chemical digestion is the: | Oral cavity |
| Where are the transverse palatine folds located? | Hard palate |
| The type of receptor within the GI tract wall that detects stretch is the: | Mechanorecpetors |
| If a fatty meal has been ingested, the liver and gall bladder need to be alerted about the need for bile. The receptors that are responsible for sensing the fat in the ingested food are refered to as: | Chemoreceptors |
| An enzyme that is found within saliva is salivary: | amylase |
| Most saliva is produced by the _____ gland | Submandibular |
| Lysozyme within saliva primarily functions to: | Inhibit bacterial growth |
| The projections on the superior surface of the tongue, some of which house taste buds, are the: | Papillae |
| Late one night, while studying for your anatomy class, you open a box of saltine crackers to do a little snacking. After chewing on a starchy morsel for a few minutes, you begin to notice a sweet taste in your mouth. What accounts for this? | Salivary amylase activity |
| The term "canines" describes the teeth that: | are lateral to the incisors, used for puncturing and tearing |
| Which peritoneal fold supports the large intestine? | Mesocolon |
| The accumulation of large amounts of adipose tissue in the _____ that extends from the inferolateral surface of the stomach can form what is commonly called a "beer belly" | Greater omentum |
| What is the correct order for the layer of the GI tract wall, from innermost to outermost? | Mucosa- submucosa- muscularis- adventitia/serosa |
| Which layer(s) of the wall of the GI tract contains a nerve plexus? | Submucosa and muscularis |
| Which phase of digestion involves the thought, smell, and sight of food? | Cephalic phase |
| Of the three regions of the small intestine, the terminal (end) portion is the _____ | Ileum |
| Protein digestion beings in the _____ | Mouth |
| Lacteals: | Connects directly to the liver |
| What is the correct order for the list of structures of the large intestine, starting at the cecum and ending at the rectum? | Ascending colon, right colic flexure, transverse colon, left colic flexure, descending colon, sigmoid colon |
| What is the primary function of the large intestine? | Water and electrolyte absorbtion |
| Bacteria within the large intestine are called: | Indigenous microbiota |
| Which duct transports bile to and from the gall bladder? | Cystic duct |
| Vitamin K is known to be essential for synthesis of: | Visual photopsins |
| In response to the increased availability of nutrients during the absorptive state, liver and muscle: | Increased glycogenesis |
| Within intestinal epithelial cells, lipids are wrapped in a protein coat to form ____, that will be packaged into secretory vesicles at the golgi apparatrus | Chylomicrons |
| Carboxypeptidase is an enzyme that helps digest: | Peptides in the small intestine |
| Emulsification is: | The process by which bile breaks up large fat droplets into smaller ones |
| What would indicate a decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR), and therefore, abnormal kidney function? | High serum creatinine |
| Which hormone directly increases the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase? | Aldosterone |
| What conditions would increase Na+/K+ ATPase activity? | Diuretics, like hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) that cause fluid lose |
| What is the mixing and churning of chyme? | Segmentation |
| What is the product of chewed food? | Bolus |
| What is the process of swallowing? | Deglutition |
| What is the product of gastric mixing? | Chyme |
| What is the process of chewing? | Mastification |
| Parietal cells in the stomach secrete H+ and Cl- to form this molecule that lowers stomach pH | Hydrochloric acid |
| Enzyme secreting by cheif cells in the stomach that is activated by hydrochloric acid? | Pepsinogen |
| Hormone secreting by the stomach that stimulates contraction of the pyloric sphincter to slow stomach emptying | Gastrin |
| Hormone secreting by the small intestine that decreases stomach motility and inhibits release of gastrin | Cholecystokinin |
| Enzyme secreted by the pancreas that is activated by enteropeptidase in the small intestine to breakdown protein | Trysinogen |
| Location where venous and arterial blood mix | Sinusoids |
| Functional units of the liver | Lobules |
| Produce bile, plasma proteins, process cholesterol, and breakdown products of digestion | Hepatocytes |
| Channels for moving bile to bile ducts | Bile canaliculi |
| Branch of the hepatic artery, vein and bile ductules | Portal triad |
| Puberty is initiated when a region of the brain begins secreting: | Godaotropin-releasing hormone |
| The primary target cells for GnRH are located in the: | Anterior pituitary gland |
| Human somatic cells contain only one pair of: | Sex chromosomes |
| A cell that contains 23 pairs of chromosomes is: | Diploid |
| A child has the same number of chromosomes as each of his parents. This is because the gametes that combined when that child was conceived each contained _____ chromosomes | 23 |
| When the process of meiosis is complete, the result is: | Four daughter cells that are haploid |
| The process by which double-stranded, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material is known as: | Crossing over, and it occurs in meiosis |
| Which type of ovarian follicle contains a secondary oocyte? | Vesicular follicle |
| What structure forms from the remnants of the follicle following ovulation? | Corpus luteum |
| In a female infant, the ovaries contain: | Primary oocytes within primordial follicles |
| What is the correct order for the phases of the ovarian cycle, beginning with day 1? | Follicular, ovulation, luteal |
| Ovulation is induced by a peak of in the secretion of: | LH |
| Inhibin is secreted by: | Follicular cells, and it inhibits FSH production |
| Ovulation typically occurs on day 14 of a 28 day ovarian cycle, and the luteal phase occurs on days: | 15-28 |
| Fimbriae: | Enclose the ovary at time of ovulation |
| What is the correct order for the segments of uterine tube, beginning at the ovary? | Infundibulum- ampulla- isthmus- uterine part |
| The myometrium of the uterus is composed of: | Smooth muscle |
| What fibromuscular structure is about 10 centimeters long and serves as the birth canal? | Vagina |
| The secretory phase of the uterine cycle coincides with: | The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle |
| Although the length of the menstrual cycle varies between women, menstruation consistently occurs 14 days after ovulation, and thus the ____ phase is constant in length | Secretory |
| The posterior pituitary hormone that is crucial for milk ejection is: | Oxytocin |
| The function of the dartos and cremaster muscles is males is to: | Regulate the temperature of the testes |
| Which structure of the male reproductive system is derived from the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity? | Tunica vaginalis |
| Sperm are produced in the: | Seminiferous tubules |
| The interstitial cells in the testes: | Secrete testosterone |
| Developing sperm cells are protected by a blood-testis barrier formed by: | Sustentacular cells |
| The stages that appear during spermatogenesis are: | Primary spermatocytes- secondary spermatocyte- spermatogonium- spermatozoon- spermatid |
| The acroosome cap contains: | Enzymes to allow penetration into the oocyte |
| Where are spermatozoa stored until they are fully mature? | Epididymis |
| The ejaculatory duct is formed by the: | Ampulla of the ductus deferens and the proximal portion of the seminal vesicles |
| Which gland secretes a fluid containing frustose? | Seminal vesicle |
| These tubuloalveolar gland produces a clear, viscous mucin that serves as a lubricant during sexual intercourse: | Bulbourethra glands |
| During orgasm, the ductus deferense undergo: | Peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder contracts |
| The third through eight weeks of development is known as the ____ period | Embryonic |
| The pre-embryonic period ends when: | The blastocyst implants in the uterus |
| The hormone that signals that fertilization and implantation have taken place is: | Human chorionic gonadotropin |
| Drugs that lead to birth defects in the formation of the limbs are most damaging when the conceptus is exposed to them during weeks: | 4-8 of development, when limbs are undergoing peak development |
| During pregnancy, estrogen and progesterone from the placenta: | Inhibit FSH and LH secretion and thereby arrest ovarian follicle development |
| During labor, postaglandins are secreted by the _____ and ______ the cervix | Placenta; thicken the mucus plug of |
| Which statement accurately describes the effects of oxytocin and prostaglandins on uterine contractions? | Both oxytocin and prostaglandins stimulate uterine contractions |
| Which stage would you expect to take the longest in child birth? | Dilation stage of labor of a nulliparous woman |
| Release of breast milk occurs when the hormone _____ stimulates ______ cells to contract | Oxytoncin, myoepithelial |
| The display of all a person's chromosomes arranged by size and simular features is know as the: | Karotype |
| Individuals who are described as heterozygous have: | Different alleles for a particular trait |
| Which is the larger of the sex chromosomes and is more commonly involved in sex-linked inheritance? | The X chromosome |
| What is an example of food that is digested in the oral cavity? | Cracker |
| Which enzyme helps chemically digest fats in the small intestine? | Pancreatic lipase |
| Which enzyme initiates protein digestion in the stomach? | Pepsin |
| Which enzymes help digest nucleotides? | Phosphatase |
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kennedy.bohannon