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MAX112 WK One
Radio graphic Imaging Protocols
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| To extend a joint means to bend it, reducing the angle between adjacent bones. | False |
| Inferior refers to: | Part away from the head end of the body |
| Which of the following is true of the hypersthenic body type? | Lungs are short and broad at bases |
| The 10-day rules for x-rays of female patients to be done: | During the first 10 days following the onset of menstruation |
| Medial means toward the median plane of the body. | True |
| Abduct means to: | Move a part away from the central axis of the body. |
| Which of the following is true of the asthenic body type? | Lungs are long and broader at tops than at bases. |
| Distal refers to: | Away from the origin of a part. |
| Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility of a radiographer before performing a radio graphic study? | All of the Above. |
| At what vertebral level is the sternal angle found? | T4-T5 |
| Which of the following is a recumbent position? | Both b and c. (Supine and Prone) |
| Anterior refers to the : | Front surface of the body. |
| Which positioning line connects the upper lip/inferior nose to the external auditory meatus? | Acanthiomeatal |
| Motion of the head around the longitudinal axis is known as: | Rotation |
| The acanthion is an anatomic reference point at the junction of the: | Upper lip and nose |
| The positioning error that occurs when the longitudinal axis of the head is not aligned with the longitudinal axis of the body is known as: | Tilt |
| In the average skull, the petrous ridges form a _____ angle from the midline of the body. | 47° |
| The tragus is associated with the: | Ear |
| The positioning line connecting the external auditory meatus and the outer orbital margin is known as the: | Orbitomeatal line |
| A long, narrow skull is known as: | Dolichocephalic |
| Which portion of the temporal bone contains the structures of the middle and inner ear? | petrous |
| The superior part of the mandible that articulates with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone is the: | condyle |
| Which of the following bones form part of the orbit? 1.palatine 2.vomer 3.lacrimal | 1 and 3 |
| The transverse portion of the ethmoid bone that forms the roof of the nasal cavity is the: | cribriform plate |
| The majority of the nose is composed of the nasal bones. | False |
| Which portion of the mandible contains the sockets for the teeth? | Alveolar process |
| Which sutures are associated with the parietal bones? 1.sagittal 2.coronal 3.squamous | 1, 2 and 3 |
| The squamous suture is the joint between the occipital and parietal bones. | False |
| Which bone forms part of the hard palate and is shaped like the letter L? | Palatine |
| Which bones have an alveolar process? 1.mandible 2.zygoma 3.maxillae | 1 and 3 |
| Which bone forms a portion of the floor of the orbit, the anterior portion of the hard palate, and part of the floor and lateral border of the nasal cavity? | Maxilla |
| The zygomatic arch consists of processes from which bones? 1.zygoma 2.maxilla 3.temporal | 1 and 3 |
| The temporomandibular joint is formed by the mandibular condyle and the temporal fossa. | False |
| The sphenoid bone articulates with all other cranial bones. | True |
| Which term is not associated with the temporal bone? | Pterygoid |
| Which term is not associated with the frontal bone? | Infraorbital ridge |
| Which bone does not articulate with the right parietal bone? | Ethmoid |
| On a correctly positioned submentovertical image, the mandibular symphysis is: | superimposed on the frontal bone |
| If a kyphotic patient cannot tuck the chin down far enough for an AP axial (Towne) projection, which of the following should be done? | Angle tube more caudal than usual. |
| On a PA Caldwell projection of the skull, the petrous ridges: | fill the lower third of the orbits |
| The orbitomeatal line (OML) is used to position all of the following projections except the: | submentovertical |
| If the midsagittal plane is parallel with the tabletop and the interpupillary line is perpendicular to the image receptor, the projection is the: | lateral |
| The foramen magnum is demonstrated on which projection? 1.AP axial (Towne) 2.parietoacanthial (Waters) 3.PA Caldwell | 1 and 2 |
| For the submentovertical projection of the skull, the central ray is directed at right angles to the _____ line. | infraorbitomeatal |
| If the orbitomeatal line is slightly less than 37° to the plane of the image receptor when doing a parietoacanthial (Waters) projection the resultant image will show: | the petrosal shadows projected onto the lower antra |
| If the infraorbital line is perpendicular to the image receptor, how many degrees should the tube be angled for an AP axial (Towne) projection? | 37 |
| Medial or lateral displacement of the bony nasal septum can be demonstrated on which projections? 1.PA Caldwell 2.AP axial (Towne) 3.parietoacanthial (Waters) | 1 and 3 |
| If the midsagittal plane and the IOML are perpendicular to the table and a 37° caudal tube angle is used, the projection is the: | AP axial (Towne) |
| A radiographer observes the petrous ridges in the bottom third of the maxillary sinuses on a parietoacanthial (Waters) image. What action should the radiographer take? | Repeat the image, moving the chin farther up, away from chest. |
| Of the following projections, which best demonstrates the occipital bone? | submentovertical |
| For which projection is the patient’s head extended as much as possible? | submentovertex |
| What is the best criterion to use when evaluating the positioning accuracy of an AP axial (Towne) projection? | Petrous ridges should be symmetrical. |
| The best single projection/position for demonstrating a basal skull fracture is the: | submentovertex |
| Which of the following structures is not demonstrated on a lateral skull image? | occipital condyles |
| When positioning a PA Caldwell projection for facial bones, the midsagittal plane is: | perpendicular to the image receptor |
| Which projection is particularly useful for demonstrating depressed fractures of the frontal sinus? | lateral |
| On a modified parietoacanthial (Waters) projection for facial bones, the petrous ridges should: | lie below the maxillary antra |
| The central ray for a lateral projection of the facial bones enters at the: | zygoma |
| The central ray for a PA projection of the mandible is directed: | perpendicular to the image receptor |
| For an AP axial (Towne) projection of the mandible, the _____ line is perpendicular to the image receptor. | orbitomeatal |
| For an axiolateral projection of the mandibular body, the head is tilted: | 30° |
| The central ray for a lateral projection of the cranium enters _____ the external auditory meatus. | 2 inches above |
| The central ray for a parietoacanthial (Waters) projection for facial bones exits at the: | acanthion |
| If the head is placed in a true lateral position, an axiolateral mandible projection requires a tube angle of: | 25°–35° cephalic |
| The central ray for a PA Caldwell projection for facial bones exits at the: | nasion |
| When positioning lateral facial bones, the midsagittal plane is placed: | parallel to the image receptor |
| Which projection best demonstrates a fracture of the mandibular condyle? | axiolateral |
| For the parietoacanthial projection of the nasal bones, the orbitomeatal line forms an angle of _____ with the plane of the image receptor. | 37° |
| Which of the following are commonly included in a departmental protocol for nasal bones? 1.lateral 2.submentovertical 3.parietoacanthial (Waters) | 1 and 3 |
| Lateral displacement of the bony nasal septum is demonstrated on which projections? 1.lateral 2.PA Caldwell 3.parietoacanthial (Waters) | 2 and 3 |
| The midsagittal plane and the orbitomeatal line are perpendicular to the image receptor. Which projection is this? | PA |
| Which of the following best demonstrates the floor of the orbits? | modified parietoacanthial (Waters) |
| Which of the following is perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor for the parietoorbital oblique (Rhese) projection of the orbits? | acanthiomeatal line |
| In the parieto-orbital oblique (Rhese) projection, the head is positioned so that the _____ are in contact with the table. | nose, zygoma, and chin |
| When positioning a parieto-orbital oblique (Rhese) projection, the head is adjusted so that the midsagittal plane forms an angle of _____ with the plane of the image receptor. | 53° |
| On a properly positioned parieto-orbital oblique (Rhese) projection, the optic foramen is located in the _____ _____ quadrant of the orbital shadow. | lower, outer |
| For the submentovertical projection for the zygomatic arches, the central ray is directed at right angles to the _____ line. | infraorbitomeatal |
| Which of the following are commonly performed to demonstrate the zygomatic arches? 1.modified parietoacanthial (Waters) 2.submentovertical 3.AP axial (Towne) | 2 and 3 |
| When positioning the oblique axial (May) projection for zygomatic arches, the patient’s head is turned _____ _____ the affected side. | 15°, away from |
| The oblique axial (May) projection is a variation of which projection? | submentovertex |
| On a PA Caldwell projection of the paranasal sinuses, the petrous ridges should: | fill the lower third of the orbits |
| The PA Caldwell projection primarily demonstrates which paranasal sinuses? 1.sphenoid 2.ethmoid 3.frontal | 2 and 3 |
| The parietoacanthial (Waters) projection best demonstrates which sinus group? | maxillary |
| The lateral projection best demonstrates which sinus group? | sphenoid |
| The submentovertical projection primarily demonstrates which paranasal sinuses? 1.sphenoid 2.ethmoid 3.frontal | 1 and 2 |
| The submentovertical projection effectively demonstrates the: 1.sphenoid sinuses 2.mandibular condyles 3.zygomatic arches | 1 and 3 |
| In the axial transoral (Pirie) projection, which sinus group is visualized through the open mouth? | sphenoid |
| The first cervical vertebra is atypical because it does not possess a: | body |
| The cervical intervertebral foramina project anteriorly at a __________ angle. | 45° |
| The vertebral prominens of C7 derives its name from its: | large spinous process |
| The atlanto-occipital joint allows for _____ of the head. 1. flexion 2. rotation 3. lateral tilt | 1 and 3 |
| Which projection best demonstrates the cervical intervertebral foramina? | oblique |
| The second cervical vertebra has a large toothlike process projecting from it, which fits into the arch of C1. This process is called the: | dens |
| On a correctly positioned AP projection of the cervical spine, which vertebrae should be demonstrated? | C3–T2 |
| When the AP open mouth projection is being performed, if the inferior margins of the upper teeth and the mastoid tips are exactly superimposed: | the patient is properly positioned |
| The spinous processes of the cervical vertebrae are best demonstrated by which projection? | lateral |
| Which structure passes through the transverse foramen? | vertebral artery |
| The thyroid cartilage is found at the level of: | C5 |
| The recommended kVp range for AP and oblique cervical spine projections is: | 75–80 |
| The cervical spine has a _______________ curvature. | lordotic |
| In which projection of the cervical spine are the intervertebral foramina closest to the image receptor (the down side) best demonstrated? | PA oblique |
| What are the optimal tube angle and direction for AP oblique projections of the cervical spine? | 15°–20°, cephalic |
| What are the tube angle and direction for an AP projection of the cervical spine? | 15°–20°, cephalic |
| The chin should be slightly extended on a lateral cervical spine to ensure that the: | mandible is free of superimposition on the vertebral bodies |
| Which of the following should be demonstrated on an open mouth odontoid image? 1. dens 2. lateral masses 3. C2 | 1, 2, and 3 |
| Which of the following are well visualized on a lateral image of the cervical spine? 1. intervertebral foramina 2. zygapophyseal joints 3. spinous processes | 2 and 3 |
| The LAO position of the cervical spine will visualize essentially the same structures as the: | RPO |
| Which vertebra is called the atlas? | C1 |
| An abnormal posterior curvature of the spine (humpback deformity) is called: | kyphosis |
| An intervertebral foramen is formed by the _____ of one vertebra and the _____ of the vertebra below: | inferior vertebral notch, superior vertebral notch |
| The thoracic spine has a posterior convex curvature. | true |
| Most ribs articulate posteriorly with a thoracic vertebra at the: 1. vertebral body 2. inferior articular process 3. transverse process | 1 and 3 |
| Compared with lumbar vertebrae, the spinous processes of thoracic vertebrae: | are longer and point more sharply downward |
| What anatomic structure lies directly on top of the body of a thoracic vertebra? | intervertebral disk |
| The xiphoid tip lies at the level of: | T10 |
| An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine results in a condition called: | scoliosis |
| The soft, semigelatinous central portion of an intervertebral disk is called the: | nucleus pulposis |
| The iliac crest is at the approximate level of: | L4 |
| The lumbosacral junction is located at the approximate level of the | anterior superior iliac spine |
| The posterior portion of the vertebral arch is formed by fusion of the: | two laminae |
| When performing an AP projection of the thoracic spine, the radiographer should: | place the anode at the T1 end |
| For a lateral thoracic spine, the arms are drawn forward at right angles to the patient to: | prevent the scapulae from superimposing on the vertebrae |
| To better demonstrate the vertebral bodies, the central ray for a swimmer’s lateral is sometimes angled: | 5°–10° caudal |
| The upper edge of the image receptor for an AP projection of the thoracic spine should be: | 1–2 inches above the upper border of the shoulders |
| For a lateral thoracic spine projection a _____ can be used to blur out the images of the ribs and pulmonary structures overlying the vertebral bodies. | breathing technique |
| Which structure is not clearly demonstrated on an AP projection of the thoracic spine? | intervertebral foramen |
| For the position shown in the above figure, the patient’s arms should be placed such that: | the arm nearest the table is raised above the head while the shoulder farthest from the table is depressed |
| A wedge filter is sometimes used during an AP thoracic spine examination to: | produce a more homogeneous density throughout the T-spine |
| Which types of patients benefit most by placing a radiolucent sponge under the thoracolumbar area for lateral thoracic spine projections? | thin females |
| For a thoracic spine for an AP projection to be properly centered, the central ray should enter: | 3–4 inches below the jugular or manubrial notch |
| Which vertebrae should be clearly demonstrated for the position shown in the above figure? | C7–T4 |
| Which zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated on a PA oblique (RAO) of the thoracic spine? | right |
| What is the purpose of using a breathing technique for a lateral thoracic spine? | to remove lung superimposition |
| Where is the central ray location for the position shown in the above figure? | T1 |
| A radiographer examines a lateral thoracic spine image and notices that T1–T4 are not visualized. What action should be taken? | Turn the radiographic image in for reading because it was accurately positioned. |
| Oblique thoracic spine projections must demonstrate: | T1–T12 |
| The patient is placed prone and the right side is rotated 70° away from the table. The patient position is best described as: | LAO |
| Refer below image for question 14-18. The name of the projection shown in the above figure is: | swimmer’s lateral |
| When taking the exam shown in the above figure, you notice that the patient did not stop breathing during the exposure. What action should be taken? | Turn the radiographic image in for reading; breathing may enhance image quality by obscuring overlying lung detail. |
| For scoliosis examinations of the lumbar spine, the PA projection is preferred over the AP because the PA: | results in lower patient dose |
| Lead blockers/shields are used to limit scatter radiation for examinations of the: 1. lateral sacrum 2. lateral coccyx 3. AP sacrum | 1 and 2 |
| For an AP projection of the coccyx, the central ray should enter the body: | 2 inches above the symphysis pubis |
| For an oblique projection of the lumbar spine shown in the above figure, the central ray is placed _____ inch(es) to the _____ of the spinous processes. | 1, right |
| To determine motion in the area of a spinal fusion of the lumbar spine, which of the following examinations is indicated? | upright lateral flexion and extension |
| The zygapophyseal joints on the side nearer the table are clearly demonstrated when the patient is in the _____ position. | RPO |
| Weight-bearing bending images of the lumbar spine are taken primarily to demonstrate: | degree of mobility after spinal fusion |
| Hyperflexion images of the lumbar spine are taken by having the patient bend ____ as much as possible. | forward |
| A lateral lumbar spine image should clearly demonstrate the: 1. intervertebral foramina 2. spinous processes 3. disk spaces | 1, 2, and 3 |
| Which of the following should be well demonstrated on an oblique lumbar spine image with the patient in the position shown in the above figure? 1right zygapophyseal joints 2right intervertebral foramina 3right superior and inferior articular processes | 1 and 3 |
| Which projection best demonstrates the intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine? | lateral |
| What is the optimal kVp range for an AP projection of the lumbar spine? | 75–80 |
| Which of the following are not clearly demonstrated on an AP projection of the lumbar spine? | spinous processes |
| The proper breathing instruction for a lateral projection of the lumbar spine is: | suspend breathing on expiration |
| For a lateral projection of the L5–S1 junction, the central ray is placed: | 2 inches inferior to the iliac crest |
| The tube angle for a lateral projection of the L5–S1 junction is _____, _____. | 5°–10°, caudal |
| If the spine is not parallel to the table for a lateral lumbar spine on a female patient, the central ray should be directed: | 5° caudal |
| In the above figure, what is the projection? | AP |
| To open the L5–S1 joint space in the AP axial projection, the tube should be angled _____ cephalic. | 35° |
| When analyzing an AP coccyx image, a radiographer observes that the coccyx is superimposed on the pubic bone. Which of the following is true? | The radiographer should angle the tube more caudal. |
| Compared with a routine lateral lumbar spine, the lateral projection of the L5–S1 junction usually requires: | more kVp |
| For an AP projection of the coccyx, the central ray is angled _____, _____. | 10°, caudal |
| When a 14 x 17 inch image receptor is used, an AP lumbar spine should be centered: | at the level of the iliac crest |
| The routine image receptor size for a lateral projection of the L5–S1 junction is _____ inches. | 8 x 10 |
| Which of the following is correct concerning the AP projection of the sacrum? | 15° cephalic angle of central ray |
| When examining an oblique lumbar spine image(in the above figure)a radiographer notes that the left zygapophyseal joints are not well demonstrated and that the pedicle is quite posterior to the vertebral body. What is the most probable positioning error? | There was no error; the part was properly positioned. |
| For AP projections of the lumbar spine, flat contact gonad shields should not be used for _____ patients. | female |
| In the above figure, what is the position of the patient? | RPO |
| What is the optimum patient angle for the oblique projection of the lumbar spine shown in the above figure? | 45° |
| For a lateral projection of the sacrum, the image receptor is centered at the level of the: | anterior superior iliac spine |
| When radiation exists in the form of pure energy, it is referred to as: | electromagnetic |
| Sources of radiation are: 1.man-made 2.terrestrial 3.cosmic | 1, 2, and 3 |
| A non-ionized atom has an electric charge of: | zero |
| If an atom gains or loses neutrons, the result is an atom called a/an: | Isotope |
| The most common type of x-ray interaction in the diagnostic energy range and responsible for most scattered radiation during x-ray examinations is: | Compton |
| In the photoelectric interaction, the incoming x-ray interacts with a/an: | inner-shell electron |
| One radiation equivalent man (REM) is equal to _____________ milli-sieverts (mSv). | 10 |
| One sievert (Sv) is equal to ____________ radiation equivalent man (REM). | 10 |
| The first energy shell closest to the nucleus contains ___________ electrons. | two |
| Humans receive the greatest amount of radiation exposure from: | radon |
| After an atom is ionized, its’ electric charge status is changed. | False |
| In the Système Internationale d’ Unités (SI), the measure of electric current is the: | ampere |
| The number of protons in an atom is called the atomic: | number |
| The unit of energy is the joule (J). | True |
| When radiation exists in the form of matter, it is referred to as | particulate |
| A principal characteristic of matter is: | mass |
| One gray is equivalent to ___________ radiation absorbed dose (RAD) | 100 |
| There are _____________ naturally occurring elements identified on the Periodic Table of Elements. | 92 |
| Atoms that have been ionized assume a _________ electrical charge: | positive |
| As the electromagnetic energy increases, the wavelength gets __________ and _________ penetrating to matter. | shorter, more |
| The magnification factor may be represented by the following formula: | SID/SOD and (Image Width/Object Width) |
| Radiographic contrast is best defined as the: | degree of difference between the light and dark areas |
| A grid should be used when the body part being radiographed is: | thicker than 12 centimeters |
| A sharp difference between the light and dark areas of a radiographic image is termed: | short-scale contrast |
| To change from a short-scale contrast to a long-scale contrast: | decrease mAs and increase kVp |
| Primary beam filtration may be achieved by the use of a device (or devices) known as a: | all of the above |
| When a standard 40 inches SID is used, the approximate amount of magnification of most radiographic images would be: | 1.1 |
| The photographic properties of a radiograph consist of the following elements: | density and contrast |
| The term “geometric blur” or penumbra is associated with the effects of the following factor(s): | FSS, SID, and OID |
| When any of several combinations of mA and T will produce an equivalent amount of mAs, the result is called: | reciprocity law |
| Which of the following technical factor sets is likely to result in the greatest amount of magnification? mAs OID SID | 30 6" 36" |
| Which one of the grid ratios listed below is more efficient than the others? | 16:1 |
| Select the exposure setting that will result in the greatest density: mA TIME SID | 200 1/4 second 30" |
| A change in SID from an original position of 40 inches to an increased position of 60 inches will change the following effect of __________. | density (mA) |
| Heat unit (HU) capacity is determined by the following formula: | mA × T × kVp |
| To apply heel effect when radiographing a femur, position the thicker anatomic part beneath the: | cathode |
| The primary purpose of a grid is to reduce the effects of __________ on the image. | scattered radiation |
| The total amount of minimal beam filtration is: | 2.5 mm |
| The intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance expresses the relationship between: | distance and radiation intensity |
| Radiographic density is best defined as the: | degree of blackness in the radiograph |
| The x-ray tube focusing cup has a ____________ charge. | negative |
| The amount of electrons generated in the x-ray tube determines the ____________. | quantity and mA |
| The rotating anode is generally made of an alloy material with a high melting point. The following element(s) represent the most efficient material(s) for x-ray production: | tungsten and rhenium-tungsten |
| The most important component of a radiographic unit with regard to image production is the x-ray tube. | True |
| The positive terminal of an x-ray tube is the | anode |
| A rotating anode: 1.dissipates heat 2.has a larger target than a fixed anode 3.is driven by a motor | 1, 2, and 3 |
| X-rays are produced in the: 1.focal spot 2.anode 3.target | 1, 2, and 3 |
| The target metal used in x-ray tubes should have the following two properties | high atomic number, high melting point |
| The effective focal spot: 1.is smaller than the actual focal spot 2.is on the anode 3.determines the resolution | 1, 2, and 3 |
| The cloud of liberated electrons that remains in the vicinity of the hot filament is called: | space charge |
| Heat units may be determined with the following formula: | kVp × s × mA |
| The process of boiling off of electrons from a hot, metallic filament is called: | thermionic emission |
| The tube housing: 1.helps contain scattered x-rays 2.is designed to aid in heat dissipation 3.contains the glass envelope | 1, 2, and 3 |
| The cathode beam of an x-ray tube is the: | focused electron beam within the tube |
| The negative terminal of an x-ray tube is the | cathode |
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