What is designed to provide for aircraft main engine start (MES) and to supply onboard environmental control systems (ECS) with compressed air?

MSU-200 NAV air start unit (MSU)

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NAVEDTRA 14353A

"H" MANUAL

Question	Answer
Three main parts make up the construction of the standard screwdriver: the handle, the shank, and the what?	End (Blade)
For a proper fit, the screwdriver blade should fill at least what percent of the slot?	75%
For a proper fit, the blade of a Phillips screwdriver should fill what percent of the cavity?	100%
What type of pliers are manufactured with straight serrated jaws for gripping objects?	Combination joint
What type of pliers are used only for cutting small material such as wire or cotter pins?	Diagonal
What wrenches are often referred to as "knuckle busters"?	Crescent adjustable
What type of wrenches are primarily used for rotating round stock and/or various pipes and piping?	Adjustable pipe
What is the most common adjustable pipe wrench?	Stillson wrench
What hammer used for working metals such as chiseling rivets and shearing metal is most widely used by the ABH?	Ball peen
What is a portable metal cutting tool that can be used for cutting sheet metal, bolts, and pipe?	Hacksaw
What are designed for prying boards from crates, for pulling spikes or heavy nails, and as a lever for moving heavy objects short distances?	Wrecking bars
Bolt cutters are made in lengths of 18 to how many inches?	36
When a definite force must be applied to a nut or bolt head, what must be used?	Torque wrench
The three most commonly used torque wrenches are the micrometer setting, dial indicating, and the what?	Deflecting beam
What is a versatile piece of equipment that is probably used more than any other portable electric tool?	Portable electric drill
What is one of the most desirable tools for scaling rust, removing paint, and smoothing flight decks prior to laying nonskid materials?	Power sander
The average size disc sander used in the Navy is 7 or how many inches?	9
The rotary impact scaler is a scaling and chipping tool, that is sometimes called a what?	Jitterbug
When properly used, a micrometer caliper gives measurements accurate to within what?	0.001 of an inch
Of all measuring tools, what is the simplest and most common?	Steel rule
A metal or wood folding rule may be used for measuring purposes. These folding rules are usually 2 to how many feet long?	6
Steel tapes are made from 6 to how many feet in length?	300
What is an apparatus for measuring force or energy?	Dynamometer
Portable electric tools producing hazardous noise levels in excess of the limits set forth in what instruction (current series) must have a warning tag?	OPNAVINST 5100.23
Extension cords should be no longer than 25 feet in length (except for repair locker and cv/cvn flight deck cords, which are how many feet long)?	100
What is used to secure tag lines during aircraft-hoisting operations and for securing components of the MK-1 life preserver?	Bowline knot
Blocks are constructed for use with fiber line and what else?	Wire rope
All line used in rigging should be good grade manila or the equivalent, and all wire should be what material or the equivalent?	Plow steel
What is an assembly of blocks and ropes used to gain a mechanical advantage in lifting or pulling?	Tackle
What term means a rope, either manila or wire, reeved through a pair of blocks to form a tackle?	Fall
What part of a tackle is the term applied to the relationship between the load being lifted and the power required to lift that load?	Mechanical advantage
What is a synthetic fiber and differs from natural fiber lines in that it will stretch under load and yet recover to its normal size when tension is removed?	Nylon
Line 1 3/4 inches or larger in circumference is designated to size by its circumference in inches. Line is manufactured in sizes up to how many-inch hawsers?	16
What is any line larger than a 5 inch line, which is used for towing or mooring?	Hawser
As a general rule, a how many inch line is about the largest line issued by the Navy for general shipboard use?	10
Line less than how many inches in circumference is referred to generally as small stuff?	1 3/4
Certain small stuff used for special purposes is designated by name, with no reference to size. What is the most common stuff of this type?	Marline
What is small stuff laid up right-handed by machine, like regular line, but not much larger than fishing line?	Seizing stuff
For wires in cranes, cargo gear, towing gear, and so forth, the Navy specifies a minimum tensile strength of how many pounds per square inch (psi)?	220,000
A place for everything and everything in its place. "This is the definition often given for what word?	Shipshape
what is the primary means of moving most aircraft that are on the ground or deck and with engines not running?	Tow tractor
The maximum aircraft weight that a tractor can safely handle is how many times the drawbar pull?	10
What is the towing capacity of the A/S32A-30A Aircraft Tow Tractor?	40,000 lbs
What vehicle is formally known as a towing tractor but is commonly referred to as a spotting dolly?	A/S32A-32 Towing Tractor
The A/S32A-32 towing tractor maximum speed when carrying a load is 2 miles per hour; or unloaded at how many miles per hour?	5
What is the maximum lifting capacity of the A/S32A-32 Tow tractor?	16,000 lbs
The A/S32A-31 A has a brake warning light that will illuminate when the pressure in the accumulator falls below what psi?	1350
What is the drawbar pull of the A/S32A-31 A Aircraft Tow Tractor?	8,500 lbs
What is designed to provide for aircraft main engine start (MES) and to supply onboard environmental control systems (ECS) with compressed air?	MSU-200 NAV air start unit (MSU)
The A/S32A-45 mid-range tow tractor is a 4-cylinder, diesel-powered, 3-speed automatic transmission, liquid-cooled, rear-wheel-drive tractor designed for towing aircraft weighing up to how many pounds?	80,000
The lower profile version of the A/S32A-37 tow tractor or "Buddha," is currently used to move large Navy, Marine Corps, and Air Force aircraft weighing between 80,000 and how many pounds?	350,000
The process of exercising safety precautions before engaging in a job is know as what?	Operational Risk Management (ORM)
When an MSU is operating under load conditions, the danger zone is normally considered to be a how many-foot semicircle from its exhaust to 90 degrees on either side?	10
The NWC-4 chock is adjustable to fit main landing gear wheels up to approximately how many inches in diameter?	45
You can adjust the length of the TD-1B from 1 foot 6 inches to what?	9 feet 10 inches
The TD-1B weighs about 12 pounds and has a safe working load of how many pounds?	10,000
ALBARs are presently designed in how many lengths?	Four
The 15 ALBAR is the stand towbar for moving most land-based and shipboard based aircraft weighing up to how many pounds?	90,000
Operation of the aircraft elevators is a joint responsibility of the V-1 (flight deck), V-3 (hanger deck), and what else?	A division (machinery room)
Deck edge elevator doors are designed to open or close in how many seconds?	60
Hanger divisional doors are designed to open or close in how many seconds?	20
Abrasive type nonskid coating uses a coarse aggregate of silicon carbide, furnace slag, or what else to provide the nonskid texture?	Aluminum oxide
Nonskid materials in the federal supply system have a shelf life of how long?	1-year
Nonskid deck coatings are critical materials for aircraft safety and must meet the requirements set in what?	MIL-PRF-24667
What cleaning encompasses direct-pressure blast (open blast), and closed loop, vacuum-blast cleaning?	Abrasive blast
High pressure (HP) water-jetting operates at pressures between 10,000 to 30,000psi and ultra-high pressure (UHP) operates at pressures about what psi?	30,000
Primer should be stored between 70F and 80F for how many hours prior to mixing?	24
The cure time of primer will generally range between 6 and how many hours depending on the weather?	12
After primer has cured, the nonskid should normally be applied within how many hours for optimum adhesion?	36
The targeted surface profile of properly cured nonskid should be between 1/32" (minimum) to what (maximum)?	1/16"
Do not apply nonskid within approximately 5"of the deck edge or deck edge coaming or within how many inches of pad-eye deck fitting and deck protrusions?	2"
Nonskid usually cures sufficiently for foot traffic how many hours after application?	24
Nonskid can normally be exposed to vehicular traffic after a minimum of how many hours following application?	96
Nonskid should normally be fully cured and acceptable for flight operations after how many days following application?	7
On board aircraft carriers (CVN) and amphibious aviation ships (LHA/LHD/ACS), what division is responsible for the general upkeep of the flight deck?	V-1
Bulkhead VLA markings are placed how many feet up from the deck to direct personnel to Battle Dressing Stations (BDS) first aid boxes, eye wash stations, fire stations, aircraft power outlets, as well as a host of other items?	14'
Launch officers (yellow shirt with a green cranial from what division) are responsible for the safe launching of aircraft and proper catapult launch procedures?	V-2
The TSPO (what color shirt and cranial) is responsible for the proper hookup of the aircraft to the catapult upon launching?	Green
What signal used for refueling operations at sea and ashore by designated personnel means to top off?	Pat the top of your head
What signal used for refueling operations at sea and ashore by designated personnel means to cut fuel?	Finger point at throat, moving hand sideways
To give visual direction to pilots and other deck personnel during night operations, the aircraft director will use two signal wands with what colored filters?	Amber
What color jersey do photographers wear?	Green
What color jersey do safety personnel wear?	White
Movement of no-brake aircraft must be with the approval of who?	ACHO (Handler)
Elevators and stanchions should NOT be operated in what mode?	Automatic
The warning horn must be sounded three times before elevator movement and continuously throughout the elevator cycle. On low speed operations, warning horns will sound a 5-10 second blast every how many seconds?	20-30
Riders shall not be permitted on the elevators at night except in cases of emergency and authorized by whom?	CO
Records of each aircraft handling mishap shall be kept by the ACHO for how long?	1 year
Who taxies the aircraft to the mouth of the approach ramp?	Catapult spotter
Taxi speeds into the nose gear launch assembly must not exceed how many knots?	4
All ICCS operations follow the procedures outlined in what?	CVN NATOPS ( 80T-120 )
How many minutes before each scheduled recovery, or immediately upon the word being passed to prepare to recover aircraft, all stations shall be manned expeditiously?	30
Two types of aircraft spotting in the hangar bay are operational spotting and what?	Maintenance spotting
In naval aviation, how many people are required to keep each aircraft in a flyable condition?	10
When aircraft are being secured, the number of tie downs required is directed by who?	ACHO
Tie down requirements are divided into how many categories?	4
Intermediate tie down installation is the responsibility of who?	PC
Chocks shall be secured to wheels with how many thread (or greater) manila line to prevent them from working free?	21
Mobile cranes are prescribed by the flight deck boatswain and are secured with a minimum of how many tie downs?	13
The aircraft integrity watch is responsible to the ACHO while out to sea, and who when in port or at anchor?	OOD
Who shall be PQS qualified and shall be responsible for the supervision of the aircraft integrity watch team?	IWPO (Integrity Watch Petty Officer)
Personnel from what division shall stand integrity watch messenger?	V-1
Conflag watches will make their reports to one designated conflag station, and that station will report the security condition of the hangar bay to the IWPO how many minutes before the hour?	15
Who is responsible to the air officer for the overall training of air department personnel with regard to the integrity watch duties?	ACHO
The area where a particular group of aircraft is spotted is referred to as the what?	Line
Multiengine aircraft are tied down at how many points?	6
Vehicles operated in the vicinity of aircraft (50 ft.) must limit their speed to 5 mph. Elsewhere, the speed limit on runways, taxiways, parking ramps, work areas, and beaching areas is how many mph?	10
All vehicles entering or crossing runways must get radio or visual clearance from the control tower. the procedure generally used is to stop the vehicle how many feet from the landing area and obtain clearance?	100
What (series) establishes procedural guidance and standards for operation of DON shore facilities and vessels providing air terminal services?	OPNAVINST 4660.3
What is a facility on an airfield that functions as an air transportation hub?	Air Terminal
What should be checked whenever dangerous cargo is to be airlifted?	NAVSUP Pub 505
The LPD is capable of launching or landing how many helicopters at the same time?	2
On AV-8 aircraft, the brake accumulator must be pressurized to a minimum of what psi using the hand pump before pushing or towing the aircraft?	2,000
When the flight deck is slick with moisture, hand pushing of the AV-8 should not be attempted if the ships pitch exceeds 5 or the roll exceeds what?	10
Maximum continuous APP run time is how many minutes in any 1 1/2 hour period?	30
On a pitching and rolling deck, the nose of skid equipped helicopters may pitch up and cause the tail stinger to contact the deck. What aircraft are particularly susceptible to this problem?	AH-1
Use of the LHA port-side elevator for V-22 transit will require the aircraft to be defueled to how many pounds maximum?	40,000
Engaging or disengaging the V-22 with the SD-2 spotting dolly, even with the V-22 nose hiked, at angles of what and higher during moderate and heavy weather conditions may result in nose landing gear door damage due to contact with the spotting dolly?	60 degrees
Who on the ship is responsible at all times for the safety of embarked aircraft and personnel?	CO
What is a principal cause of engine failure	FOD
Who shall be assigned as FOD prevention officer?	ACHO
Upon leaving port, how many FOD walk downs shall be completed prior to the first aircraft launch?	2
The aviation fuels maintenance officer shall provide the FOD team with how many fuel spill carts?	2
What is responsible for cleanup of all POL and liquid FOD from aircraft/aircraft maintenance associated support equipment utilized and fuel spills?	ACE
Who is responsible for the safe and expeditious launch and recovery of AV-8B aircraft aboard ship?	Landing signal officer (LSO)
Potential downwash hazard may extend as much as how many feet from a CH-53E or MH-53E?	300 feet
Under zero wind conditions, maximum average velocities for H-53E aircraft occur at 49 feet from the roar center (1.25 times rotor radius) and can vary from 50 to how many knots, depending on the aircraft gross weight?	95
The static discharge device (grounding wand) and insulated gloves, with a maximum of how many volts protection, shall be used when working with the H-53E?	20,000
Because H-60 rotor arc can dip as low as how many feet above the flight deck, all personnel shall enter and exit the rotor arc at the 3 or 9 o'clock position?	4 feet
All pre-flights shall be completed how many minutes prior to launch time?	30 minutes
The jet efflux produced during vertical operations will exceed 200 degrees F (93 degrees C) at a distance of how many feet from the center of the landing spot when the AV-8 is below 10 feet?	25
The maximum safe relative wind conditions for folding or unfolding the propeller rotor blades and wing stow/unstow is how many knots from any quadrant?	45
What is always the preferred area to load/download aircraft?	Flight Deck
Hot refueling on aircraft that require what is not authorized?	Gravity refueling
All blade spreads shall be done under the supervision of who?	LSE director
PRIFLY shall ensure relative winds are within aircraft limitations prior to blade spread. The maximum non-turbulent winds relative to the helicopter shall be less than how many knots from any quadrant?	45
Personnel shall not pass under tail booms or tail rotors of turning aircraft with the exception of loading/unloading evolutions on what?	H-53s
Who shall ensure the Amphibious Assault Crash Crane (AACC) and firefighting equipment is manned and ready?	FDO
The LSE aboard an LHA, LHD, LPD, or ship is normally stationed on a how many foot bearing to the port or starboard side of the helicopter?	45
Minimum illumination for NVD training operations is how many lux as determined by the Navy/Marine Corps-approved light level planning calendar computer program?	0.0022
Each NVD LSE will attend 1 hour of classroom instruction or practical training on NVDs after every how many days of non-NVD operations?	90
Taxiing shall be under the control of the plane director or whom?	Launching officer
The V-22 may taxi with other aircraft launching and recovering to spots aft of the aircraft taxiing. The taxiing aircraft shall not be less than one spot (minimum how many foot separation nose to nose) ahead of any aircraft launching or recovering?	105
By virtue of having their prop rotors positioned laterally rather than fore and aft, tilt rotors can be spotted or stacked with an interval of how many feet between nosecone and the trailing edge of the empennage?	15
What permits the tail rotor to launch at higher weights and/or with higher pressure altitudes and temperatures than would otherwise be possible with a VTO?	STO
Damage to the main rotor and tail rotor blades of the CH-53E may occur from blade-to-blade or blade-to-fuselage contact when the aircraft is parked in the forward slash/bone position with winds over the deck in excess of how many knots?	45
Presently configured AV-8 aircraft have how many tie down points?	4
Permanent tie down requires how many tie down chains for the AV-8?	10
The integrity watch officer/non-commissioned officer (NCO) may be filled by qualified personnel designated by the embarked squadron CO or detachment officer in charge in what pay grade?	E-5 and above
A relative wind of 330 degrees to 030 degrees and a steady velocity of 15 to how many knots are considered optimum for VERTREP pick up and delivery?	30
Who is a member of ship's company who is the primary point of contact for coordinating routine aviation matters, including training/qualifications of flight quarter personnel and maintenance and upkeep of the aviation facility and equipment?	Aviation coordinator
Unless otherwise specified in the individual aircraft NATOPS flight manual, the following is considered minimum for movement of an aircraft on the flight deck or hangar deck: a qualified director, two chockmen/tiedown men, and how many safety observers?	2
Who is responsible to the LSO for the safe movement of the helicopter on the flight deck?	Flight deck director
Cloverleaf deck tie down fittings require what size shackles and bulb hooks to correctly attach TD-1A tie down chains to the deck?	5/8 inch
Aircraft recovering aboard an air capable ship with fuel other then what, shall notify the commanding officer prior to recovery?	JP-5
Aboard DDG-79 class ships, the ship wake extends above the flight deck level at speeds greater then how many knots?	25
The most common method of controlling or extinguishing a fire is to eliminate one or more of the sides of the tetrahedron. this can be accomplished by smothering, cooling, or what else?	Starving
What class of fires (burning wood and wood products, cloth, textiles and fibrous materials, paper and paper products) are extinguished with water in a straight or fog pattern?	Class A
Class B fires (petroleum-based products: gasoline, jet fuels, oil, and other flammable/combustible liquids) are extinguished with AFFF, halon 1211, PKP, and what else?	CO2
What class of fire involves energized electrical equipment?	Class C
Attack Class C fires with application of non-conductive agents (CO2, Halon 1211, PKP) or attack with application of fresh or salt water in fog patterns maintaining nozzle at least how many feet from the energized object?	4
Class D fires (combustible materials such as what) are extinguished with large quantities of water applied in a narrow angle fog?	Magnesium and Titanium
The temperature produced by the burning of vaporized aircraft fuel and air is intense (approx. how many degrees F)?	1,500 degrees F
What along with jet fuels (JPs) constitute the principal problems in aircraft firefighting?	AVGAS
The flashpoint (by closed cup method at sea level) of AVGAS is -50 degrees F (-46 C). The rate of flame spread has been calculated to be between 700 and how many feet per minute?	800
What jet fuel is a blend of gasoline and kerosene and has a flashpoint of -10 F?	JP-4
JP-5 fuel is a kerosene grade with a flashpoint of 140 F (60 C). The rate of flame spread has been calculated to be approx. how many feet per minute?	100
The lowest flashpoint considered safe for use aboard naval vessels is what?	140 degrees F
As little as a what what percent mixture of JP-4 in JP-5 will reduce the flashpoint by 40 degrees F?	2.5 percent
JP-8 is a kerosene grade with a flashpoint of what?	100 F
What is a type of fuel whose energy is derived from biological carbon fixation (fermentation of carbohydrates)?	Biofuel
Fuel loads can vary from 30 gallons in small aircraft to approx. how many gallons in a large jet aircraft?	50,000
What is a flexible polyether and polyester polyurethane foam installed in certain aircraft fuel cells to provide explosive protection from projectile penetration in a hostile environment?	ESF
Hydrazine has a flashpoint of what?	126 F
If liquid hydrazine is splashed in the eyes or on the skin, flood with water for a minimum of how many minutes and seek medical care?	15
Emergency limits for exposure to hydrazine vapors are in concentration of 30 parts per million (ppm) for 10 minutes, 20 ppm for 30 minutes, and 10 ppm for 60 minutes. Irreversible health effects occur at how many ppm for 30 minutes?	80
Hydrazine will become hypergolic with exposure to oxidizers, its fires can best be handled by diluting with large amounts of what?	Water
Liquid oxygen is a light blue liquid that flows like water and is extremely cold. It boils into gaseous oxygen at -297 degrees F (-183 C) and has an expansion rate of approx. what?	860 to 1
An effective method of stopping an oxygen leak (when oxygen is not already mixed with flammable or combustible materials) is to spray the leak with what?	Water fog
Anti-icing fluids are usually a mixture of about 85% alcohol and 15 % what?	Glycerin
Class A combustibles in aircraft fires are best extinguished with what?	AFFF
Grade JP-4 jet fuel is a blend of gasoline and kerosene and has a flashpoint beginning as low as what?	10 degrees F
What shall not be directed into a battery compartment to effect cooling or displace explosive gasses?	CO2
Dry chemical carbon dioxide and Class D extinguishers, including LITH-X, have been found to be generally ineffective and are not recommended for what type of fires?	Lithium battery
What can be used to assess whether a disconnected battery temperature is rising over time?	Thermal Imaging Camera (TIC)
Weapons are cooled for a minimum of how many minutes or until deemed safe by EOD personnel?	15 minutes
In the past, the Navy has used hypergolic mixtures for propulsion in rocket motors and ballistic missiles; Now the only mixture currently in use by the Navy is used to propel what?	AQM-37 Target Drone
What is a stable liquid mono-propellant used in the propulsion of the MK 46 torpedo?	Otto fuel II
The nitrate esters in the otto fuel are known for their acute effects, including nasal turgidity, blood pressure changes, headaches, and what else?	Dyspnea
The most efficient method of extinguishing an otto fuel II fire is to cool the propellant below what temperature?	250 degrees F
Otto fuel concentrations of less than 1.0 ppm, but greater then how many ppm, produce a complete nasal blockage in some individuals?	0.4
The MK 50 torpedo's internal propulsion system is fueled by how many pounds of lithium?	16
The application of water or AFFF on a lithium fire results in a decomposition of water into what?	Hydrogen and oxygen
Liberated hydrogen may violently ignite if confined and allowed to reach its lower explosive limit. This may produce a pressure wave of burning lithium that can be scattered a distance of approx. how many feet?	50
Polyethylene packaging material (bubble packs) present a hazard in that they cannot be extinguished by water only. what must be used on these materials to preclude a continued reflash?	AFFF
Composite materials that are reinforced with what kind of fibers provide superior stiffness, high strength to weight ratio, and ease of fabrication?	Carbon/graphite
Approx. what temperature will cause epoxy binder to ignite or decompose?	752 Degrees F
AM-241 emits potentially hazardous amounts of alpha and gamma radiation. Alpha emittance is approx. 5 MeV. Gamma emittance is approx. what?	60 KeV
What is a light, gray-white, nonradioactive, hard, and brittle metal that resembles magnesium and may be found on some aircraft?	Beryllium
3% and ___% AFFF concentrate is approved for naval use?	6%
Within the CVN, LHD, and LHA damage control orginization are how many repair teams in the air department?	3
Who is responsible for aircraft firefighting, salvage, jettison, and personnel rescue?	Air Boss
AFFF hoses shall be deployed to the scene using maximum personnel participation. When in place, a hose team shall consist of one AFFF hose with a minimum of how many people?	5
In each hangar bay, PFFPEs shall be available for a minimum of how many SCBA-equipped hot suit men?	2
The air cylinder of an SCBA is usually of a 30 minute, 45 minute, or how many minute rated duration?	60
Vari nozzles are used on all AFFF and saltwater hose lines. Flow rates are how many gpm for all 2 1/2 inch hose lines?	250
Procurements of the coat, trousers, helmet (also including the attached shroud), footwear , and proximity gloves specified as elements of the PFFPE shall meet the requirements of what?	NFPA 1971
PFFPE shall be maintained in accordance with what?	NFPA 1851
What provides firefighters and rescue personnel with the ability to detect surface temperatures on areas exposed to fire?	TIC
Personnel assigned to Crash and Salvage shall attend (as a team) the aircraft firefighting shipboard team training (AFSTT) course C-780-2012A once during an 18 month cycle or whenever the team experiences a greater than what percent turnover?	40%
1 1/2 inch AFFF hose reels and variable pattern nozzles are specifically designed and installed for rapid deployment by how many people?	1
Approx how many knots relative wind speed provides optimum distribution of AFFF from the flight deck extinguishing system?	15
Who shall supervise the activation of appropriate zones of the hangar sprinkling system for any multi aircraft fire or when a spill fire is judged to be beyond the capability of the initial hose team?	Hangar Deck Officer (HDO)
What shall be utilized as the initial agent of choice for the control and extinguishment of aircraft engine wet start/residual fires because of its clean agent qualities?	Halon 1211
Jettison of aircraft may only be authorized by who?	CO
AFFF concentrate is injected into the salt water wash down system at how many gpm?	60
A minimum of what percent of the installed fire pump capacity shall be available in each of the YOKE fire main groups to provide adequate AFFF coverage for flight quarters?	75%
What is the flight deck repair team called?	Crash and Salvage
During non flight operations while aircraft are embarked, crash and salvage crew shall be manned with at least 1 P-25 driver and how many rescue personnel?	2
All personnel assigned duties incidental to flight operations shall attend a formal aviation firefighting school as required by what (series)?	OPNAVINST 3541.1
Who shall have the overall responsibility for the firefighting effort on the flight deck?	Air Officer
Balance Pressure Proportioners mix AFFF concentrate with salt water at a normal percent of what over a wide range of flows?	6%
What is defined as all ships other than CVNs, LHAs, and LHDs, which have an aircraft operating capability?	Air Capable Ships (ACS)
On an LPD, who has the overall responsibility for aircraft firefighting, salvage, jettison, and personnel rescue operations occurring on the flight and hangar deck?	Air Officer
In air capable ships other than the LPD, as directed by the engineering officer, whom is responsible for accomplishing the training required to establish and maintain proficiency in the fundamentals of aircraft firefighting and rescue operations?	DCA
What serves to fight aircraft fires on the flight deck, affect the rescue of personnel as required, and perform salvage or jettison procedures?	Crash Team
What shall be worn by all personnel required to wear proxy suits?	SCBA
Ships with aluminum flight decks must have a fully operational flush deck sprinkler system in accordance with what?	NAVAIR 00-80R-14
Who supports the scene leader, anticipating personnel and equipment requirements?	Background assistance leader
The hose team leader is positioned directly behind who?	Nozzlemen
Hose outlets shall be of quantity and location to permit reaching all areas, on weather decks and below from at least how many outlets?	2
Nozzles on 1 1/2 inch and 1 3/4 inch saltwater lines and those used with AFFF inline eductors are how many gpm models?	95
Hose downstream of the educator is typically limited to how many feet on the same deck or one deck above the saltwater outlet?	150
How often shall the Crash tool roll kit be inspected?	Daily
A minimum of 2 aircraft fire drills per month shall be conducted monthly for ships certified as Class 1, 2, or 3. All other class ships shall conduct drills at what interval?	Monthly
What communication line do you use when manning an AFFF station?	X50J
A fire guard shall be posted for all engine starts. He shall have a halon 1211 handheld extinguisher or a CO2 extinguisher with the appropriate extension wand of what length?	5 or 7 foot
Weapons cooling shall be conducted for a minimum of how many minutes or until EOD/weapons personnel reports it safe?	15
A minimum of what percent of the installed fire pump capacity shall be available in each of the YOKE fire main segregations to provide adequate AFFF coverage for flight quarters?	75%
What operations are among the most difficult and demanding elements of thee crash crewman's duties?	Aircraft salvage
What addresses the special equipment and procedures required for safely approaching and entering the aircraft to release and extract aircrew and passengers?	Aircraft CCID
Aircraft CCIDs do not contain what procedures?	Ejection seat safing
All escape windows and emergency escape hatches in the MV-22 aircraft are lined with what type of pyrotechnic?	Thin-Line Explosive (TLX)
Three types of canopies normally used on naval aircraft are clamshell, hinge, and what?	Sliding
What is the best tool for cutting acrylic plastic in the tool roll kit?	Contour blade hand axe
Acrylic plastic may be more easily shattered if first sprayed with what, then struck with a crash axe?	CO2
On most U.S. Air Force aircraft, the seat firing mechanism is located on what?	The armrest
What ejection seat has a naval egress system (NES-12) ballistic parachute?	S-3
What intercom system is used on the respirator assembly of the A/P22P-9 (V) protective assembly?	A/P375-1
The respirator assembly or the CBR contains over how many components?	21
Decontamination solution (DS) number 2 ignites spontaneously on contact with super tropical bleach (STB) and what else?	Calcium Hypochlorite (HTH)
Spraying DS2 onto heated surfaces above what temperature will cause the DS2 to ignite?	168 degrees F
The decontamination apparatus, portable DS2 1 1/2 quart ABC-MIL, uses a combustable liquid with a flashpoint of what?	160 degrees F
Specific instructions for each aircraft on the release of personnel from seat restraint devices are contained in what?	NAVAIR 00-80R-14-1
When the crew member is submerged in saltwater, what will automatically release the parachute risers from the Koch fittings?	SEAWARS
What is a battery operated, seawater activated electro-explosive device that automatically releases the parachute risers from the crew backpack assembly harness upon immersion in seawater?	UWARS
Particles from a blown canopy may exceed 3 square inches and cover a blast area of approx. how many feet?	25
During flight of the F-18 aircraft, a high voltage of how many volts of static electrical charge may build up and be stored in the windshield and canopy?	100,000 volts
On UH-1 series aircraft the main rotor blades may flap as low as how many feet from the deck when the main rotor is running or if not secured during high winds?	4 feet
All aircraft salvage handling equipment shall be maintained and inspected in accordance with what?	NAVAIR 19-100-6
What is defined as a point of a load that acts downward because of gravitational force and passes through either the center of gravity of the object being lifted or the location where the equivalent resultant load acts?	Load center
The CVCC has a main hoist lifting speed of 0-60 feet per minute (unloaded) and 0 to how many feet (maximum load)?	20
All NAVAIR crane operators must complete how many hours of OJT under a qualified crane operator?	10
The AACC has a minimum lift capacity of 50,000 pounds at a clear outreach of 20 feet, and a hook lifting height of how many feet minimum?	25
The AACC has a maximum lifting capacity of 70,000 pounds at a clear outreach of 13.7 feet, with a hook lifting height of how many feet?	33
The maximum gross vehicle unloaded operating weight of the AACC is how many pounds?	90,000
Breaking strength of new E-28 tape is 150,000 pounds. Exposure to weather causes an estimated reduction in strength of what percent?	20
The crash handling tie down is a 10,000 pound capacity webbing material tie down. tie downs have a ratchet type tightening system with end fittings and are adjustable from 10 to how many feet?	30
Each aircraft dolly is capable of handling a load of how many pounds?	32,000
What type of line, made from fibers of the abaca plant, is the most widely used natural fiber line in the navy?	Manilla
Shackles are made from forged steel. Welding to forged steel can reduce the strength of the shackles by what percent?	30%
When using the micrometer setting torque wrench, do not use the wrench for torque values less than what percent of its rated capacity?	20%
At how many knots is it recommended to NOT hoist an aircraft unless required by operational necessity?	15
Hoisting aircraft in winds above how many knots is prohibited unless specifically ordered by the CO?	25
What are the Primary aircraft operating from amphibious aviation ships?	Helicopters
The preferred method to salvage a helicopter is to hoist the entire helicopter using what?	Manufacturer's sling
What is the approved global name for all U.S. Navy and Marine Corps air station (MCAS) fire protection functions at aviation shore activities?	ARFF
At category 2, and 3 Navy main airfields; in the event of a structural fire or other significant simultaneous emergency, the minimum ARFF response capability for continued flight operations shall be 2 ARFF vehicles and how many firefighters?	3
At category 4, 5, and 6 main Navy airfields; in the event of a structural fire or other significant simultaneous emergency, the minimum ARFF response capability for continued flight operations shall be 3 ARFF vehicles and how many firefighters?	6
In emergency cases where the 7230 vehicles are placed out of service for maintenance/repair, the minimum acceptable ARFF vehicle response at category 4 activities shall be how many P-19 vehicles?	5
If 7230 vehicles are out of service for a period of more than how many hours, the CO should consider reducing flight operations for category 4 aircraft?	96
Minimum on duty requirement for major aircraft firefighting and rescue vehicles necessary to meet the minimum response for U.S. Navy activities (main airfields) is how many personnel?	3
Minimum staffing for protecting category 1 airfield are 2 personnel. Marine Corps activity minimum on duty requirement is how many personnel?	4
The purpose of the what is to provide immediate response to observed, unanticipated emergencies and to control such fires until the standby alert can effect rescue and fire extinguishment?	IRA
The minimum required staffing for all types of major aircraft fire fighting vehicles is how many firefighters?	2
No one person shall perform IRA duty for more than a total of how many hours in any one 24 hour period?	8
A vehicle mounted TAU (7102-2/FSS) with a crew of two persons may be utilized where aircraft gross takeoff weight is how many pounds or less?	14,000
The point of receipt of the emergency alarm at the public safety answering point to the point where sufficient information is known to the dispatcher and applicable units are notified of the emergency is known as what?	Dispatch time
The time beginning when units are notified of the emergency to the beginning point of travel time is known as what?	Turnout time
The time that begins when units are en route to the emergency and ends when units arrive at the scene is defined as what?	Travel time
What is a VTOL facility that provides a designated landing area for routine use, but does not provide basing facilities such as fueling or maintenance?	Helistop
All personnel assigned to Navy and Marine Corps shore based fire departments shall be certified by the DOD firefighter certification system in accordance with what?	DODI 6055.06-M
Halon 1211 has been identified as an ozone depleting substance and has not been produced since what date?	January 1st 1994
Inspection of Navy aircraft firefighting operations shall be in accordance with what (series)?	OPNAVINST 11320.23
What are used to extinguish fires in areas not covered by the turret?	Handlines
All aviation ships certified to operate with V-22 aircraft are required to procure and utilize wand extensions for how many pound CO2 hand held extinguishers?	15 pound
What along with CO2 or other clean agent are the primary agent for internal engine fires and are best applied by swirling the extinguisher nozzle to fill the entire engine space with gaseous agent?	Halon 1211
How many minutes may it take after the aircraft has come to a complete stop for the temperatures of the wheels or brakes to reach peak temperatures in a wheel fire/hot brakes emergency?	15-20
When water fog is used on a wheel assembly fire, an intermittent application of short bursts (5-10 seconds) every how many seconds should be used?	30
In aircraft mishaps where carbon/graphite or boron/tungsten fibers are suspected, helicopters should never be used to control the fire or allowed to fly or hover over the site less than 500 feet above ground level, or within how many feet horizontally?	1,000
The primary flight line extinguishers are wheeled units that consist of a minimum of 50 pounds of PKP (with hand held CO2); or 150 pounds of Halon 1211 or other clean agent; or how many gallons of AFFF (with hand held CO2)?	30
Nitrogen cylinders provided for inert-gas storage and utilized as an agent expellant shall be hydrostatically tested every how many years?	5
Do not use Halon 1211 on what type of fires?	Class D
Tests indicate that voltages above how many kilovolts can be developed on insulated metal objects from a 1-2 second application of CO2 from an extinguisher?	15
PKP dry chemical extinguishers are intended primarily for use on what type of fires?	Class B
How many inches shall the PFFPE coat and trousers overlap so there is no gaping of the total thermal and radiant heat protection?	2
PFFPE shall be maintained in accordance with what?	NFPA 1851
Shore based fire departments/ARFF units should maintain a backup ready stock of PFFPE of approx. what percent of total unit requirements and must establish a rapid procurement procedure?	10
Portable drills purchased for this use must be how many volt or higher rating?	18
The P-19 has a water capacity of 1,000 gallons and the foam tank holds how many gallons?	130
How many Halon 1211 (20 lb) portable fire extinguishers are mounted on the right side of the P-25?	3
A mobile water supply vehicle with at least how many gallon water capacity shall be provided at all category 2-4 USMC operated airfields (including deployed/expeditionary)?	3,000 gallons
E-28 shore based arresting gear can accommodate a maximum aircraft weight of how many pounds?	78,000
What indicate to approaching aircraft the location of the arresting gear on the runway?	Arrest signs
AV-8A and TAV-8A aircraft are cleared to taxi over a supported arresting gear wire up to a maximum speed of how many knots?	5
A functional inspection of the arresting gear equipment must be performed every how many days?	30
What is a noticeable reduction of the cable diameter at a particular area, usually at or adjacent to one of the terminals, caused by an excessively high speed engagement?	necking DOWN
What is the maximum service life of deck pendants?	24 months
The hydraulic fluid in the arrester engine has a service life of how many months?	24
What is an instrument for measuring force of energy?	Dynamometer
When a hydrostatic test is performed on arresting gear engines, a dynamometer is connected between the tape connector and a tractor capable of pulling how many pounds?	8,000

Created by: depalma

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