click below
click below
Normal Size Small Size show me how
core test
pestiicide
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| control or repel pest birds | Avicides |
| What controls bacteria. | Bactericides |
| Desiccants | promote drying or loss of moisture from plant tissues and insects. |
| Growth regulators | alter the growth or development of a plant or animal. |
| Using barriers to prevent pests from getting into an area is an example of which type of pest management method? A. Biological. B. Mechanical. C. Genetic. | Mechanical |
| Making use of plant varieties that are naturally resistant to insect feeding is an example of which type of pest management method? A. Biological. B. Genetic. C. Regulatory. | Genetic |
| Which statement about biological control methods is true? A. Modifying the environment to enhance natural enemies is recommended in biological control. B. Biological control involves importing exotic pests to control natural enemies. C. Using sever | A. Modifying the environment to enhance natural enemies is recommended in biological control. |
| Sealing cracks and crevices and small openings in buildings is an example of which type of pest management method? A. Physical. B. Genetic. C. Biological. | A. Physical. |
| Which statement about cultural control practices is true? A. They reduce pest establishment, reproduction, and survival. B. They use naturally derived and/or synthesized chemicals to control pests. C. They involve the release of parasites and preda | A. They reduce pest establishment, reproduction, and survival |
| Monitoring pests at airports and ocean ports that pose a serious threat to public health or widespread damage to crops or animals is an example of which type of pest management method? A. Regulatory. B. Genetic. C. Biological. | A. Regulatory. |
| Which statement about pest management strategies in IPM is true? A. The goal is to prevent pests from reaching damaging levels. B. Eradication is never the goal of an IPM program. C. Nonchemical methods are short-term solutions to control pests. | A. The goal is to prevent pests from reaching damaging levels. |
| Which would be considered a preventive pest management strategy? A. Planting weed- and disease-free seed on an athletic field. B. Releasing natural enemies to help reduce pest populations. C. Removing a pest that is a public health concern from an | A. Planting weed- and disease-free seed on an athletic field. |
| Which statement about action thresholds is true? A. The IPM technician needs to implement control measures below the action threshold level. B. The action threshold for a pest may be set at a zero pest population density. C. In an urban landscape, acti | B. The action threshold for a pest may be set at a zero pest population density. |
| Which would increase the likelihood of pesticide resistance? A. An insect that has one generation per year. B. Continual use of pesticides from the same chemical class. C. Applying a pesticide that has little or no residual effect. | B. Continual use of pesticides from the same chemical class. |
| Which statement about FIFRA is false? A. It provides the overall framework for the federal pesticide regulatory program. B. It prevents states, tribes, and territories from creating pesticide use laws more stringent than federal regulations. C. It a | B. It prevents states, tribes, and territories from creating pesticide use laws more stringent than federal regulations. |
| Under federal law, which statement about trained and certified applicators is true? A. They may apply and/or supervise the application of restricted-use pesticides. B. They must receive supplemental training before mixing RUPs. C. They are exempt fr | A. They may apply and/or supervise the application of restricted-use pesticides. |
| What is the purpose of the pesticide registration and reregistration process? A. To control the flow of new pesticide products entering the marketplace. B. To provide evidence that the pesticide will not cause unreasonable risks to human health or t | B. To provide evidence that the pesticide will not cause unreasonable risks to human health or the environment. |
| Which statement about federal pesticide regulation is true? A. To ensure future compliance, civil penalties are typically assessed against first-time violators. B. Like pesticides, devices used to control pests must also be registered with EPA. C. | C. Approved pesticide labels have the force of law. |
| Which of the following criteria is used by EPA in establishing pesticide tolerances? A. Research data completely independent of the pesticide manufacturer’s. B. The anticipated volume of product to be sold in any given year. C. The toxicity of the p | The toxicity of the pesticide and its breakdown products. |
| Under federal law, which of the following actions is unlawful and subject to civil or criminal penalties? A. Allowing a person under the direct supervision of a certified applicator to apply RUPs. B. Detaching, altering, defacing, or destroying any | B. Detaching, altering, defacing, or destroying any part of a container or labeling. |
| Which federal regulation requires employee training in the use of pesticides? A. Worker Protection Standard. B. Pesticide Container and Containment Regulation. C. Food Quality Protection Act. | A. Worker Protection Standard. |
| Which group of pesticides is exempt from registration because it poses little or no risk to humans and the environment? A. Restricted use. B. Minimum risk. C. Special local need. | Minimum risk |
| The active ingredient in Tempo 20WP is listed as ß-Cyfluthrin, cyano(4-fluoro-3-phenoxyphenyl) methyl 3-(2,2-dichloroethenyl)-2,2 dimethylcyclopropanecarboxylate. What does the term “Cyfluthrin” represent? A. The brand name. B. The chemical name. C | C. The common name. |
| Which statement about pesticide label names and ingredients is true? A. Both the active ingredients and inert ingredients must be listed by chemical name. B. Various manufacturers use different trade names, even though the products may contain the | B. Informs the user what type of PPE to wear. |
| The routes of entry statement, “Extremely hazardous by skin contact—rapidly absorbed through the skin,” on a label would most likely carry which signal word? A. DANGER. B. WARNING. C. CAUTION. | A. DANGER. |
| “Do not breathe vapors or spray mist” is an example of a: A. Specific action statement. B. Statement of practical treatment. C. Routes of entry statement. | A. Specific action statement. |
| Directions for mixing and loading a pesticide are usually found under: A. Directions for use. B. Environmental hazards. C. Precautionary statements. | A. Directions for use. |
| “If swallowed, call a doctor” is an example of what kind of statement? A. Routes of entry. B. Advisory. C. Mandatory. | C. Mandatory. |
| Who is responsible for developing SDSs for pesticides and providing them on request? A. EPA. B. OSHA. C. The product manufacturer. | C. The product manufacturer. |
| The name “X-Pest 5G” on a pesticide label indicates a: A. Granular pesticide with 5% active ingredient. B. Granular pesticide with 5% inert ingredients. C. Gel pesticide with 5% active ingredient. | A. Granular pesticide with 5% active ingredient. |
| Which is the pesticide formulation process by which solid particles are dispersed in a liquid? A. Emulsion. B. Solution. C. Suspension. | C. Suspension. |
| Which liquid pesticide formulation consists of a small amount of active ingredient (often 1% or less per unit volume)? A. Microencapsulated (M). B. Ready-to-use (low-concentrate) solution (RTU). C. Ultra-low volume (ULV). | B. Ready-to-use (low-concentrate) solution (RTU). |
| Which liquid pesticide formulation may approach 100% active ingredient? A. Aerosol (A). B. Emulsifiable concentrate (EC). C. Ultra-low volume (ULV). | C. Ultra-low volume (ULV). |
| Which is a disadvantage of both EC and ULV formulations? A. Difficult to handle, transport, and store. B. Require constant agitation to keep in suspension. C. Solvents may cause rubber or plastic hoses, gaskets, pump parts, and other surfaces to de | C. Solvents may cause rubber or plastic hoses, gaskets, pump parts, and other surfaces to deteriorate. |
| Which dry/solid formulation is mixed in water and reduces the risk of inhalation exposure during mixing and loading? A. Soluble powder (SP). B. Water-dispersible granule (WDG) or dry flowable (DF). C. Wettable powder (WP). | B. Water-dispersible granule (WDG) or dry flowable (DF). |
| Which type of dry/solid pesticide formulation consists of particles that are the same weight and shape? A. Bait. B. Granule. C. Pellet. | C. Pellet. |
| Which is an advantage of microencapsulated materials? A. Delayed or slow release of the active ingredient prolongs their effectiveness. B. Their pesticidal activity is independent of weather conditions. C. They usually require only short restrictede | A. Delayed or slow release of the active ingredient prolongs their effectiveness. |
| Which type of adjuvant functions as a wetting agent and spreader (i.e., physically altering the surface tension of spray droplets)? A. Buffer. B. Extender. C. Surfactant. | C. Surfactant. |
| Which type of adjuvant increases the viscosity of spray mixtures? A. Sticker. B. Extender. C. Thickener. | C. Thickener. |
| The capacity of a pesticide to cause shortterm (acute) or long-term (chronic) injury is referred to as its: A. Toxicity. B. Exposure. C. Hazard. | A. Toxicity. |
| Which statement about harmful effects of pesticides is false? A. The most common form of pesticide injury is by inhalation. B. Asthma-like symptoms may be caused by allergies to pesticides. C. Many herbicides and fungicides cause dermatitis (skin r | A. The most common form of pesticide injury is by inhalation. |
| Which signal word is associated with very low oral LD50 values? A. DANGER-POISON. B. WARNING. C. CAUTION. | A. DANGER-POISON. |
| Which statement about pesticide toxicity is true? A. A pesticide with an oral LD50 of 5 mg/kg is more toxic than a pesticide with an LD50 of 250 mg/kg. B. Manufacturers are not required to include chronic toxicity warning statements on product label | A. A pesticide with an oral LD50 of 5 mg/kg is more toxic than a pesticide with an LD50 of 250 mg/kg. |
| For which class(es) of pesticides might cholinesterase monitoring be appropriate? A. Organophosphate and carbamate insecticides. B. Pyrethroids. C. Phenoxy herbicides, such as 2,4-D. | A. Organophosphate and carbamate insecticides. |
| Which statement about what happens to pesticides inside the body is true? A. Most pesticides used today are stored in our body fat. B. The kidneys filter pesticides from the blood into the urine. C. Most chemical breakdown of toxic substances takes | B. The kidneys filter pesticides from the blood into the urine. |
| Which statement about pesticide exposure routes is true? A. Studies show that about 97% of all body exposure to pesticides during a spraying operation is by inhalation. B. Eating, drinking, or smoking without first washing your hands after handling | B. Eating, drinking, or smoking without first washing your hands after handling pesticides is likely to transfer the product to your mouth. |
| Which statement about first aid response for pesticide exposure to the eye is false? A. You should hold the eye open and immediately begin gently washing it. B. You should drip water directly into the eye. C. You should flush under the eyelid with w | B. You should drip water directly into the eye |
| What is the first thing you should do to help a victim of inhalation exposure? A. Get the victim to fresh air. B. Administer artificial respiration. C. Have the victim lie down and loosen clothing. | A. Get the victim to fresh air. |
| Which statement about heat stress is true? A. Wearing extra PPE prevents heat stress. B. Constricted pupils is a symptom of heatstroke. C. Lack of sweat is a symptom of heatstroke. | C. Lack of sweat is a symptom of heatstroke. |
| Which statement about PPE requirements listed on the pesticide label is true? A. A label may have different PPE requirements for pesticide handlers and early-entry workers. B. You are not required to wear all the PPE listed on the label. C. Wearing | A. A label may have different PPE requirements for pesticide handlers and early-entry workers. |
| Which part of the product formulation determines what glove type is needed? A. Active ingredient. B. Surfactants. C. Solvents. | C. Solvents. |
| If there are no manufacturer use recommendations, a pesticide applicator should replace the chemical cartridges of his or her respirator: A. At the end of each season. B. After one week of use. C. At the end of each workday. | C. At the end of each workday. |
| When oil may be present, which particulate filter must be used? A. N-series. B. P-series. C. Dust mask. | B. P-series. |
| Air-purifying respirators protect applicators from pesticide exposure by: A. Filtering and/or absorbing the pesticide. B. Breaking down the pesticide. C. Neutralizing the pesticide. | A. Filtering and/or absorbing the pesticide. |
| You should do a qualitative fit test of your respirator: A. Every five years. B. Semiannually. C. If you have a significant change in weight. | C. If you have a significant change in weight. |
| Every time you wear any tight-fitting respirator to apply pesticides, you should first: A. Perform seal check(s). B. Do a qualitative fit test. C. Put Vaseline® on the edges of the respirator to enhance the seal. | A. Perform seal check(s). |
| Which statement about washing work clothes soaked with a pesticide concentrate is true? A. Use cold water and one wash cycle. B. Wash separately from other laundry items. C. Do not attempt to wash it—dispose of it immediately. | C. Do not attempt to wash it—dispose of it immediately. |
| Work clothes worn to apply pesticides should be laundered with a suitable detergent: A. After each day’s use. B. After they get wet with spray. C. When they have a strong odor like the pesticide. | A. After each day’s use. |
| Which property of a pesticide would make it more likely to move in surface water runoff? A. High solubility. B. High adsorption. C. High volatility. | A. High solubility. |
| Which statement about movement of pesticides from the application site is true? A. Drift is seldom an issue with indoor applications. B. Runoff and erosion are sources of surface water contamination by pesticides. C. Leaching is the main way that pe | B. Runoff and erosion are sources of surface water contamination by pesticides. |
| Which is an example of nonpoint-source contamination of groundwater? A. Back-siphoning of pesticide spills at a wellhead. B. Leaching from a pesticide mixing area. C. Pesticides that dissolve and leach through soil after it rains. | C. Pesticides that dissolve and leach through soil after it rains. |
| Under which conditions are pesticides more likely to leach through soil? A. Heavy clay soil, high in organic matter. B. Sandy soil, high in organic matter. C. Sandy soil, low in organic matter. | C. Sandy soil, low in organic matter. |
| Which best management practice will help prevent contamination of surface water and groundwater by pesticides? A. Using pesticides that are highly watersoluble. B. Following IPM principles. C. Selecting persistent pesticides. | B. Following IPM principles. |
| Which two factors are most important in avoiding vapor drift? A. Droplet size and wind speed. B. Air stability and temperature. C. Temperature and pesticide volatility. | C. Temperature and pesticide volatility. |
| Which statement about sensitive areas is true? A. Do not spray a larger target site if it contains a sensitive area. B. Pesticide labels may list special precautions around sensitive areas. C. Endangered species’ habitats are not considered sensitiv | B. Pesticide labels may list special precautions around sensitive areas. |
| Which statement about protecting bees from pesticide injury is true? A. Use foliar applications when possible. B. Spray crops when they are in bloom. C. Apply insecticides in the evening or at night. | C. Apply insecticides in the evening or at night. |
| Which statement about transporting pesticides is true? A. Carry pesticides in the passenger compartment to prevent unauthorized access. B. Enclosed and lockable cargo boxes offer the greatest protection. C. The operator (driver) is not held respon | B. Enclosed and lockable cargo boxes offer the greatest protection. |
| Which statement about pesticide storage facilities is true? A. A ventilation system may reduce noxious vapors by venting air into an adjoining area. B. Carefully consider the terrain when selecting a storage site. C. The floor should remain as bare | B. Carefully consider the terrain when selecting a storage site. |
| What is the first thing to do if a pesticide container is leaking? A. Put on personal protective equipment. B. Transfer contents into another container. C. Clean up any spilled material. | A. Put on personal protective equipment. |
| Which recommended practice will minimize pesticide storage problems? A. Purchase quantities based on previous usage. B. Purchase more than you need to ensure availability of the product. C. Store metal pesticide containers on the higher shelves to | C. Store metal pesticide containers on the higher shelves to prevent rusting. |
| What is the first step a business should take to develop an effective pesticide security program? A. Coordinate planned actions with authorities. B. Conduct a risk assessment of business vulnerabilities. C. Train employees on security measures. | B. Conduct a risk assessment of business vulnerabilities. |
| Which of the following is considered a good security practice? A. Instruct employees on pesticide inventory control. B. Allow employees access to inventory. C. Back up confidential data daily and keep it at the facility. | A. Instruct employees on pesticide inventory control. |
| Which statement about emergency response planning is true? A. The main reason to have an emergency response plan is to reduce economic losses. B. The first person to contact in an emergency is an attorney. C. It is important to make a detailed repor | C. It is important to make a detailed report of what took place before, during, and after the incident. |
| What is the backbone of any emergency response plan? A. Outlining the sequence of actions to take in a crisis. B. Knowing where labels and SDSs are kept. C. Having a designated emergency responder. | A. Outlining the sequence of actions to take in a crisis. |
| In addition to an emergency response plan, which of the following will further reduce the risk of a pesticide fire? A. Store pesticides close to a heat source to prevent freezing. B. Keep a fire-detection system in the storage area. C. Post the sto | B. Keep a fire-detection system in the storage area. |
| Which is a recommended action to take in the event of a pesticide fire? A. Construct berms to contain contaminated runoff water. B. Enter the storage facility and remove as much pesticide as possible. C. Try to extinguish the fire before calling 91 | A. Construct berms to contain contaminated runoff water. |
| Which is an appropriate action to take in the event of a pesticide spill? A. Take a “time out” to read your emergency response plan. B. Call 911 only if the spill has a chance of entering surface water. C. Put on the appropriate PPE before respondi | C. Put on the appropriate PPE before responding to the spill. |
| 1. Determining when to apply a pesticide includes considering the: A. Life cycle of the pest and weather conditions. B. Percent active ingredient. C. Need for additives or adjuvants. | A. Life cycle of the pest and weather conditions. |
| The “Directions for Use” section of a pesticide label indicates the: A. Various crops or areas on which the pesticide may be legally used. B. Disposal of pesticide waste. C. Environmental, physical, and chemical hazards. | A. Various crops or areas on which the pesticide may be legally used. |
| When two or more pesticides mixed together form a putty or paste, separate into layers, or look like cottage cheese, it is an example of: A. Limited agitation. B. Chemical incompatibility. C. Physical incompatibility. | C. Physical incompatibility. |
| After filling a tank one-fifth to one-half full with carrier, what is the usual order for tank mixing the remaining products? A. Add suspension products, add emulsion products, add solution products, add surfactants (if needed), add compatibility ag | B. Add compatibility agent (if needed), add suspension products, add solution products, add surfactants (if needed), add emulsion products. |
| Which statement about the proper technique for opening pesticide containers is true? A. Put on the appropriate PPE after the containers have been opened. B. Use a sharp knife or scissors to open paper or cardboard containers. C. Leave the container | B. Use a sharp knife or scissors to open paper or cardboard containers. |
| Which statement about measuring and/or transferring pesticides is true? A. Metal measuring utensils are recommended over plastic. B. Most dusts, powders, and dry formulations are measured by volume. C. After adding the pesticide to the partially fi | C. After adding the pesticide to the partially filled spray tank, rinse the measuring container and pour the rinse solution into the tank. |
| Which statement about cleaning and disposing of pesticide containers is true? A. Do not puncture rinsed pesticide containers. B. Pesticide containers that cannot be recycled or returned to the manufacturer should be reused. C. Containers must be di | C. Containers must be disposed of in accordance with label directions and current regulations. |
| Which statement about triple-rinsing and pressure-rinsing pesticide containers is true? A. Triple rinsing is a more effective method than pressure rinsing. B. All containers must be either triple-rinsed or pressure-rinsed. C. Rinsate from triple rinsin | C. Rinsate from triple rinsing or pressure rinsing may be stored for later use. |
| Which statement about pesticide rinsates is true? A. Rinsates may be applied to labeled target sites at or below labeled rates. B. Rinsates containing strong cleaning agents may be reused in pesticide mixtures. C. The amount of pesticide in the rinsate | A. Rinsates may be applied to labeled target sites at or below labeled rates. |
| Which statement about pesticide equipment cleanup is false? A. Sprayers should be thoroughly rinsed with a water-detergent solution for several minutes. B. When getting ready to store your sprayer, add some lightweight oil to the tank before the final f | C. Leftover pesticide residue in the spray tank is permitted when changing products. |
| Which application method involves uniformly applying a pesticide to an entire area or field? A. Broadcast. B. Band. C. Directed spray. | A. Broadcast. |
| Which type of pesticide application would you use to control cockroaches inside buildings? A. Basal. B. Band. C. Crack and crevice. | C. Crack and crevice. |
| Which statement about containment pads is true? A. Pads make spill cleanup more difficult. B. Pads should be made of permeable materials. C. Pads should be used where large quantities of pesticides are handled or mixed. | C. Pads should be used where large quantities of pesticides are handled or mixed. |
| Which statement about sprayer nozzles is true? A. A nozzle that mainly produces fine droplets is likely to minimize off-target drift. B. Coarse-sized droplets provide maximum coverage of the target. Which statement about sprayer nozzles is true? A. | Nozzles control the amount of material applied and type of pattern created. |
| Which statement about granular applicators is true? A. Ground speed has no effect on the application rate. B. In a rotary spreader, lighter granules are thrown farther than heavier ones. C. Drop spreaders are superior to rotary spreaders when more | C. Drop spreaders are superior to rotary spreaders when more precise placement of the pesticide is desired. |
| Which technique would help minimize offtarget drift? A. Spraying during a temperature inversion. B. Using the largest droplets practical to provide necessary coverage. C. Increasing the height of the nozzles above the target. | B. Using the largest droplets practical to provide necessary coverage. |
| You are applying a pesticide to a triangular area that has a base of 60 feet and a height of 30 feet. How many square feet is the area? A. 450. B. 900. C. 1,800. | B. 900. |
| You are applying a pesticide to a circular area with a 20-foot diameter. How many square feet is the area? A. 128. B. 314. C. 400. | B. 314. |
| You have calibrated your equipment to spray 50 gallons per acre. You need to spray 1 acre. The label calls for 3 pounds of formulation per 100 gallons of water. How many pounds of formulation should you add to the tank to make 50 gallons of finished | A. 1.5. |
| In order to buy a restricted-use pesticide in TN, an individual must: A. Be 16 years of age B. Be certified by the TN Department of Agriculture as a pesticide applicator C. Working under the supervision of a certified applicator D. meet all the safety | B. be certified by the TN Department of Agriculture as a pesticide applicator |
| According to FIFRA in order to use a restricted-use pesticide an applicator: A. Must be certified in all cases b. must be certified or working under the direct supervision of a certified applicator c. does not have to be certified, but attend pesticide | b. must be certified or working under the direct supervision of a certified applicator |
| The following applicator must always be certified in order to use a restricted-use pesticide: A) farmer b) greenhouse operator C) Nurseryman d)Pest control technician working for a chartered company | |
| when does a private applicator become a commercial applicator a) when he/she exchange services for another private b)when he sprays for another individual and charges a fee c) when he sprays within a greenhouse D) when their income exceeds $25000 |