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Neurology

QuestionAnswer
What are the four parts of the neurone? dendrites, soma, axon & synapse
What does the dendrite do? Receives input from other neurones and conveys signals to the soma
What does the soma do? Contains the nucleus and endoplasmic reticulum - synthetic and metabolic centre
What does the axon do? Conducts output signals to other neurones
What does the synapse do? Output - point of communication between neurones
Where are unipolar neurones found? PNS
Where are psuedounipolar neurones found? Sensory system
Where are bipolar neurones found? Retina
Where are multipolar neurones found? Motor neurones
What is the main excitatory neurotransmitter? Gultamate
What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter? GABA - to a lesser extent, glycine
What happens in chemical neurotransmission? Uptake of precurosr, synthesis of transmitter, storage of transmitter, depolarisation by action potential, calcium influx through voltage activated calcium channels, calcium induced release of neurotransmitter (exocytosis), receptor activation
What does the ion Na+ do? Moves into the cell causing depolarisation
What does the ion C2+ do? Moves into the cell causing depolarisation
What does the ion Cl- do? Moves into the cell causing hyperpolarisation
What does the ion K+ do? Moves out of the cell causing hyperpolarisation
What is the main function of the frontal lobe? Contains the primary motor cortex - movement
What is the main function of the parietal lobe? Contains the somatosensory cortex - sensation
What is the main function of the occipital lobe? Contains the visual cortex - vision
What is the main function of the temporal lobe? Contains the auditory cortex - hearing
What cell produces myelin in the PNS? Schwann cells
What are the four glial cells? Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglia & ependymal cells
What is the function of astrocytes? Role in support, maintain the blood brain barrier, environmental homeostasis
What is the function of oligodendrocytes? Produce myeline in the CNS
What is the function of microglia? Phagocytic role - macrophages, antigen presenting cells
What is the function of ependymal cells? Ciliated cuboidal/columnar epithelium that line ventricles
What order is the grey/white matter in, in the brain? Grey matter outside - white matter on inside
What does grey matter contain? neurones
What does white matter contain? Axons
What are the layers of the meninges? Dura mater, arachnoid mater & pia mater
What is the dura mater? Outer tough layer of connective tissue
What is the arachnoid mater? Relatively thin layer that is usually stuck to the dura
What is the pia mater? Very thin layer that is attached to the surface of the brain
Where is CSF produced? Choroid plexus in all 4 ventricles
Where is CSF reabsorbed? Into dural venous sinuses via arachnoid granulations
What is the function of CSF? Cushions the brain - internal and external force
What is increased CSF volume called? Hydrocephalus
What arteries make up the circle of Willis? Anterior cerebral artery, anterior communicating artery, internal carotid artery, posterior cerebral artery & posterior communicating artery
What are the two separating dural structures? Falx cerebri - sickle shape between cerebral hemispheres Tentorium cerebelli - between cerebellum and cerebral hemispheres
What is the flow of CSF through the brain? Later ventricles -> intraventricular foramen (Munro) -> third ventricle -> cerebral aqueduct -> fourth ventricle -> central canal (spinal cord)
What are the structures that make up the brain stem? Medulla oblongata ((continuous with the spinal cord), pons, midbrain Ascending and descending tracts pass through it. Contains centres for control of: respiration, consciousness and cardiovascular
Where are the two enlargements of the spinal cord? Cervical - very long roots, related to the upper limb Lumbar - very short roots, related to the lower limb
What information does the spinothalamic tract contain? 2P's and 2 T's - pain, pressure, temperature & (coarse) touch
At what level does the spinothalamic tract cross at? Cross at the spinal level they enter at
What information does the dorsal columns contain? Fine touch, proprioception & vibration sense
At what level do the dorsal columns cross at? Cross at the medulla
What information does the corticospinal tract contain? Controls activity of the motor neurones in the spinal cord which innervate the trunk and limb muscles
At what level does the spinal cord terminate at? L1/L2
What is the structure that anchors the spinal cord Filum terminale
How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? 31
What information does the rubrospinal tract contain? Excitatory control of tone of limb flexor muscles
What information does the tectospinal tract contain? Input mostly to the cervical segments
What information does the vestibulospinal tract contain? Excitatory input to "anti-gravity" muscles
What are the headache red flags? -New onset headache in a patient above 55 -Known/previous malignancy -Immunosuppressed -Early morning headache -Exacerbation by valsalva
Tight band sensation, pressure behind the eyes, throbbing and bursting sensations? Tension headache
What are the signs of tension headache? Tenderness and tension in the neck and scalp muscles
What are the features of a pressure (intra-cranial lesion) headache? - Intracranial mass lesions - pain provoked by displaced/stretched meninges and vessels or by changes in CSF pressure (e.g. coughing, sneezing) - Typically worse on lying down - Worse in the morning - Often accompanied by vomiting
What is the defining feature of a low CSF volume headache? Seen typically on standing up
Pain over inflamed temporal/occipital arteries, jaw claudication, pain in the face Temporal arteritis
How would you diagnose and treat temporal arteritis? Vessel biopsy and high dose prednisolone
Neck stiffness, vomiting and a rash ± fever? Bacterial meningitis
What is a migraine? Recurrent headache with visual and gastrointestinal disturbance
What factors may precipitate migraines? Weekend, chocolate, cheese, noise and irritating lights
What ages and sex is migraine commonly found in? Common around puberty and at the menopause - sometimes increases in severity or frequency with hormonal contraceptives, in pregnancy, the onset of hypertension or following minor head trauma
What auras are common in migraine? Unilateral patchy scotoma, hemianopic symptoms, teichopsia (flashes) and fortification spectra (jagged lines)
How long does the aura part of a migraine with aura last, and how long does he consequent headache last? Aura - 20-60 minutes, Headache <1 hour
What features are needed for a diagnosis of migraine without aura? - Prodromal visual symptoms are vague - At least 5 attacks - 4-72 hour duration
What investigations are typically needed for a suspected migraine? None
What may trigger a migraine with aura? Sleep, diet, stress, hormones and physical exertion
What is the acute management of a migraine? paracetamol/NSAIDs (ibuprofen, neproxen, diclofenac) - ± anti-emetic (metaclopramide) triptans - rizatriptan/eletriptan - more expensive so start with NSAID
What is the prophylactic management of a migraine? Propranolol (beta blocker)- avoid in asthma, PVD and heart failure Topiramate (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor) - poor side effect profile (memory impairment) Amitriptyline (TCA) - dry mouth
Cluster headache? Recurrent bouts of excruciating sudden onset unilateral retro-orbital pain lasting 30-90 minutes with parasympathetic innervation in the same eye (ptosis, miosis, congestion & tearing)
Epidemiology of cluster headache? 30-40s, M>F
Headache pain "worse than childbirth"? Cluster headache
Treatment of cluster headache? High flow oxygen for 20 minutes, subcutaneous sumatriptan, steroids, verapamil for prophylaxis Analgesics are unhelpful
Trigeminal neuralgia? Severe stabbing unilateral pain lasting 1-90 seconds, can gave 10-100 attacks a day
Treatment of trigeminal neuralgia? Cabamazepine, gabapentin, phenytoin, baclofen - Surgery: ablation vs decompression
Types of gait disorders? Spastic, extrapyramidal (Parkinson's), apraxic, ataxic, myopathic, psychogenic, antalgic
Spastic gait? Stiff, jerky circumduction of legs ± scuffing feet - May be seen in tumour, abscess, cerebral palsy and multiple sclerosis
Antalgic gait? Gait develops to avoid pain Trauma, osteoarthritis etc
Extrapyramidal gait? Flexed posture, shuffling feet, slow to start, postural instability, stoop, difficulty turning, retropulsion Parkinson's
Cerebellar ataxic gait? Broad based gait, veer to side of affected lobe when walking Causes - focal lesions, B12, hypothyroidism, Wilson's
Sensory ataxic gait? Loss of proprioception, broad based, high stepping, stamping gait develops - Positive Romberg's test - Cause: polyneuropathy
Myopathic gait? Foot drop - common fibular palsy - foot hits ground with audible slap Weakness of proximal lower limb muscles - polymyositis, muscular dystrophy - walking becomes waddled
Apraxic gait? Frontal lobe disease - acquired walking skills become disorganised - 'gluing to the floor''novice on ice'
Pyschogenic gait? Bizarre gait, not conforming to any organic disorder - common with anxiety and depression
Types of movement disorder? Myoclonus, tremor, dystonia, chorea and tics
"Pill rolling" tremor? Parkinson's
Chorea? Jerky, quasi, puposive, explosive fidgety movements, flitting around the body
Sydenham's chorea? - Transient post-infective chorea in children and young adults - About half of cases follow rheumatic fever - Onset is gradual - Recovery occurs spontaneously within weeks or months
Causes of chorea? Huntington's, Sydenham's, drugs (phenytoin, levodopa, alcohol), thyrotoxicosis, pregnancy and OCP, hypoparathyroidism, SLE, stroke
Myoclonus? Sudden, involuntary jerking of a single muscle or group of muscles
Dystonia? Movement caused by prolonged muscular contraction - part of the body is thrown into spasm
Treatment of dystonias? Botox injections, sometimes antimuscarinics
Tics? Common, brief stereotyped movements, usually affecting the face/neck but may affect any body part, including vocal tics
Spasmodic torticollis? Dystonic spasms gradually developing around the neck, cause the head to turn or to be drawn backwards or forwards
What is Huntington's disease? Relentlessly progressive chorea and dementia Autosomal dominant, mutation of chromosome 4
What is the pathology of Huntington's? Cerebral atrophy progresses, marked loss of neurones - Changes in neurotransmitters
Symptoms of Huntington's? Triad - emotional, cognitive and motor disturbance - Depression, irritability and apathy - Dementia - Chorea, myoclonus, involuntary movements, dysphagia
What is the prognosis of Huntington's? Death within 15 years of diagnosis
Treatment of Huntington's? Sulpiride and tetrabenazine (both forms of dopamine blockers) - help chorea
What is multiple sclerosis? Chronic inflammatory disorder - multiple plaques of demyelination within the brain and spinal cord (CNS only) - T cell mediated immune response - plaques are disseminated in both time and place
Symptoms of multiple sclerosis? - Motor weakness - Optic neuritis - painful loss of vision - Pain, paraesthesiae, loss of proprioception & vibration (dorsal column loss) - Cognitive impairment - Fatigue - Lower urinary tract dysfunction - frequency, urgency etc - Ataxia, tremor, n
Investigation of MS? MRI of brain and cord is the definitive structural investigation - CSF: oligoclonal IgG bands
Symptomatic treatment of MS? - Mild: physio/OT, treat fatigue (amantadine), treat spasticity (baclofenac, IM botox), treat sensory (gabapentin, amitriptyline), urinary (oxybutynin, desmopressin) - Moderate: oral steroids (methylprednisolone) - Severe: admit and IV steroids
Preventing relapse and disability of MS? Beta-interferon - avonex, betaseron, extavia
Disease modifying therapy in MS? 1st line - interferon beta (avonex, betaseron, extavia), copaxon (slow onset), tecfidera 2nd line - tysabri (associated with PML), fingolimid 3rd line - mitoxantone - cardiac toxicity dose related
What is progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy? - Rapidly progressive, demyelinating, CNS disease caused by the opportunistic pathogen JC virus - Occurs in the immunocompromised only
Symptoms of PML? Clumsiness, progressive weakness, visual, speech and sometimes personality change
Treatment of PML? Reversing immune deficiency - in HIV give HAART
What is epilepsy? a recurrent tendency to have spontaneous, intermittent, abnormal electrical activity in part of the brain manifesting as a seizure
What is epilepsies EEG hallmark? High voltage spike and wave activity
What are the two broad classifications of epilepsy? Focal and generalised
What are the types of generalised epilepsy? Absence, tonic clonic, myoclonic, tonic, clonic, atonic
Very brief seizure, activtity ceases and the patient stares and pales slightly for a few seconds, twitching of eyelids, start of childhood? Absence seizures - petit mal
What do children with absence seizures tend to develop in adult life? generalised tonic clonic seizures
What is a tonic clonic seizure? Vague warning -> tonic phase, body becomes rigid for up to a minute -> patient utters a cry and falls -> clonic phase, generalised convulsions, frothing at the mouth, bilateral rhythmic jerking of the muscles, seconds to minutes -> drowsiness/confusion
What is a myoclonic seizure? Isolated muscle jerking
What is a partial (focal) seizure? Electrical abnormality is localised to one part of the brain - underlying structural cause - most common in elderly
What is the defining feature between types of partial seizure? Loss of awareness - in simple there is no loss of awareness - in complex there is loss of awareness
What is a seizure? Unresponsive, rigid body (extended arms and legs, head turned), jerking of limbs, look red, eyes open, disorientated after return of consciousness
What can cause seizures? Encephalitis, cerebral abscess, tuberculoma, cortical venous thrombosis and neurosyphilis, chronic meningitis (TB), acute bacterial meningitis, chronic alcohol abuse, withdrawal of antiepileptic drugs and benzodiazepines, metabolic disturbances
What is crucial in history taking in suspected epilepsy? Involvement of a witness
What would you ask about in a epilepsy consultation? Onset - what they were doing and where? How did they look? How did they feel?| Event itself - type of movements, responsiveness, awareness?| Afterwards = speed of recovery?| PMH| DH
What is syncope? Sweaty, light headed, pale, loss of consciousness, quick recovery
How would you examine a patient in suspected syncope? Cardiovascular examination and lying+standing BP
What is status epilepticus? Medical emergency, continuous seizures without recovery of consciousness, lasts over 30 minutes
How would you treat status epilepticus? Lorazepam and phenytoin
What is the treatment of generalised epilepsy? Sodium valproate, although teratogenic so may give females lamotrigine
What is the treatment of focal epilepsy? Carbamazepine or lamotrigine
What are the adverse effects of sodium valproate? Weight gain, teratogenic, hair loss and fatigue
What is SUDEP? Sudden death in epilepsy, more than doubles chances of dying young (<35). If have severe epilepsy can be as high chance as 1/100
What is the birth defect risk in babies of mothers who take on AED? Around 7%, normal population is 3%
How do some anti-epileptic drugs influence COPC and morning after pills? Reduce efficacy
What are the driving rules for someone with epilepsy? Have to be seizure free for 12 months to drive a motor vehicle
When would you suspect a functional attack? Uncontrollable symptoms, no learning disabilities & CNS exam, CT, MRI and EEG normal
The patient has reduced speech fluency with relatively preserved comprehension, few disjointed words with failure to construct sentences? Broca's expressive aphasia - infero-lateral dominant frontal lobe lesion
Patient has fluent language but words are muddled and often sentences are often jargon heavy, theres is loss of comprehension? Wernicke's receptive aphasia - posterior superior dominant temporal lobe lesion
The patient has difficulty naming familiar objects? Nominal aphasia - posterior dominant tempoparietal lesions
What is dysarthria? Disordered articulation - due to paralysis, slowing or inco-ordination of muscles of articulation or local discomfort
What diseases is dysarthria seen in? Psuedobulbar palsy: gravelly speech - Cerebellar lesions: jerky, ataxic speech - Parkinson's: monotone - Myasthenia gravis - speech that fatigues and dies away
What commonly causes viral meningitis? Enteroviruses - echoviruses, coxsackei virus, mumps
Who is typically affected by viral meningitis? Children
What are the symptoms of viral meningitis? Headache, fever, stiff neck and photophobia
What is the course of viral meningitis? Self-limiting
What is the treatment of viral meningitis? Supportive
How is viral meningitis investigated? And what would the findings be? Lumbar puncture - raised WCC (predominantly lymphocytes), RCC raised, protein and glucose normal
What are the most common causes of neonatal bacterial meningitis? And how are they treated? Listeria: amoxicillin + gentamycin - Group B strep - benzylpenicillin + gentamicin - E. coli: cefotaxime + gentamicin
What is the most common cause of childhood bacterial meningitis? And what is the treatment? H. influenzae - normal throat microbiota, requires blood factors for growth, type b is most common cause in this age group - IV ceftriaxone - vaccine now available
What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in those aged between 10-21? And what is the treatment? Neisseria meningitis (meningococcal) found in the throats of healthy carriers- symptoms due to endotoxin - IV ceftriaxone
What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in those aged 21 and over? And what is the treatment? Step pneumoniae (pneumococcal) - common in nasopharynx - IV ceftriaxone
What is the most common cause of acute meningitis in immunocompromised patients? And what is the treatment? Listeria monocytogenes (gram positive bacilli) - IV ampicillin/ amoxicillin - ceftrixone of no value | also affects neonates and elederly
What are the symptoms of acute bacterial meningitis? Headache, alteration in consciousness, neck stiffness, fever, vomiting, pyrexia, photophobia, lethargy, confusion, rash, positive Kernig's sign
What is Kernig's sign? Severe stiffness of the hamstrings leading to an inability to straighten the leg when the hip is flexed to 90 degrees
What would you expect to find on CSF findings in bacterial meningitis? (white cells count, neutrophils, protein, glucose, glu (CSF/serum) WBC > 2000, Neutrophils > 1,180, Protein >220mg/dl, Glucose <34 mg/dl, glu <0.23
What is the pathogenesis of acute bacterial meningitis? Nasopharyngeal colonisation, direct extension of bacteria - sinusitis, otitis, cranial trauma, blood borne infection
What is the management of bacterial meningitis? Immediate IV antibiotics - ceftriaxone (if penicillin allergic -> cefotaxime), blood cultures, prophylaxis of contacts (rifampicin in kids, ciprofloxacin for adults)
Indications for hospital management in acute adult bacterial meningitis? Signs of meningeal irritation, impaired conscious level, petechial rash, febrile/unwell/recent fit
Management on hospital admission for suspected acute adult bacterial meningitis? ABCDE, blood culture + coagulation screen, throat swab, swab any petechial/purpuric skin lesions for M+S, urgent CT, administration of antibiotics (IV ceftriaxone add IV ampicillin/amoxicillin if listeria suspected), steroids
What are the warning signs of acute adult bacterial meningitis? GCS <12 or fall in GCS >2, focal neurology, seizure before or at presentation, shock, bradycardia and hypertension, papilloedema
What antibiotic would you give if listeria suspected and the patient was penicillin allergic? Co-trimaxazole alone
What antibiotics would you give as empirical treatment for acute adult bacterial meningitis if the patient was penicillin allergic? Chloramphenicol + vancomycin
How would you treat TB meningitis? Isoniazid + rifampicin (add pyrazinamide, ethambutol)
What clinical features would you find in neonatal meningitis? What investigations would you do? Clinical features can be subtle - slightly low temperature Culture blood and CSF
In what circumstances would you give prophylactic antibiotics for neonatal meningitis? Pre-term labour, prolonged rupture of membranes, found incidentally to have GBS in vagina or urine, fever in labour/ammonites, GBS infection in previous baby
What are the non-infective causes of meningitis? Malignant cells, intrathecal drugs, sarcoidosis/vasculitis etc
What cause chronic meningitis? Tuberculous meningitis and cryptococcal meningitis, syphilis, sarcoidosis and behcet's
What are the clinical features of chronic meningitis? Vague headache, lassitude, anorexia, vomiting, drowsiness, focal signs and seizures
Management of chronic meningitis? Antituberculosis drugs - rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide - avoid ethambutol due to eye complications; adjuvant prednisolone
Inflammation of the brain parenchyma? Encephalitis
What are the common causes of encephalitis? Virus - HSV 1 (common in UK) + 2, echovirus, coxsackie, mumps, EBV, HIV| epidemic and endemic causes - japanese, ross river fever, california, west nile etc
What are the clinical features of viral encephalitis? Many are mild, in minority - high fever, headache, mood change and drowsiness over hours or days, focal signs, seizures and coma ensue
How would you treat suspected HSV encephalitis? IV aciclovir, seizures are treated with anticonvulsants (phenytoin)
In what disease would you find antibodies against voltage gated potassium channels? Limbic encephalitis
What is shingles? Herpes zoster - reactivation of varicella zoster infection within dorsal root ganglia, the original infection having been chickenpox many years previous
What cranial nerves does herpes zoster commonly affect? V - trigeminal and VII - facial
What is ophthalmic herpes? Infection of V1, can lead to corneal scarring and secondary panophthalmitis
What is Ramsey Hunt syndrome? Geniculate herpes of the facial nerve - auditory canal involvement - tinnitus/deafness
What is the treatment of shingles? Acyclovir
What is post-herpatic neuralgia? Pain in a previous shingle zone - occurs in 10% - burning, continuous pain responds poorly to analgesics - gradual recovery over 2 years
What is the treatment of post-herpetic neuralgia? Amitriptyline is commonly used, intrathecal methylprednisolone is sometimes helpful
What is neurosyphilis? Infection of the brain or spinal cord by the spirochete Treponema pallidum
What serology would you expect to find with neurosyphilis? Positive TPHA (T. pallidum haemagluttination assay) & FTA (fluorescent treponemal antibody)
What symptoms could you find in neurosyphilis? Abnormal gait, blindness, confusion, dementia, depression, headache, incontinence, neuropathy, psychosis, seizures, tremors, visual disturbances, muscle weakness
What occurs in meningovascular syphilis? Subacute meningitis with cranial nerve palsies and papilloedema (decreased vision), a gumma (chronic expanding intracranial mass), parapesis (a spinal meningovasculitis)
What features would you find in tabes dorsalis? Demyelination in dorsal roots| Lightning pains, ataxia, stamping gait, reflex/sensory loss, wasting, neuropathic (charcot) joints, Argyll Robertson pupils (accomodates but doesn't react), ptosis and optic neuropathy
What is the treatment of neurosyphilis? Benzylpenicillin in primary infection eliminates any risk of neurosyphilis in primary infection| Steroid cover with penicillin to arrest neurological disease
What is neurocysticercosis? Ingestion of eggs of Taenia solium (e.g. pork tapeworm)| Main cause of acquired epilepsy, endemic in parts of developing world| Antiparasitic treatment with albendazole
What is Behcet's syndrome? Small vessel systemic vasculitis - recurrent oral and/or genital ulceration, inflammatory ocular disease, neurological syndromes - brainstem and cord lesions, aseptic meningitis, encephalitis and cerebral venous thrombosis can occur
What bacteria typically cause brain abscess? Streptococcus anginosus, bacteroides species and Staphlycocci
What are the clinical features found in brain abscess? Headache, focal signs, epilepsy, raised intracranial pressure, fever, leucocytosis, raised ESR
At what rates do cerebral and cerebellar abscesses develop at? Cerebral abscesses may be indolent - developing over weeks; cerebellar absceses tend to develop rapidly over days or hours, producing hydrocephalus
What would you see on CT of a brain abscess? Thin high-attenuation rim
If streptococal or anaerobic infective cause of brain abscess what is the treatment? Cefuroxime plus metronidazole
What is the treatment for a Staphylococcal infection? Flucloxacillin with cefuroxamine
Chronic caseating intracranial granulomas? Tuberculomas
What is CN I and what is its function? Olfactory nerve - smell - not routinely tested
What is CN II and what is its function? Optic nerve - vision - tested acuity, visual fields and pupillary response
What is CN III and what is its function? Oculomotor - eyelid elevation, eye elevation, adduction,
What are the signs of a complete third nerve palsy? Unilateral complete ptosis| eye facing down and out| fixed and dilated pupil
What is CN IV and what is its function? Trochlear - superior oblique function, makes eye move down and in
What is CN V and what is its function? Trigeminal - facial and corneal sensation, mastication muscles
What are the divisions of the trigeminal nerve? Ophthalmic (V1), maxillary (V2) and mandibular (V3)
What would a complete Vth nerve lesion cause? Unilateral sensory loss of the face, tongue and bucal mucosa, the jaw deviates to the side as the mouth opens, diminution of the corneal reflex
What are the features of trigeminal neuralgia? Knife-like or electric shock pain, lasting seconds, occurring in the distribution of the Vth nerve - tends to commence in V3 and spread - spasms occur many times a day and may have stimuli
What is the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia? Carbamazepine daily - if drugs fail, surgery is useful - decompresion vs ablation
What is CN VI and whats is its function? Abducens - eye abduction (lateral rectus)
What is CN VII and what is its function? Facial - facial movement, taste - anterior 2/3rds of tongue via chorda tympani
What is Bell's palsy? Common, acute, isolated facial palsy usually due to viral infection affectin CN VII
What are the features of Bell's palsy? Sudden unilateral facial weakness, sometimes loss of taste on the tongue, and hyperacusis (reduced tolerance to usual environmental sound). Pain behind the ear is common at onset.
What is the management of Bell's palsy? Spontaneous recovery usually begins during second week but can take 12 months - prednisolone - valaciclovir/aciclovir if severe - tape/suture the eyelids close to protect cornea - cosmetic surgery if unsightly paralysis is residual (usually 10%)
What is Ramsay Hunt syndrome? Herpes zoster (shingles) of the geniculate ganglion (CN VII)
What are the features of Ramsay Hunt syndrome? Facial palsy (like Bell's) with herpetic vesicles around the auditory meatus and/or the soft palate
What is the management of Ramsay Hunt syndrome? Treat as for shingles - steroids and aciclovir
What is CN VIII and what is its function? Vestibulo-cochlear nerve - balance and hearing
What are the symptoms of a cochlear nerve lesion? And how would you test? Deafness (conductive or sensorineural) and tinnitus - Rinne's and Weber's (512Hz tuning fork)
What are the main symptoms of vestibular nerve lesions? Vertigo and loss of balance - vomiting frequently accompanies any acute vertigo
What is vertigo? The definite illusion of movement of the subject or surroundings, typically rotary
What is nystagmus, and when might it be present? Rhythmic oscillation of eye movement - a sign of disease in the retina, oculomotor and/or vestibular systems and their connections - either jerk or perpindicular - Hallpike's test may provoke nystagmus
What is vestibular neuronitis? Acute attack of isolated vertigo with nystagmus, often with vomiting, believed to follow viral infections - can last for several days or weeks - self-limiting and rarely recurs
What is CN IX and what is its function? Glossopharyngeal - sensation to the soft palate and taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue
What is CN X and what is its function? Vagus nerve - cough, palatal and vocal cord moevements
What is CN XI and what is its function? Accessory - control of trapezius and sternocleidomastoid - head turning and shoulder shrugging
What is CN XII and what is its function? Hypoglossal - controls tongue movements
What is a dermatome? Area of skin supplied by 1 spinal nerve - sensory
What is a myotome? Skeletal muscle supplied by 1 spinal nerve - motor
C2 dermatome? Back of scalp and adam's apple
C3 dermatome? Back of neck and jugular notch
C4 dermatome? Clavicle and shoulder tip
C5 dermatome? "Badge patch"
C6 dermatome? Thumb and lateral forearm
C7 dermatome? Middle finger
C8 dermatome? LIttle finger
T1 dermatome? Medial forearm
T2 dermatome? Medial arm and sternal angle
T 4 dermatome? Male nipple
T8 dermatome? Xiphoid process
T10 dermatome? Umbilicus
T12 dermatome? Pubic symphisis
L1 dermatome? Groin
L2 dermatome? Anterior thigh
L3 dermatome? Anterior knee
L4 dermatome? Medial malleolus
L5 dermatome? Dorsum of foot
S1 dermatome? Heel
S2 dermatome? Posterior knee
S3 dermatome? Buttock
S4 dermatome? Perineum
S5 dermatome? Peri-anal skin
What nerves control should abduction? C5 (deltoid)
What nerves control should adduction? C5-7
What nerves control elbow flexion? C5&6 - biceps brachii
What nerves control elbow extension? C7&8 - triceps brachii
What nerves control elbow pronation? C6 - pronator teres and quadratus
What nerves control elbow supination? C8 - supinator
What nerves control wrist flexion? C6&7
What nerves control wrist extension? C7&8
What nerves control finger flexion (grip strength)? C8
What nerves control finger extension? C7
What nerves control finger adduction and abduction? T1 - dorsal and palmar interossei
What nerves control hip flexion? L1-3 - psoas major
What nerves control hip extension? L5,S1 - gluteus maximus and hamstrings
What nerves control knee flexion? L5, S1 - hamstrings
What nerves control knee extension? L3-4 - quadriceps
What nerves control ankle dorsiflexion? L4-5 - tibialis anterior
What nerves control plantar flexion? S1-2 - gastrocnemius/soleus
What nerves control ankle inversion? L4 - tibialis anterior and posterior
What nerves control ankle eversion? L5, S1 - fibularis longus and brevis
What is the most common cause of intracranial tumour? Metastases - bronchus, breast, stomach, prostate, thyroid & kidney
What is a glioma? Malignant tumour of neuroepithelial origin - usually within the hemispheres - e.g. astrocytomas, oligodendorgliomas
What is a meningioma? Benign tumour arising from the arachnoid membrane, can erode bone, unusual below the tentorium cerebelli
What is a schwannoma (neurofibroma)? Solid benign tumour arising from Schwann cells
What are the clinical features of a brain tumour? Three mechanisms. 1 - direct effect, brain is destroyed and local function is impaired, focal neurological defect, 2 - raised ICP, papilloedema, vomiting, headache & gait ataxia, 3 - by provoking generalised and/or partial seizures
What are the features of raised intra-cranial pressure? Headache, vomiting and papilloedema
What features would be present with compression of the medulla? Impaired consciousness, respiratory depression, bradycardia, abnormal body posture
What is the best imaging investigation for brain tumour? MRI - shows >95% of intracranial tumours
Would you carry out a lumbar puncture in a patient with suspected brain tumour? Contraindicated when there is any possibility of a mass lesion as withdrawing CSF may provoke immediate herniation of the cerebellar tonsils
What is the treatment of a suspected brain tumour? IV or oral dexamethasone for cerebral oedema - IV mannitol to reduce oedema, decreasing ICP - Carbamazepine/lamotrigine for epilepsy (focal) - Surgery if possible and necessary - Radiotherapy - gliomas and metastases - Chemotherapy has little value
What features are commonly seen in idiopathic/benign intracranial hypertension? Headaches, visual blurring and papilloedema, machinery nose in ears
Who is idiopathic/benign intracranial hypertension found in mostly? Obese young women with vague menstrual irregularities
What complications can arise from idiopathic/benign intracranial hypertension? Optic nerve infarction - consequent blindness when papilloedema is severe and long-standing
What is the management of idiopathic/benign intracranial hypertension? Repeated lumbar puncture, acetazolamide (to decrease CSF pressure) or thiazide diuretics, prednisolone for headache and papilloemdema| weight reduction is helpful| surgical decompression is sometimes necessary (lumboperitoneal shunting)
What is hydrocephalus? Excessive water (SCF) within the head| usually an obstructive cause, very rarely is overproduction
What are the clinical features of hydrocephalus? Headache, cognitive impairment, vomiting, papilloedema, ataxia and bilateral pyramidal signs
What could cause hydrocephalus? Infantile hydrocephalus (aqueduct stenosis), tumours, SAH, head injury or meningitis (particulalry TB), 3rd ventricle colloid cyst, choroid plexus papilloma (rare) secretes CSF
What is the tretment of hydrocephalus? Ventriculo-atrial or ventriculo-peritoneal shunting| neurosurgical removal of tumours when appropriate
What is normal pressure hydrocephalus? Syndrome of enlarged ventricles, dementia, urinary incontinence and gait apraxia, usually in the elderly - CSF pressure and constituents are typically normal
What is bulbar palsy? Lower motor neurone weakness of muscles whose cranial nerve (IX-XII) nuclei lie in the medulla (bulb)
What are the clinical features of bulbar palsy? Flaccid, fasciculating tongue (sac of worms)| absent jaw jerk (or normal)| speech is quiet, hoarse or nasal
What is pseudobulbar palsy? Bilateral upper motor neurone lesions of lower cranial nerves - corticobulbar tract
What are the clinical features of pseudobulbar palsy? Weakness of the tongue and pharyngeal muscles - stiff, slow spastic tongue (not wasted), dysarthria with a stiff, slow voice (dry and gravelly) and dysphagia - gag and palatal reflexes are preserved and the jaw jerk is exaggerated - emotional lability
What is emotional lability? Inappropriate laughing or crying - often present in pseudo-bulbar palsy
What is a absence seizure? Brief pause in activity less than 10 seconds, affects children - unresponsive to stimuli but still conscious, quick recovery, risk tonic-clonic later in life - 3Hz spike and wave pattern on EEG - generalised seizure treat with valproate
What is a atonic seizure? Sudden loss of tone, flaccidity is the key word - looks like a faint, consciousness is preserved - primary generalised seizure, treat with valproate - usually begins in childhood, continues into adulthood
What is a tonic clonic seizure? Tonic phase (stiff, tongue biting, legs extended, arms flexed, pupils dilated, cyanosis (not breathing)) followed by clonic (convulsions, limb jerking, frothy, eyes roll) - lose consciousness, post-ictal confusion - treat with valproate
What is a Jacksonian seizure? Partial (focal) seizure affecting the frontal lobe - primary motor cortex - one side of body - progresses from twitching/tingling in a finger/big toe/corner of mouth then marches over a few seconds to the entire hand/foot/facial muscles - Carbamazepine
What is a temporal lobe seizure? Partial seizure - unreality, depersonalisation, derealisation classic as is hallucinations (visual/smell/taste) - deja vu/emotional disturbance - dysphasia during/post-ictal - vomiting, diarhhoea etc - carbamazepine
What is a functional seizure? Non-epileptic attack disorder - psychological cause, not consciously mediated - negative memory replayed triggers seizure - duration over 2 mins, gradual onset, fluctuating course, violent thrashing movements, side to side head movements - CBT etc
What is a febrile convulsion? Usually kids aged 6 months-5 years, boys more than girls - usually associated with viral infection, no underlying CNS infection - generalised tonic-clonic seizure usually only a few mins - genetic predisposition, ^risk epilepsy, benzos if prolonged
What are the features of a subdural haemorrhage? Subdural haematoma due to tearing of bridging veins in subdural space - old people have cerebral atrophy - alcohol commonly involved - gradual onset, can often be chronic in elderly - crescent shape on CT
What are the features of a subarachnoid haemorrhage? Usually due to berry aneurysms, hypertension and smoking increase risk of bleed - explosive sudden onset - signs of meninginisms (vomiting, photophobia, neck pain - xanthrochromia (yellowing of CSF)
What is the treatment of subarachnoid haemorrhage? Nimodipine to prevent cerebral ischaemia, nitroprusside as a vasodilator for hypertension - CT angio to treat aneurysm
What are the features of giant cell arteritis? Headache, tenderness, pain in jaw muscles, vasculitis
What is the treatment of giant cell arteritis? Steroids and aspirin
What is the treatment of benign intracranial hypertension? Prednisolone acutely, acetazolamide chronically to reduce ICP
What is the treatment of cluster headaches? Acutely - sumatriptan + high flow ozygen | Prevention - verapamil
What aspects of sensation would be affected in left T10 cord compression? Ipsilateral dorsal column - fine touch, vibration and proprioception | Contralateral spinothalamic - pain and temperature| Below the umbilicus
What are the features of central cord syndrome? Loss of pain and temperature (spinothalamic) sensation of both arms and upper chest, proprioception and fine touch are relatively unaffected - cape like spinothalamic loss, legs okay - usually due to hyperextension in patient with cervical spondylosis
WHat are the features of a conus lesion? Most distal part of spinal cord (T12-L2) before cauda equina - more lower back pain - symmetric hyperreflexic distal paresis of lower legs - fasciculations - ED common, more sudden bilateral presentation
What do posterior (dorsal) roots of the spinal cord carry? Sensory fibres towards the cord
What do anterior (ventral) roots of the spinal cord carry? Motor fibres away from the cord
What is the function of the corticospinal tract? Carried descending motor fibres, cross at medulla
What is the functional of the dorsal column? Carriers ascending neurones mediating fine touch, vibration and proprioception, ascend on same side and cross at the medulla - symptoms on same side
What is the function of the spinocerebellar tract? Ascending sensory tract, carries fibres for proprioception from lower limb
What is the function of the spinothalamic tract? Ascending sensory tract, neurones responding to pain and temperature, cross at spinal level - gives symptoms on opposite side
What is the function of the reticulospinal tract? Descending motor tract involved in posture and crude, imprecise movements, originate in the reticular fomation
What are examples of corticospinal/pyramidal/UMN symptoms? Drift of the upper limb when outstretched| Weakness and loss of skilled movement| Changes in tone and tendon reflexes (initially flaccid then spasticity)| Changes in superficial reflexes| No muscle wasting| Normal electrical excitability of muscles
What will a lesion in the motor cortex cause? Weakness and/or loss of skilled movement confined to one contralateral limb - a defect in cognitive function (e.g. aphasia) and focal epilepsy may occur
What will a lesion in the internal capsule cause in relation to the corticospinal tract? Small lesion cause a large deficit as fibres are tightly packed - can get sudden, dense, contralateral hemiplegias
What will a lesion in the pons cause in relation to the corticospinal tract? Rarely confined to the corrticospinal tract -adjacent structures may be involved - CN VI and VII nuclei - dipolopia, facial weakness etc
What will a lesion in the spinal cord cause in relation to the corticospinal tract?
Why is ceftriaxone used in bacterial meningitis? Has a longer half-life than penicillin so needs fewer doses and so is more likely to be used effectively
What circumstances would you see tuberculous meningitis in, and how would you treat? Reactivation, elderly - previous TB seen on CXR - high index of suspicion - isoniazid + rifampicin key (add pyrazinamide + ethambutol)
What is cryptococcal meningitis and how is it treated? Fungal, mainly seen in HIV disease - CD4 <100 - disseminated infection - subtle neurological presentation - aseptic on CSF - cryptococcal antigen present - IV amphotericin B/flucytosine - fluconazole
What are the principles of lumbar puncture in suspected meningitis? LP only if clinically feasible - be cautious if increased ICP possible, do CT - treat with antibiotics first - utilise sitting position if necessary - haematology, microbiology, chemistry & second haematology bottles
What are the typical CSF findings in viral meningitis? Lymphocytes - negative gram stain - negtaive bacterial antigen detection - normal or slightly high protein - glucose usually normal
What are the typical CSF findings in bacterial meningitis? Predominantly polymorphs - positive for gram stain - positive bacterial antigen detection - blood glucose reduced - high protein
What are the typical CSF findings in tuberculous meningitis? Predominantly lymphocytes - gram stain can be positive or negative - high or very high protein - blood glucose reduced
What is "aseptic" meningitis? Term used to mean non-pyogenic bacterial meningitis - spinal fluid formula with low number of WBC, minimally elevated protein, normal glucose - can be infectious (HSV, syphilis, TB, cryptococcus etc) or non-infectious (carcinomatous, sarcoidosis etc)
What are the indications for hospital admission in acute adult bacterial meningitis? Signs of meningeal irritation - impaired conscious level - a petechial rash - febrile or unwell - any illness, especially headache, any close contacts with meningococcal infection
What action should be taken on hospital admission in suspected acute adult bacterial meningitis? Take blood and coagulation screen - treatment - throat swab - disrupt and swab or aspirate any petchial or purpuric skin lesions - CT scan in those with papilloedema or focal neurological signs
What are the warning signs in acute bacterial meningitis? Marked depressive conscious level (GCS<12) or a fluctuating conscious level (fall in GCS >2) - focal neurology - seizure before or at presentation - shock - bradycardia and hypertension - papilloedema
What general measures can you take in treatment of acute CNS infections? Elevate head of bad, increase venous return, decreasing ICP - monitor neurological status - assess pain and restlessness on a regular basis - administer analgesia, avoiding narcotics - dark, quiet room
When should steroids be given in suspected bacterial meningitis? Before or with the first dose of antiobiotics and then every 6 hours for 4 days - reduces unfavourable outcomes and mortality
When should steroids not be given in suspected bacterial meningitis? Post-surgical meningitis, severe immunocompromise, meningococcal or septic shock or those hypertensive to steroids
What is the contact prophylaxis regimens for bacterial meningitis? Rifampicin for adults and children >12 (reduced efficacy of OCP, red colouration of urine and contact lenses) OR ceftriaxone IM as a single dose in adults
What vaccines are available against meningitis? Neisseria meningitidis (serogroups A and C - travel vaccination, group C conjugate) - Haemophilus influenzae (HiB - noenates) - Strep pneumoniae (penumococcal vaccines)
What are the symptoms of rhabdomyolysis? Triad of myalgia, muscle weakness and myoglobinuria
What are the clinical features of polymyositis? Symmetrical, progressive proximal weakness developing over weeks to months - raised CK that responds to steorids
What are the clinical features of dermatomyositis? Clinically similar to polymyositis - symmetrical, progressive weakness developing over weeks to months - but with associated skin lesions, "heliotrope rash" on face - up to 50% have underlying malignancy
What are the trigeminal autonomic cephalgias? Primary headache disorders in the t rigeminal distribution - prominent ipislateral cranial autonomic features - cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicranias, SUNCT, hemicranias continua
What are the features of upper motor neurone lesions? Drift of upper limb - weakness and loss of skilled movement (upper limb flexors > extensors, lower limb extensors stronger than flexors) - changes in tone and tendon/superficial reflexes - no muscle wasting
What are the changes in tone and tendon reflexes in upper motor neurone lesions? Acutely - flaccid paralysis and loss of tendon reflexes | Later - increase in tone (spasticity), tendon reflexes become exaggerated
What are the changes in superficial reflexes in upper motor neurone lesions? Normal flexor plantar response becomes extensor (+ve Babinski) | abdominal (and cremasteric) reflexes are abolished on the side affected
What are the three main patterns of upper motor neurone disorders? Hemiparesis (wekaness of limbs on one side) - paraparesis (both lower limbs) - tetraparesis
What is the pattern of a UMN motor cortex lesions? Weakness and/or loss of skilled movement confined to one contralateral limb (monoparesis - isolated motor cortex lesion) | defect in cognitive function (e.g. aphasia) and focal epilepsy may occur
What is the pattern of a UMN internal capsule lesion? Small lesions cause large deficit - e.g. middle cerebral artery branch infarction produces a sudden, dense, contralateral hemiplegia
What is the pattern of a UMN pontine lesion? Rarely confined to the corticospinal tract | adjacent strutures e.g. VIth and VIIth nuclei are involved - diplopia, facial weakness, internuclear ophthalmoplegia
What is the pattern of a UMN spinal cord lesion? Isolated lesion of one lateral corticospinal tract causes an ipsilateral UMN lesion, the level indicated by changes in reflexes (e.g. absent biceps C5/6) - features of a Brown-Sequard syndrome and muscle wasting at the level of the lesion
What is the extrapyramidal system? General term for basal ganglia motor systems - corpus striatum (caudate nucleus, globus pallidus + putamen), subthalamic nuclues, substantia nigra and parts of the thalamus
What features are present in extrapyramidal disorders? Reduction in speed (bradykinesia) or akinesia (no movement) with muscle rigidity| involuntary movements (tremor, chorea, hemiballismus[unilateral, wildly,flinging], athotosis[involuntary writhing movements], dystonia[muscles contract uncontrollably])
What is the classic manifestation os a cerebellar lesion? Ataxia (unsteadiness) is characteristic
What side of the body do lateral cerebellar lobe lesions affect? Ipsilateral side
Signs of cerebellar lesions? DASHING - dysdiadochokinesia (impaired ability to perform rapid alternating movements, ataxia, speech (scanning, dysarthria), hypotonia, intention tremor, nystagmus, gait (ataxic - wide based)
What is titubation? Rhythmic head tremor as either forward and back (yes-yes) movements or rotary (no-no) movements - mainly seen when cerebellar connections are involved
What is the role of the basal ganglia? Facilitate purposeful movement, inhibit unwanted movements and have a role in posture and muscle tone
What are the characteristics of basal ganglia dysfunction? Affect contralateral side of the body - lesions cause abnormal muscle control, changes in muscle tone and dyskinesias (including tremor, chorea and myoclonus)
What is the pathogenesis of Parkinson's disease? Pars compacta region of the substantia nigra undergoes progressive neuronal degeneration - eosinophilic inclusion (Lewy) bodies develop | degeneration also occurs in basal ganglia nuclei | loss of dopamine in the striatum
What are the classical clinical features of Parkinson's disease? TRAP - tremor (pill rolling) - rigidity (increased tone) - akinesia (loss or impairment of voluntary movement, bradykinesia, cogwheeling) - postural instability (stooping, shuffling gait,)
What are the risk factors for developing Parkinson's disease? Old age (mean age of onset is 65) - family history - males more than females
What is cogwheeling? Characteristically occurs in Parkinson's - stiffness with tremor - rigidity is broken up into a jerky resistance to passive movement
What cognitive changes can occur in Parkinson's disease? Cognitive decline may occur early - dementia - depression is common
What other symptoms can occur in Parkinson's disease? Ansomia, visual hallucinations, REM sleep disorder, constipation, heartburn, dribbling, dysphagia and weight loss, urinary difficulties, skin is greasy and sweating excessive
What is the course of Parkinson's disease? Worsens over the years, slowly progressing, remissions are unknown
What are reflex changes in Parkinson's disease? Reflexes are brisk - plantar reflexes ramin flexor
What investigations would you carry out in suspected Parkinson's disease? Structural brain imaging (CT/MRI) - dopamine functional imaging (PET/DAT scan) - levodopa challenge (if they improve with levodopa then increased likelihood of Parkinson's?
What is the treatment of Parkinson's disease? Levodopa and/or dopaminergic agonists produce striking improvement (increase dopamine) - only prescribe when symptomatic - give in combination with benserazide which reduces peripheral side effects, particulalry nausea
Does levodopa alter the natural progression of Parkinson's disease? No
What are the unwanted effects of levodopa? Nausea and vomiting, confusion, formed visual pseudo-hallucinations, chorea, after several years levodopa becomes ineffective, as treatment continues, episode of immobility develop, falls are common, chronic levodopa-induced movement disorder
What are some examples of dopamine receptor agonists and when are they used in Parkinson's disease? (Pramipexole) Ropinirole is the usual drug of choice, as an alternative or addition to levodopa - less effective but have fewer later unwanted dyskinesias - use in those below 65 (levodopa for over 65) - vomiting common, haemolytic anaemia unusual
What are the clinical features and causes of drug induced parkinson's? Tends to be symmetrical, coarse postural tremor | neuroleptics (phenothiazines, haloperidol) TCAs, | unwanted effects tend not to progress and settle when drugs are stopped
What are the clinical features of vascular parkinsonism? Affects lower limbs - resting tremor is uncommon - poor levodopa response - signs of brain vascular lesions may be present (spasticity, hemiparesis, pseudobulbar palsy)
What are the signs of lower motor neurone lesions? Seen in voluntary muscles - weakness, wasting, hypotonia, reflex loss, fasciculation, fibrillation potentials, muscle contractures, tropic changes in skin and nails
Where is pain of a spinal root compression felt? In the myotome supplied by the root, also get tingling discomfort in the dermatome - pain is worse on manouveres that stretch the root or increase pressure in the spinal subarachnoid space
What are common causes of spinal root lesions? Cervical and lumbar disc protrusions
What are the symptoms of a dorsal column lesion? Vague - tingling, electric shock like sensations, clumsiness, numbness, band-like sensations - stamping gait - loss of vibration sense, light touch and proprioception - Lhermitte's sign (electric shock like sensations on neck flexion)
What are the symptoms of spinothalamic tract lesions? Pure spinothalamic lesions cause contralateral loss of pain, pressure, coarse touch and temperature (2P's and 2 T's)sensation with a clear level below the lesion - dissociated sensory loss - i.e. painless burns - perforating ulcers and charcot joints
What are the three causes of acute compression of the spinal cord? Cord transection (complete lesion) - Brown-sequard syndrome (hemisection) - central cord syndrome
What are the clinical features of central cord syndrome? Hyperflexion or extension injury to already stenotic neck - predominantly upper limb weakness - "Cape" like spinothalamic sensory loss - lower limb preserved
What features predominant in chronic cord compression? UMN signs - increased tone (spasticity), muscle weakness, increased reflexes - leads to spastic parapesis/tetra/quadri
What are the features of Brown-Sequard syndrome? Contralateral loss of pain, pressure and temperature (spinothalamic) - ipsilateral loss of proprioception, vibration sense, two point discrimination and muscle function
From what levels does the spinal cord extend between? C1-L1 where it becomes the conus medularis
What is the first palpable spinous process? C7
What are the five nerves of the brachial plexus? Musculocutaneous (C5-7), Axillary (C5-T1), Median (C5-T1), Radial (C5-T1) , Ulnar (C8-T1)
What is the blood supply of the spinal cord? Anterior spinal artery and a plexus on the posterior cord
What are some causes of spinal cord compression? Spinal cord neoplasm - TB - disc and vertebral lesion - spinal epidural abscess, epidural haemorrhage and haematoma
What is syringomyelia? Progressive expansion of a fluid cavity in the spinal cord (cervical/thoracic)- may be due to congenital causes, tumour ot trauma - classically causes spinothalamic loss where the cavity occupies the central cord
What is the management of a spinal cord compression? MRI shows cord pathology - plain film for bony pathology - surgical exploration is often necessary - decompression - if not infective give steroids§
What is syringobulbia? Fluid filled cavity in the branstem?
What is a Arnold-Chiari malformation? Cerebellum herniates through foramen magnum - frequently associated with syringomyelia
What are the clinical features of syringomyelia? Upper limb pain is exacerbated by exertion/coughing - dissociated spinothalamic loss (pain, pressure, temperature, coarse touch) - loss of upper limb reflexes, muscle wasting in hand and forearm, spastic parapesis, neuropathic joints, trophic skin changes
What are the clinical features of syringobulbia? Brainstem signs - tongue atrophy and fasciculation, bulbar palsy, nystagmus, Horner's syndrome, hearing loss and impairment of facial sensation
What are the investigations/management or syringomyelia/syringobulbia? MRI demonstrates cavity and herniation - gradually progressive - no curative treatment, sudden deterioration can occur - surgical decompression at foramen magnum sometimes slows deterioration
What is the most common metabolic cause for spinal cord damage? Vitamin B12 deficiency - may also have megaloblastic anaemia, other neurological changes: mental slowing, cerebellar ataxia & peripheral neuropathy
What is lathyrism? An endemic spastic parapesis of central India
What is konzo? Tropical ataxic neuropathy - West Africa and Caribbean - subacute spastic parapesis or quadripesis - sensory ataxia, loss of reflexes, deafness and optic neuropathy
What is acute transverse myelopathy? A cord lesion and parapesis (or paraplegia) occurring with viral infections, MS, mixed connective tissue disease and other inflammaotry and vascular conditions - MRI required to exclude cord compression
When may anterior spinal artery occlusion occur? Thrombotic or embolic vascular disease (endocarditis, severe hypotension, atheroma, diabetes mellitus, polycythaemia, syphilis and polyarteritis) - sometimes during surgery, or follows aortic dissection and trauma - isolated event
What is the management of paraplegia? Any intercurrent infection is potentially dangerous and should be treated early - chronic renal failure most common cause of death - catheterisation - acute bowel evacuation - skin care (sores) - passive physiotherapy (prevent contractures) - rehab
What is motor neurone disease? Progressive deterioration of lower and upper motor neurones in the psinal cord, in cranial nerve nuclei and within the cortex - degeneration of the motor cortex and anterior horns of the spinal cord
What is the epidemiology of motor neurone disease? Slight male predominance, onset occurs typically in the over 50's
What are the four classifications/causes of motor neurone disease? Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) 70% - progressive bulbar palsy 20% - progressive muscular atrophy 5% - primary lateral sclerosis 5%
What are the clinical features of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis? Disease of the lateral corticospinal tracts - muscle atrophy - progressive spastic tetra/parapesis with added LMN signs and fasciculations - weeks to months - painless wasting without sensory loss - assymetrical isolated weakness - "mixed signs"
What are the investigations for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis? Neurophysiology (EMG with evidence of fasciculations) - MRI brain and spine to exclude other causes - CK to exclude myopathy - overnight pulse oximetry and ABG
What are the clinical features of progressive muscular atrophy? Wasting beginning in the small muscles of one hand (or both), spread inexorably - wasting follows on both sides - fasciculation is common - cramps may occur - weakness - often widespread - tendon reflexes are lost - sphincter disturbances occur late
What are the clinical features of progressive bulbar and pseudobulbar palsy? Lower cranial nerve nuclei and their supranuclear connections initially (CN IX-XII)- dysarthria, dysphagia, nasal regurgitation of fluids and choking are common- women>men - Bulbar & pseuedo palsy: e.g. wasted fibrillating tongue with spastic weak palate
What are the clinical features of primary lateral sclerosis? Loss of betz cells - least common form - confined to UMN - progressive tetraparesis with terminal pseudobulbar palsy
How is a diagnosis of motor neurone disease made? Largely clinical - denervation (except PLS) is confirmed by EMG: chronic partial denervation with preserved motor conduction velocity - CSF normal
What is Kennedy's syndrome? X linked bulbar and spinal muscular atrophy - unulateral, ipsilaterl optic atrophy - contralateral papilloedema 2nd to raised ICP - central scotoma - anosmia - upper motor signs are not seen - memory loss, nausea & vomiting
What is the course of motor neurone disease? Remission is unknown - progresses, spreading gradually, and causes death (often from bronchopneumonia) - survival for more than 3 years is unusual
What is the treatment of motor neurone disease? Riluzole (Na channel blocker, inhibits glutamate release) slows progression slightly (extra 3 months of life) - spasticity may be helped by baclofen - amitriptyline/propantheline for drooling - ventilator support and feeding by gastrotomy helps prolong
What is the definition of dementia? Progressive decline of cognitive function, usually affecting the cortex as a whole, though sometimes patchily
What are the clinical features of dementia? Memory is especially affected, intellect gradually falls - loss of emotional control, deterioration of social behaviour and loss of motivation
What is the epidemiology of dementia 10% of those over 65, 20% of those over 80
What are the most common causes of dementia? Alzheimer's, fronto-temporal, vascular and dementia with lewy bodies
What is the commonest form of dementia? Alzheimer's - accounts for over 65% of dementia in any age group
What are the clinical features of Alzheimer's? Progressive memory loss - decline in language - apraxia (loss of skilled motor tasks) - agnosia (failure to recognise objects) - progressive loss of executive function (organising, planning and sequencing) - behavioural change (agitation)- loss of insight
What brain changes are seen on imaging? Decreased size of brain, widening of sulci, narrowing of gyri - compensatory dilatation of ventricles, secondary hydrocephalus
What is the onset and course of Alzheimer's like? Gradual onset - progressive course over 10+ years, with death in a state of extreme cognitive decline
What late changes occur in Alzheimer's? Disturbances of gait, motor and occasionally sensory abnormalities
What is the neuropathology in Alzheimer's disease? Loss of neurones with astrocytosis - neurofibrillary tangles (in cell bodies, tau protein with ubiquitin) - senile plaques (extracellular, beta-amyloid) - amyloid angiopathy - seen in frontal, temporal, parietal cortex, hiipocampi etc - apoptosis follows,
What are the neurochemical changes in Alzheimer's disease? Marked reduction in choline transferase, acetylcholine, noradrenaline and serotonin
What are the clinical features of dementia with Lewy bodies? Dementia predominating feature - daily fluctuations in alertness, attention & cognition - prominent memory loss may not occur early - depression and sleep disorders occur - recurrent formed visual hallucinations are common - Parkinsonism with falls
What is the pathology of dementia with Lewy bodies? Degeneration of the substantia nigra, the remaining nerve cells contain abnormal structures called Lewy bodies (hallmark) - detected by staining for uniquitin
How common is dementia with Lewy bodies? 25% of dementias
What are the features of extreme sensitivity to neuroleptic medication in patients with dementia with Lewy bodies? Up to 50% - worsening cognition, heavy sedation, increased or possibly irreversible parkinsonism, or symptoms resembling neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which can be fatal. (NMS causes severe fever, muscle rigidity and breakdown -KF)
What is the clinical course of vascular dementia? Can be sudden onset & step-wise deterioration
What features are seen on MRI in vascular dementia? Widespread vessel disease - could be one large infarct too
What are the characteristic features of Pick's disease? Slowly progressing changes in character, personality and social deterioration leading to impairment of intellect, memory, speech and communication - changes in eating habits - lower attention span - usually presents earlier (50-60) - frontal & temporal
What are the clinical features of vascular dementia? Can depend on the area of infarct
What is the course of Pick's disease? Mean length is 7 years - rapidly progressive
What is the neuropathology of Pick's disease? Pick's cells (swollen neurons) and intracytoplasmic filamentous inclusions known as Pick's bodies - neuronal loss and astrocytosis
What are the clinical features of frontotemporal dementia? Progressive deterioration of social behaviour, disinhibition and personality develops in middle life, followed by decline in memory, intellect and language
What is the classification of Pick's disease? A type of fronto-temporal dementia
How common is fronto-temporal dementia? 3% of dementias
What will imaging show in fronto-temporal dementia? Selective atrophy of frontal and temporal lobes
What pathological changes are seen in fronto-temporal dementia? No excess of senile plaques or neurofibrillary tangles - cytoplasmic inclusion bodies (silver staining) - Pick's bodies are seen
What are some examples of rarer causes of dementia? idiopathic Parkinson's, Huntington's, Creutzfeldt-Jakob, Wilson's, Whipples, late stages of MS
What investigations would you do in dementia? History and basic examination - cognitive testing - collateral history - imaging: MRI, PET - if younger then: EEG, CSF exam and brain biopsy
What is the management of dementia? Rare that treatable cause is found - supportive, preserve dignity - anticholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine and galantamine) or memantine (NMDA receptor antagonist) may slightly slow rate of cognitive decline
What is cerebral palsy? Chronic disorder of posture and movement caused by non-progressive CNS lesions sustained before 2 years old resulting in delayed motor development, evolving CNS signs, learning disability & epilepsy
What are examples of causes of brain damage in children? Most are antenatal events unrelated to birth trauma - hypoxia, cerebral haemorrhage and/or infarction, trauma, prolonged seizures (status epilepticus), hypoglycaemia
What is athetosis? Continuous succession of slow, writhing, involuntary movements of the hands and feet and other body parts
What are the clinical features of cerebral palsy? Failure to achieve normal milestones - weakness, paralysis, seizures, language/speech problems - specific motor syndromes - spastic diplegia - athetoid - infantile hemiparesis - congenital ataxia
What is the management of cerebral palsy? Physio - speech and language - OT - botox - selective surgery - orthotic devices -
What is dysraphism? Failure of normal fusion of the foetal neural tube leads to a group of congenital abnormalities
What are the causes of dysraphism? Folate deficiency during pregnancy is a contributor - antiepileptic drugs (valproate) are also implicated
What are the signs/symptoms of dysraphism? Anencephaly - meningoencephalocele - spina bifida - spina bifida occulta - meningomyelocele
What is anencephaly? Absence of a major portion of the brain, skull and scalp - during embryonic development
What is meningoencephalocele? Brain and meninges extrude through a midline skull defect - can be minor or massive
What is spina bifida? Failure of lumbosacral neural tube fusion
What is spina bifida occulta? Isolate failure of vertebral arch fusion (usually lumbar), often seen incidentally on x rays - dimple or tuft of hair may overlie the anomoly
What is a meningomyelocele? Elements of spinal cord and lumbosacral roots within a meningeal sac - this herniates through a vertebral defect - if severe can lead to lower limb and spincter paralysis - should be closed within 24 hrs of birth
What is a platybasia? A congenital anomaly - malformed relationship between the occipital bone and cervical spine - upward invagination of the foramen magnum and skull base - lower cranial nerves, medulla, upper c cord and roots are affected
What are the features of neurofibromatosis type 1? Multiple skin neurofibromas and pigmentation (cafe au lait patches), freckling in skin folds - arise from nerilemmal sheath - autosomal dominant (complete penetrance) - plexifrom neurofibromas on major nerves & proximal nerve roots, sometimes spinal cord
What is the management and treatment of neurofibromatosis type 1? Yearly measurement of blood pressure and cutaneous survey - surgical removal is pressure symptoms develop
What are the clinical features of neurofibromatosis type 2? Many neural tumours occur and some associated abnormalities
What is more common neurofibromatosis type 1 or 2? Type 1
What neural tumours occur in neurofibromatosis type 2? Many neural tumours occur: meningioma, (bilateral) acoustic (CN VIII) schwannoma (sensinoneural loss), glioma (including optic nerve), plexifrom neuroma, cutaneous neurofribroma
What associated abnormalities can occur in neurofibromatosis type 2? Scoliosis, orbital haemangioma, local gigantism of a limb, phaechromocytoma and ganglioneuroma, renal artery stenosis, pulmonary fibrosis, obstructive cardiomyopathy, fibrous dysplasia of bone, cafe au lait patches
What is the treatment of neurofibromatosis type 2? Tumours causing pressure symptoms within the nervous system require excision if feasible
What is the inheritance of neurofibromatosis type 2? Autosomal dominant - 50% occur de novo
What are the clinical features of tuberous sclerosis? Congenital - shagreen patches ("shark skin") - ash leaf macules on skin - adenoma sebaceum (butterfly on face) - epilepsy - cognitive impairment (decreased IQ) - haemartoma formation - retinal phakomas (glial masses) - renal tumours
What is the inheritance of tuberous sclerosis and how common is it? Rare - autosomal dominant
What are the clinical features of Sturge-Weber syndrome? Congenital - xtensive port-wine naevus on one side of face (usually 5th nerve distribution) with meningeal angioma - focal epilepsy - vascular eye abnormalities
What genes are involved in tuberous sclerosis and what do they code for? TSC 1 and 2 - which code for the proteins hamartin and tuberin (usually tumour growth suppressors)
What is the treatment for Sturge-Weber syndrome? Laser therapy - lamotrigine/carbamazepine for epilepsy
What are the features of Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome? Autosomal dominant - retinal and cerebeller haemangioblastomas (cord, cerebellum, renal) - visual impairment, ataxic, dizziness, weakness, hypertension
What is Friedrich's ataxia? Autosomal recessive progressive degeneration of dorsal root ganglia, spinocerebellar tracts, corticospinal tracts and cerebellar Purkinje cells - abnormal function of mitochondrial ATP
What are the clinical features of Friedrich's ataxia? Ataxia of gait and trunk, nystagmus, dysarthria, absent lower limb position and vibration sense, absent lower limb reflexes, optic atrophy, pes cavus, cardiomyopathy
What are the two main cellular structures of peripheral nerves? Nerve nucleus with its axon - myeline sheath, produced by Schwann cells between each node of Ranvier
What is the blood supply to peripheral nerves? Via the vasa nervorum
What are the mechanisms of nerve damage? Demyelination, axonal degeneration, Wallerian degeneration, compression, infarction and infiltration
What occurs in demyelination? Schwann cell damage leads to myelin sheath disruption - causes marked slowing of conduction
What occurs in axonal degeneration? Axon damage leads to nerve fibre dying back from the periphery - conduction velocity remains norma initially (axonal continuity in surviving fibres) - occurs typically in toxic neuropathies
What occurs in Wallerian degeneration of peripheral nerves? Describes change following nerve section - both axon and distal myelin sheath degenerate over several weeks
What occurs in peripheral nerve compression? Focal demyelination at the point of compression causes disruption in myelin sheath - typically in entrapment neuropathies
What occurs in peripheral nerve infarction? Microinfarction of vasa nervorum - occurs in diabetes and arteritis - Wallerian degeneration occurs distal to the ischaemic zone
What occurs in peripheral nerve infiltration? Infiltration of peripheral nerves by inflammatory cells - occurs in leprosy and granulomas (e.g. sarcoid)
How does peripheral nerve regeneration occur? Either by remyelination (Schwann cells) or by axonal growth down the nerve sheath (sprouting from axonal stump)
What is the definition of neuropathy? Pathological process affecting a peripheral nerve or nerves
What is the definition of mononeuropathy? Pathological process affecting a single nerve
What is the definition of mononeuritis multiplex? Pathological process affecting several or multiple nerves
What is the definition of polyneuropathy? Diffuse, symmetrical disease, usually commencing peripherally - course may be acute, chronic, static, progressive, relapsing or towards recovery - are motor, sensory, sensorimotor and autonomic - classified broadly into demyelinating and axonal
What nerves are affected first in peripheral neuropathy? Long fibres - get length dependent pattern (glove and stocking)
What are the clinical features of a polyneuropathy? Widespread loss of tendon reflexes is typical, with distal weakness and distal sensory loss
What is the definition of a radiculopathy? Disease affecting nerve roots and plexopathy (brachial or lumbosacral) - disc protrusion commonly
What is the definition os a myelopathy? Disease of the cord
What nerve is affected in carpal tunnel syndrome and what are its roots? Median nerve - C6-T1
What diseases is carpal tunnel syndrome commonly seen in? Hypothyroidism, diabetes, pregnancy (third trimester 10%), obesity, rheumatoid disease, acromegaly, amyloid, renal dialysis patients, wrist trauma
What are the clinical features of carpal tunnel syndrome? Nocturnal tingling and pain in the hand and/or forearm followed by weakness of the thenar muscles - sensory loss in the palm and radial 3 1/2 fingers develops - wasting of abductor pollicis brevis - tinnels sign and phalens' sign positive
What are tinnel's and phalen's sign and what disease would they be positive in? Tinnel's - percussion of the median nerve at wrist to provoke parasthesiae | Phalen's - dorsiflexion of wrist for 30-60s | carpal tunnel syndrome
What are the treatment options for carpal tunnel syndrome? Wrist splint at night or local steroid injection in the wrist gives relief in mild cases - in pregnancy it is self-limiting - reducing obesity helps too - surgical decompression is definite treatment
What nerve is affected in cubital tunnel syndrome and what are its roots? Ulnar nerve - C7-T1
What are the clinical features of ulnar nerve compression? Weakness and wasting of the ulnar innervated muscles leads to clawing of the hand - hypothenar muscles, interossei and medical two lumbricals - with sensory loss in the ulnar one and a half fingers
What is used for diagnosis of peripheral nerve compression and entrapments? Nerve conduction studies
What is the treatment of ulnar nerve compression? Decompression and transposition of the nerve at the elbow is sometimes helpful - rest and avoiding pressure - elbow splint at night
Where else can the ulnar nerve get entrapped other than the cubital tunnel? Guyan's canal - deep, solely motor branch of ulnar nerve is damaged in the palm from repeated trauma (ie. from crutch, screwdriver handle or cycle handlebars)
What are the roots of the radial nerve and what is its general function? C5-T1 - opens the fist
Where does the radial nerve get compressed and what are the clinical features? Compressed acutely against the humerus (fractured humerus, arm draped over hard chair for hours ("Saturday night palsy") - wrist drop and weakness of brachioradialis and finger extension follow - anatomical snuff box sensation affected
What other upper limb nerve compression causes wrist drop? POsterior interosseus nerve in the forearm leads to wrist drop without weakness of brachioradialis
What are the roots of the common peroneal (fibular) nerve, where does it get compressed and what are the clinical features? L4-S1 - head of fibula - prolonged squatting, yoga, pressure from cast, prolonged bed rest - foot drop and weakness of ankle eversion - ankle jerk preserved - numbness on anterolateral border of dorsum of foot and/or lower shin - recover within months
What condition is mononeuritis multiplex highly suggestive of? Vasculitis - 2 or more peripheral nerves
What is Guillain-Barre syndrome? Acute autoimmune inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy - paralysis follows 1-3 weeks after an infection that is often trivial and seldom identified (Campylobacter, CMV, zoster, HIV, EBV, vaccinations) - antibody response against peripheral nerves
What are the clinical features of Gullain-Barre syndrome? Paralysis follows 1-3 weeks after infection- weakness of distal limb muscles and or distal numbness - symptoms progress proximally (days-6 weeks) - loss of tendon reflexes - peak symptoms 10-14 days - monophasic (doesn't recur)
How is the diagnosis of Gullain-Barre syndrome made? Clinical grounds - nerve conduction (slowing and/or block) - CSF protein raised - antiganglioside antibodies - examination may be normal initially
What is the prognosis in Gullain-Barre if there is complete paralysis? It is compatible with complete recovery!
What is the management of Gullain-Barre syndrome? Ventilator support - subcutaneous heparin to reduce risk of venous thrombosis - IV immunoglobulin within first 2 weeks as reduces duration and severity (screen for IgA deficiency before) - no steroids
What is the course of Gullain-Barre syndrome? Imrpovement towards independent mobility is gradula over many months but may be incomplete
What is chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculopathy (CIDP)? Autoimmune demyelinating disease of peripheral nerves
What are the clinical features of CIDP? Develops over weeks or months, usually relapsing and remitting, but generally persists long term - distal onset of weakness & sensory loss in limbs, with peripheral nerve enlargemenet and increased CSF protein
What features would you find investigation of CIDP? Some cases have plaques resembling MS lesions - CSF protein is raised - segmental demyelination in nerve biopsy
What is the treatment of CIDP? Responds to long-term, low dose steroids and to IV immunoglobulin (used for exacerbations)
What is the course of CIDP? With drug therapy - most CIPD cases run a mild course over many years
What are the clinical features of diphtheritic neuropathy? Palatal weakness followed by pupillary paralysis and a sensorimotor neuropathy occur several weeks after the throat infection
What neuropathies can occur in diabetes mellitus? Symmetrical sensory polyneuropathy - acute painful neuropathy - mononeuropathy and multiple mononeuropathy (cranial nerve lesions or isolate peripheral nerve lesions (e.g. Carpal tunnel syndrome) - diabetic amytrophy - autonomic neuropathy
What neuropathy is sometimes seen in thyroid disorders? A mild chronic sensotimotor neuropathy
What are the clinical features of porphyria? Episodes of a severe, mainly proximal neuropathy in the limbs, sometimes with abdominal pain, confusion (acute psychosis) and coma - alcohol, barbiturates and intercurrent infection can precipitate attacks
What are the clinical features of alcohol neuropathy? POlyneuropathy, mainly lower limbs, calf pain is common - repsonse to thiamine is variable - recurrence and progression occur with even small amounts of alcohol
What is Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome? Thiamine-responsive encephalopathy due to ischaemic damage in the brainstem and its connections
What are the clinical features of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome? Eye signs (nystagmus, CN VI palsy, fixed pupils, papilloedema) - ataxia (broad-based gait) - cognitive changes (amnestic syndrome, confabulation, restlessness, stupor and coma) - delirium tremens - hypothermia and hypotension (hypothalamic involvement)
What is the treatment of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome? Thiamine parenterally - give slowly as risk of anaphylaxis, otherwise harmless - untreated leads to an irreversible amnestic state
What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease and what are the clinical features? Hereditary| distal limb wasting and weakness (typically motor) - slowly progresses (starts in puberty) |mostly legs |variable loss of sensation and reflexes| when advanced, legs resemble inverted champagne bottle| palpable nerve| pes cavus & toe clawing
What is the management of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease? Incurable - may respond to nerve release
What is POMES syndrome? Chronic inflammatory demyelinating Polyneuropathy, Organomegaly (liver), Endocrinopathy (gynaecomastia and atorphic testes), M protein band and Skin hyperpigmentation
What occurs in critical illness polyneuropathy? 50% of patients with multiple organ failure and/or sepsis develop an axonal polyneuropathy - inflammatory response impairs neural metabolism - distal weakness and absent reflexes during recovery - resolution is usual
What is myasthenia gravis? Most common disorder of the neuro-muscular junction - acquired, probably heterogenous - twice as common in females - reduced function of ACh receptors and inflammation
What are the clinical features of myasthenia gravis? Fatiguability of proximal limb, extraocular (ptosis), speech, facial expression and mastication muscles - respiratory difficulties - fluctuating, fatiguable weakness - muscle pain absent - wasting sometimes after many years
What antibodies are found in myasthenia gravis? anti-AChR antibodies (acetylcholine receptor) commonly found (immune complexes and complement are depositied at the postsynaptic membrane) - anti-MuSK (muscle-specific receptor tyrosine kinase (in anti-AChR negative cases)
What investigations should be done in myasthenia gravis? Serum anti-AChR and anti-MuSK antibodies - repetitive nerve stimulation - tensilon (edrophonium) test, when positive get substantial improvement in weakness within seconds lasting for up to 5 minutes - mediastinal MRI - other antibodies
What is the course and management of myasthenia gravis? Fluctuates - most are protracted & life long - emergency assisted ventilation may be required - exacerbations are usually unpredictable and unprovoked
What is the treatment of myasthenia gravis? Oral anticholinesterases: pyridostigmine - helps weakness, muscarinic side effects (^salivation/diarrhoea) give oral atropine too | immunosuppressants: 2nd line - prednisolone, azathioprine| thyectomy | plasmapharesis and IV Ig during exacerbations
What is the management of polyneuropathies? Treat cause - physio and OT - foot care and shoe choice - IV immunoglobulin Gullain Barre and CIDP - steroids/immunosuppressants if vasculitic - amitriptyline/gabapentin for neuropathic pain
How would you clinically test for fatiguability (MG)? Eyes: maintain upgaze for 30 secs - Bulbar: observe speech and dysarthria in a prolonged conversation (counting) - Arms: compare shoulder abduction on both sides
What conditions are associated with myasthenia gravis? Thymic hyperplasia (in 70% below 40) - 10% have thymic tumour - thyroid disease, rhuematoid disease, pernicious anaemia and SLE
When is the peak incidence of myasthenia gravis? Women in their 3rd decade, men in their 6th or 7th decade
What is Lambert-Eaton myasthenic-myopathic syndrome (LEMS)? Paraneoplastic manifestation of small-cell bronchial carcinoma (can be breast, prostate, stomach, lymphoma too) due to defective acetylcholine release at the NMJ
What are the clinical features of LEMS? Proximal limb muscle weakness, rarely with ocular/bulbar, some absent tendon reflexes - weakness tends to improve after a few minutes of contraction and absent reflexes return - gait difficulties before eyes - dry mouth (autonomic)
How is a diagnosis of LEMS made? EMG and repetitive stimulation (low amplitude muscle action potentials and increment at high stimulation frequency) - antibodies to P/Q type voltage gated calcium channels in 90%
What is the treatment of LEMS? Diaminopyridine (DAP) is a safe and effective treatment
What are the two x-linked recessive muscular dystophies? Duchenne's and Becker's muscular dystrophies
What protein is missing in Duchenne/Becker's muscular dystrophy? Dystophin is absent in Duchenne's, whilst in Becker's it is present but levels are low (less severe form of Duchenne's) - essential for cell membrane stability, reduction in glycoproteins in the DAP complex that link dystrophin to laminin
What are the clinical features of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy? Delay in motor development, obvious by 4 - waddling, clumsy gait - Gower's sign on rising (uses hands to climb up his legs) - proximal limb weakness, calf psuedohypertrophy - developmental delay - "shoulder back, belly out" - affected myocardium
What is the prognosis of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy? Severe disability by the age of 10 - death by 20 (respiratory and cardiac involvement)
What are the clinical features of Becker's muscular dystrophy? Later onset than Duchenne's, slower progression, increased calf psuedohypertrophy
What investigations would you do in Duchenne's/Becker's muscular dystrophy? Diagnosis is usually suspected clinically - serum CK grossly elevated - biopsy shows variation in muscle fibre size, necrosis, regeneration and replacement by fat, immunochemical staining shows absence of dystophin - EMG shows myopathic pattern
What is the management in those with x linked recessive muscular dystrophies? No curative treatment - passive physiotherapy helps contractures - portal respiratory support - carrier detection - genetic advice (determination of foetal sex and selective abortion)
What is a myotonia? Continued, involuntary muscle contraction after cessation of voluntary effort - cause tonic muscle spasm
What is myotonic dystrophia? Commonest muscular dystrophy - autosomal dominant - progressive muscle weakness - ptosis, cataracts, weakness and thinning of face, frontal baldness, mild cognitive impairment - 20-50 yrs - phenytoin or similar helps myotonia
What is consciousness? Wakefulness with awareness of self and surroundings
What is clouding of consciousness? Reduced wakefulness and/or self-awareness, sometime with confusion
What is confusion? Subject is bewildered and misinerprets their surroundings
What is delirium? State of confusion, sometimes with visual hallucination and often high arousal
What is sleep? Normal mental and physical inactivity - subject can be aroused
What is stupor? Abnormal - sleep state from which the subject can be roused by vigorous or repeated stimuli
What is a coma? Unrousable unrespobsiveness
What two separate anatomical and physiological systems does consciousness depend on? Ascending reticular activating system (ARAS): determines arousal | cerebral cortex: determines the context of consciousness
What are the components of the Glasgow coma scale? Designed for recording coma following head injuries - Eye opening (4 spontaneous, speech, pain, 1 no response) - Motor response (6 obeys, localises, withdraws, flexion, extension, 1 no response) - Verbal response (5 orientation->1 no response)
What three mechanisms can cause coma? Diffuse brain dysfunction (generalised severe metabolic or toxic disorders) - direct effect within the brainstem (inhibits reticular formation) - pressure effect on the brainstem (mass lesion, inhibits reticular formation)
What are the two types of sleep? Non-rapid eye movement and rapid eye movement
What occurs during non-REM sleep? More at start of night - 3/4 of sleep for young adults - synchronised, thythmiic EEG activity, decreased cerebral blood flow (reduced HR, BP and TV), partial muscle contraction - some non-narrative images - more important: brain recovery
What occurs during REM sleep? Mostly at end of night - EEG shows fast activity, increased brain activity (fMRI) and increased cerebral blood flow (impaired thermal regulation), completely relaxed muscles - narrative dreaming - mainly for early brain development - consolidates memory
What are the 3 mechanisms of sleep? Homeostatic: tired, body tries to sleep - emotional response: despite tiredness your kept awake (exam stress) - circadian rhythm: naturally more tired at 4am and 2pm
What is insomnia? Fitful sleep - less time than usual spent in REM sleep - rarely a feature of neurological disease - ask "do you experience difficulty sleeping?" & "do you have difficulty falling/staying asleep?"
What is parasomnia? Sleep paralysis - abnormal movements, behaviours, emotions, perceptions & dreams - may see alien at foot of bed
What is narcolepsy? People fall asleep suddenly at inappropriate times - chronic autoimmune disease, inhibits brains ability to regulate sleep/wake times - daytime sleepiness -cataplexy (sudden muscle weakness) -hallucinations - sleep paralysis -overnight PSG, LP, sleep test
How much sleep is required? 7-7.5 hours is enough - mid-afternoon nap of 15 minutes is equivalent to 90 minutes overnight - in old age sleep requirements fall, sometimes 4 hours a night but may nap more
What is a normal CSF glucose value? 60-70% of blood glucose
What can cause a brain abscess? Either local spread of infection or secondary to a remote infective process - chronic ear infection, sinusitis, dental infection, post-trauma, post-neurosurgery
What are the clinical features of a brain abscess? Classical triad: fever, headache, focal neurological signs - ± seizures
What organisms cause brain abscesses? Streptococci (particulalry S. milleri), Coliforms (proteus sp), anaerobes, Staph. aureau, Actinomyces sp.
How is a brain abscess diagnosed? CT brain
What is the treatment of a brain abscess? Drain the pus and antibiotics (ceftriaxone and metronidazole) for 6 weeks
What is a stroke? A syndrome of rapid onset of cerebral deficit (usually focal) lasting >24hr or leading to death, with no cause apparent other than vascular
What is the most treatable risk factor for stroke? Hypertension
What are the two types of stroke? Haemorrhagic: blood leaks into blood tissue (17%) - Ischaemic: clot stops blood supply to an area of brain (80%)
What are the causes of haemorrhagic stroke? Primary intracerbral haemorrhage: hypertension, amyloid angiopathy | secondary intracerebral haemorrhage: Av malformation, aneurysm, tumour | subarachnoid haemorrhage
What are the causes of ischaemic cerebrovascular stroke? Thrombosis, large artery stenosis, small vessel disease, cardio-embolic stroke, hypoperfusion
What are the scores used in Rosier score and what syndrome is it used to assess? Stroke - loss of consciousness or syncope (-1), seizures (-1), new assymetrical facial (+1), arm(+1), leg(+1) weakness, speech disturbance (+1), visual field defect (+1) - score > 0 is likely to be a stroke
What are the risk factors for stroke and how can they be managed? Aspirin in those with 10-year risk of coronary heart disease > 10% - hypertension: treat & monitor - smoking: stop - lifestyle: active - alcohol: moderate intake - cholesterol: statins - haematocrit: reduce - AF: anticoagulate - obesity - diabetes
What are the different sizes of stroke? Total anterior circulation syndroem - partial anterior circulation syndrome - lacunar syndrome - posterior circulation syndrome - TACS, PACS, LACS & POCS
What are the clinical features of a total anterior circulation syndrome (TACS)? Middle meningeal artery blocked, affects all white & grey matter in that distribution - hemiplegia with at least two of face, arm and leg ± hemisensory loss - homonymous hemianopia - dysphagia (cortical signs) - most serious, only 5% independent at 1 year
What are the clinical features of a partial anterior circulation syndrome (PACS)? Only some grey matter affected in middle meningeal distribution - 2/3 features present in TACS (hemiplegia of face, arm or leg) or isolated cortical dysfunction (dysphagia) or pure motor - 55% independent at 1 year
What are the clinical features of a posterior circulation syndrome (POCS)? Mixed bag of things - Cranial nerve palsy AND contralateral motor/sensory defect Bilateral motor or sensory defect Eye movement problems (e.g.nystagmus) Cerebellar dysfunction Isolated homonymous hemianopia
What are the clinical features of a lacunar syndrome (LACS)? Just deep white matter disease, in particular motor tracts of internal capsule - affects 2 of face, arm and leg - most commonly purely motor - best prognosis, 60% independent at 1 year
What would be affected if the stroke was right sided? Right brain for relating things spatially - left side of body affected - creativity, music, spatial orientation, artistic awareness
What would be affected if the stroke was left sided? Left brain for relating things in a linear manner - right side of body affected - spoken language, number skills, reasoning, written language
What is the ischaemic penumbra? Area around necrotic core of tissue that is still viable due to collateral blood flow
What are the initial signs of a stroke? FAST - Face: fallen on one side? - Arms: can they raise them and keep them there? - Speech: slurred? -> Time to call 999
What is the initial management of a stroke? Imaging: CT (dense artery sign, loss of grey/white differentiation), MRI - if imaging excludes haemorrhage give alteplase therapy(can be given up to 4.5hrs after symptom onset) (aspirin if thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated) - neurosurgical for H
What is the longterm management of a stroke? Rehab - antihypertensive therapy - antiplatelet therapy: aspirin for 10-14 days, after 14 days either: clopidogrel or aspirin + dipyridamole - statins - anticoagulants
How is thrombotic risk assessed and what thromboprophylaxis is used? CHADS2: Congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, age (75+), diabetes, previous stroke (x2) - low risk: nothing or aspiring - medium risk: oral anticoagulant (warfarin or rivaroxaban) or aspirin - high risk: oral anticoagulant
What is a TIA? Transient ischaemic attack - transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischaemia without acute ischaemia - <24hrs - tendency to recur and may herald thromboembolic stroke - usually microemboli
What is amurosis fugax? Sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (curtain coming down) - arterial obstruction sometimes visible through opthalmascope - first clinical evidence of internal carotid artery stenosis - can be benign - diplopia, vertigo, vomiting
What is transient global amnesia? Episodes of amnesia/confusion lasting several hours - 65+ - complete recovery - presumed to be due to posterior circulation ischaemia
What are the clinical findings in a TIA? Consciousness is usually preserved - unusual to witness an attack as so brief - clinical evidence of a source of embolus: carotid artery bruit (stenosis), AF or other dysrhythmia, valvular heart disease/endocarditis, recent MI, different between R+L BP
What scoring system is used for TIA? ABCD2 - age (60+), BP (S>140, D>90), clinical fetaures (unilateral weakness (2), speech disturbance without weakness), duration (60+mins (2), 10-59mins ), diabetes - score from 0-7
What is the function of exteroceptors? Relay sensory information from outside world to CNS
What is the function of proprioceptors? Relay information about posture and movement to the CNS
What is the function of interoceptors? Raly information about the internal environment and organs to the CNS
What modality of information do the dorsal roots carry? Sensory - posterior root - afferent
What modality of information do the ventral roots carry? Motor - anterior root - efferent
What direction does an afferent neurone carry information? Towards the CNS
What direction does an efferent neurone carry information? Away from the CNS - exiting CNS
What type of sensory fibres are unmyelinated? C fibres - group IV
What sensory receptors do A-alpha axons carry information from? Proprioceptors of skeletal muscle - thickly myelinated - group I
What sensory receptors do A-beta axons carry information from? Mechanoreceptors of skin - moderately myelinated - group II
What sensory receptors do A-delta axons carry information from? Pain, temperature - thinly myelinated - group III
What type of receptors pick up vibration? Pacinian corpuscle
What type of receptors pick up pressure? Merkel disk receptor
What type of receptors pick up skin stretch? Ruffini ending
What type of receptor picks up stroking and flutter? Meissner corpuscle
Is the receptive field of pacinian corpuscles or Messner's corpuscles bigger? Pacinian corpuscle receptive fields are much larger
What are the clinical features of intracerebral haemorrhage? Bleeding into brain parenchyma - usually massive and fatal - occurs in chronic hypertension - headache, focal neurological deficit, decreased conscious level
What is the treatment of a intracerebral haemorrhage? Control of hypertension is vital - urgent neurosurgical clot evacuation occasionally - antiplatelet and anticoagulant drugs are contraindicated
What are the clinical features of a cerebellar haemorrhage? Headache, often followed by stupor/coma and nystagmus/ocular palsies etc - gaze deviates towards the haemorrhage - skew deviation with torticollis (head tiliting) - - acute hydrocephalus
What are the causes of subarachnoid haemorrhage? Saccular (berry) aneurysms (70%): in circle of Willis, can be spontaneous rupture or pressure symptoms - arteriovenous malformation (10%): cause coal epilepsy, once ruptured has tendency to re-bleed - no lesion found in 15%
What are the clinical features of a subarachnoid haemorrhage? Sudden, devastating thunderclap headache, often occipital - followed by vomiting, neck pain, Kernig's sign, photphobia, drowsiness, collapse - decreased conscious level, focal neurological deficit - papilloedema
What is the treatment of arteriovenous malformation? Surgery, endovascular embolisation, stereotactic radiotherapy, conservative
What is Kernig's sign? Thigh bent at the hip and knee at 90 degrees, subsequent extension of the knee is painful -> resistance
What investigations would you carry out in subarachnoid haemorrhage? CT (may be negative though) - cerebral angiography is gold standard - LP not necessary if confirmed by CT, but is not then carry out: xanthocromic CSF
What are the complications of subarachnoid haemorrhage? Obstructive hydrocephalus - arterial spasm (poor prognostic feature) - re-bleed - delayed ischaemic deficit, hyponatraemia - seizures
What is the management of subarachnoid haemorrhage? Bed rest & supportive measures - contorl hypertension - dexamethasone to reduce cerebral oedema (also stabilises the BBB) - nimodipine reduces mortality - analgesia & anti-emetic - surgical clips/coils in selected
What are the clinical features of a subdural haemorrhage? Usually follows head injury - interval between injury and symptoms can be days-months - chronic in elderly, with anticoagulants - headache, drowsiness, confusion, fluctuating consciousness - focal deficits - epilepsy - stupor, coma & coning
What feature will be seen on CT/MRI in subdural haemorrhage? Clot ± midline shift - crescent shape
What is the treatment of a subdural haemorrhage? Monitoring, less immediate attention - Irrigation/evacuation - burr twist drill/burr hole
What are the clinical features of a extradural haemorrhage? Trauma to pterion - tearing of middle meningeal brach, skull vault fracture - head injury -> brief unconsciousness -> improvement (luccid level) -> stuporose, ipsilateral dilated pupil and contralateral hemiparesis with rapid transtentorial coning
What are the later features of a extradural haemorrhage? Bilateral, fixed pupils, tetraplegia and respiratory arrest follow
What feature will be seen on CT of a extradural haemorrhage? Lens shaped haematoma
What is the management of a extradural haemorrhage? Immediate imaging (CT) - neurosurgery
Thunderclap headache? Subarachnoid heamorrhage
Xanthrochromic lumbar puncture? Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Luccid period after head trauma - often followed by sudden collapse or deterioration? Extradural haemorrhage
Cogwheel rigidity? Parkinson's - spasticity over rigidity
"Woody texture" muscle swelling? Duchenne or Becker muscular dystrophy
Raised CK? Muscular dystrophy
Toe walker or Gower's sign positive? Muscular dystrophy
"Mask like" expression? Parkinson's
"Fluctuating" cognitive deficit? Delirium or Lewy body dementia
What diseases have REM disturbance? Lewy body dementia or Parkinson's
Vivid visual hallucinations normally of children and not threatening? Lewy body dementia
"acute onset" cognitive disturbance that fluctuates? Delirium
Personality/behavioural changes and then dementia? Frontotemporal dementia (Pick's disease)
Memory and personality problems in someone with a history of cardiovascular disease? Vascular dementia
Stepwise deterioration in cognitive ability? Vascular dementia
Pain on loud noise? Facial nerve palsy
Cause of a painful third nerve palsy? Aneurysm
Myalgia + myositis + myoglobulinaemia/urea? Rhabdomyolysis (DIC and renal failure)
Inflammatory myopathy with poor response to steroids? Inclusion body myositis?
Weakness + frontal balding + cataracts + ptosis? Myotonic dystrophy (onset 30s, positive family history)
Leg symptoms + midline shift? Falcine herniation
Back pain worse on coughing? Slipped disc
Headache worse on coughing? POsterior foss issue
Bilateral sciatica + male sexual dysfunction? Cauda equina
What are the clinical features of cauda equina syndrome? Severe back pain - saddle anaesthesia - bladder/bowel dysfunction - sciatica - paraplegia - absent ankle reflex - sexual dysfunction - gait disturbance
What does pleocytosis on CSF rule out? Bacterial meningitis
What is migraine prophylaxis? 1st line: proranolol, topiramate or amitriptyline| 2nd line: valproate, pizotifen, gabapentin, pregabalin
Injury to the upper brachial plexus? Erb's palsy (waiter's tip)
Injury to the lower brachial plexus? Klumpke's palsy (claw hand)
What injury is Simmonds test positive in? Achilles tendon rupture
What is the nernst potential? When the force of diffusion across the cell membrane = the electrical force attracting potassium into the cell
What is nociceptive pain? Pain from injury, relayed through a normal nervous system
What is nueropathic pain? Pain generated within the nervous system| "burning, shooting, tingling"| allodia (pain from stimulus that shouldn't cause pain) or hyperalgesia (more pain than expected)| amitriptyline, gabapentin, opioids, ketamin, capsaicin
What is the most important histopathological indicator of CNS injury? Gliosis - astrocytes undergo hyperplasia and hypertrophy - nucleus enlarges and nucleolus becomes prominent
After what length of time of arterial supply to the brain being shut off does irreversible degeneration begin? 4 minutes
Do neurons metabolise glucose through aerobic or anaerobic respiration? Aerobic - can only do this - why brain receives proportionally so much more blood
What is a coup injury? Injury directly at the point of impact - usually skull
What is a contracoup injury? Injury diammetrically opposite the point of impact - usually skull
What is transcalvarium? A swollen brain will herniate through any defect in the dura and skull - dilatation of pupil on same side as lesion
How does Botulinum toxin work? Toxins cleave presynaptic proteins involved in vesicle formation and block vesicle docking with pre-synaptic membrane - rapid onset weakness without sensory loss
Complicated presentation of proximal and distal problems? Plexopathy should be considered
What are the clinical Friedrich's ataxia? Autosomal recessive - progressive damage to nervous system (spinal cord) - does not affect cognition - muscle weakness in arms and legs, loss of co-ordination, visual impairment, hearing impairment, slurred speech, scoliosis, pes cavus, diabetes
What the signs found in Friedrich's ataxia? Cerebellar: nystagmus, dysarthria, dysmetria| LMN: absent deep tendon reflexes| pyramidal: extensor plantar responses, distal weakness are found| dorsal column: loss of vibratory and proprioceptive sensation occurs| cardiomegaly
What is the treatment of Friedrich's ataxia? Surgical interventions (spinal screwing), goal is to keep patient mobile for as long as possible - physiotherapy
What reinforcement can be used when assessing deep tendon reflexes of the lower limbs? Pulling interlocked fingers
What reinforcement can be used when assessing deep tendon reflexes of the upper limbs? Teeth clenching
Dorsal column? Fine touch, conscious proprioception and vibration - fibres cross in the medulla
Spinothalamic tract? Pain, temperature, coarse touch and deep pressure - fibres cross segmentally (at spinal level)
Corticospinal tract? Fine, precise movement, particularly of distal limb muscles (e.g. digits) - around 85% of fibres cross in the caudal medulla at the decussation of the pyramids, uncrossed fibres cross segmentally
Rubrospinal tract? Excitatory control of limb flexor muscles - fibres originate in red nucleus of midbrain and then decussate at this level
Tectospinal tract? Mediates reflex movement due to visual stimuli - fibres originate in the superior colliculus
Vestibulospinal tract? Excitatory input to "antigravity" extensor muscles - fibres originate in the vestibular nuclei of the pons and medulla
Reticulospinal tract? Many functions including the influence of voluntary movement - fibres originate in areas of the reticular formation in the pons and the medulla
Vestibulo-cerebellum? Main function is maintaining balance - input from vestibular nuclei and projects to reticular formation and vestibular nuclei and from there to the spinal cord via reticulospinal and vestibulospinal tracts
Spinocerebellum? Posture & muscle tone, control bum pressure & joints - input from spinocerebellar tracts carrying proprioception, touch & pressure information-projects to the thalamus, red nucleus & reticular formation to influence cortico-,rubro-&r eticulospinal outputs
Pontocerebellum? Muscle coordination e.g. from playing the violin - input from pontine nuclei, which in turn receive fibres from the contralateral cerebral cortex - projects to the thalamic area (that in turn projects to the motor cortex) and to red nucleus
Pyramidal tracts? Corticospinal
Causes of syncope? Neurally mediated (reflex): vasovagal, situational, carotid sinus hypersensitivity, glossopharyngeal nueralgia - orthostatic hypotension - autonomic failure - cardiac arrhythmias - cardiopulmonary disease - cerebrovascular - psychogenic - substance abuse
Lower motor neurone lesion? Wasting, fasciculation, decreased tone, decreased or absent reflexes, flexor plantars
Upper motor neurone lesion? Increased tone, brisk reflexes, pyramidal/corticospinal pattern of weakness (=weak extensors in arm, weak flexors in the legs)
Purely fatigable motor symptoms? Neuromusclar junction problem - myasthenia gravis
Shoulder abduction? Deltoid - axillary nerve - C5
Elbow extension? - triceps - radial - C7
Finger extension? Extensor digitorum - post. interosseus - C7
INdex finger abduction? First dorsal interosseus - ulnar - T1
Hip flexion? Iliopsoas - femoral - L1/2
Knee flexion? Hamstrings - sciatic - S1
Ankle dorsiflexion? Peroneals - common peroneal and sciatic - L4/5
Great toe dorsiflexion? Extensor hallucis longus - common peroneal nerve - L5
Ankle reflex? S1/2
Knee reflex? L 3/4
Biceps relfex? C5/6
Triceps reflex? C7/8
Glove and stocking sensory loss? Length dependent neuropathy
Cerebellar signs/co-ordination? Broad based and unsteady gait - intention tremor/ataxia (finger nose test and knee/heel test) - dysdiadochokinesis (clumsy fast alternating movements) - nystagmus and dysarthria
Extrapyramidal symptoms (Parkinsonism)? Bradykinesia, rigidity, resting tremor, impaired gait and posture - hypomimia, hypophonia - reduced arm swing, stooped posture, small steps, festination, turning en bloc - impaired postural reflexes - assymetry in PD
Function of frontal lobe? Generates novel strategies and has executive functions - enables self-critiscism and trying again - PFC has connections to other cortices: basal ganglia, limbic system, thalamus and hippocampus
Frontal lobe dysfunction? Personality dysfunction, parapesis, paratonia, grasp reflex, frontal gait dysfunction, cortical hand, seizures, incontinence, visual field defects, expressive dysphasia, anosmia
Temporal lobe dysfunction? Memory dysfunction (especially episodic), agnosia (visual and sensory modalities in particular), language disorders eceptive dysphasia, visual field defects, auditory dysfunction, limbic dysfunction, temporal lobe epilepsy
Parietal lobe dysfunction? Visual field defect, sensory dysfunction (visual and sensory), dyspraxia, inattention, denial
Aggressive MS treatment? Tysabri
Relapsing and remitting MS treatment? Beta interferon and glatiramer acetate
Frequent presenting features of MS? Visual compromise, stiffness and weakness
Created by: fmprentice
 

 



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