Ischemic can be defined as

A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ

A herniation of the urinary bladder

A function of the trachea is to

Conduct air to and from the lungs

The nucleus pulposus is the

Cushioning mass within an intervertebral disk

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Stack #17158

Question	Answer
Adnexa refers to	Accessory Organs
A drop is denoted by the abbreviation	gt
The abbreviation ung refers to	ointment
Proximal is a term that indicates a point	Nearer to the body
Adduction means	Movement toward median plane
Ischemic can be defined as	A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ
A cystocele is	A herniation of the urinary bladder
Nulli is a prefix that means	None
False is indicated by the prefix	Psuedo
Tiny red or purple spots on the sin appearing as a result ot small hemorrhages w/in the dermal or submucosal layers are called	Petechiae
Kerato refers to	Horny
The suffix lysis means	Breaking Down
The left eye is indicated by the following letters	OS
Tissue death is called	Necrosis
The secretion of excessive sweat is also known as	Diaphoresis
Which radiographic procedure has the ability to make images in multiple planes?	MRI
The absence of a normal body opening, duct, or canal is called	Atresia
Epistaxis can be defined as	Bleeding from the nose
Blood gas analysis is called	ABG
A ganglion is a	Collection of nerve endings
The lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac called the	Visceral Pleura
The passageway for foods and liquids into the digestive system, and for air into the respiratory system, is the	Pharynx
The vocal cords are located in the	Larynx
A function of the trachea is to	Conduct air to and from the lungs
The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the	Septum
The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as	Metacarpals
The muscles important in respiration are	Intercostal
The thick, fan-shaped muscle that lies on the anterior chest is the	Pectoralis Major
The triangular muscle of the shoulder that abducts the arm is the	Deltoid
Which of the abdominal muscles originates at the pubic bone and ends in the ribs?	Rectus Abdomimis
One of the principal muscles of the pelvic floor is the	Levator ani
The gastrocnemius is the chief muscle of the	Calf of the leg
A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called	Ligament
The two bones that form the side walls and the roof of the cranium are the	Parietal bones
The sternocledidomastoid muscle is located	Along the side of the neck
The medial bone of the forearem, which is located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the	Ulna
The bone that is shaped like a butterfly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium is the	Sphenoid
The bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the	Occipital
The lower jawbone is the	Mandible
The bone located in the neck between the mandible and the larynx, which supports the tongue and provides attachment for some of its muscles, is the	Hyoid bone
The adult vertebral column has	26 Bones
How many cervical vertebrae are there?	7
The bone in the axial skeleton that does not articulate with any other bone is the	Hyoid
The number of pairs of ribs is	12
A slender, rodlike bone that is located at the base of the neck and runs horizontally is the	Clavicle
The nucleus pulposus is the	Cushioning mass within an intervertebral disk
The upper, flaring portion tf hipbone is the	ilium
A large opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes is the	Foramen Magnum
The larger, weight-bearing bone of the lower leg is the	Tibia
The bone that fits into the acetabulum, forming a joint, is the	Femur
Another name for the kneecap is	Patella
The membranes that line closed cavities within the body are called	Serous membranes
The longest bone in the body is the	Femur
A rounded protuberance found at a point of articulation with another bone is called a	Condyle
An infection of the bone is	Osteomyelitis
The epiphyses are the	Ends of long bones
Oil glands of the skin are called	Sebaceous
The periosteum is	The membrane that covers bone
A transparent structure that permits the eye to focus rays to form an image on the retina is the	Lens
The purpose of the iris is to	Regulate the amount of light entering the eye
The structure that is seen from the outside as the colored portion of the eye is the	Iris
The nerve that carries visual impulses to the brain is the	Optic nerve
The white outer layer of the eyeball is the	Sclera
A jelly-like substance in the eye's posterior cavity is called	Vitreous Humor
The structure that connects the middle ear and the throat, allowing the eardrum to vibrate freely, is the	Eustachian Tube
The conjuctiva is the	Covering of the anterior globe except the cornea
The number of pairs of spinal nerves is	31
The great sensory nerve of the face and head is the	Trigeminal
The crainal nerve that contains special sense fibers for hearing as well as for balance is	VIII
The part of the brain responsible for maintenance of balance and muscle tone as well as coordination of voluntary muscle, is the	Cerebellum
The frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital lobes are divisions of the	Cerebrum
The area of the brain that controls the respiratory center is the	Medulla Oblongata
The largest part of the brain is the	Cerebrum
The outermost covering of the brain and spinal cord is the	Dura Mater
Cerebrospinal fluid circulates freely in the	Subarachnoid Space
The brain contains 4 fluid-filled spaces called the	Ventricles
Which of the following structures transmits sound vibrations to the inner ear?	Tympanic membrane
The winding, cone-shaped tube of the inner ear is the	Cochlea
Which of the following is not an auditory ossicle?	COCHLEA,stapes,incus,malleus
Cross-matching of blodd	Determines suitability of donor by mixing donor RBC's with recipient serum
The highly specialized blood cell whose function is oxygen transportation is	Red Blood Cell
A differential count provides an estimate of	The percentage of each type of white cell
Mixing of incompatible bloods may result in	Agglutination
Platelets are essential for	Coagulation of blood
In the normal adult, the average number of leukocytes per cubic millimeter of circulating blood is	5000-10,000
A large superficial vein in the lower extremity, which begins in the foot and extends up the medial side of the leg, the knee, and the thigh, is called the	Greater Saphenous
The vein in the bend of the elbow that is commonly used as a site for venpuncture is the	Median Cubital Vein
The artery at the back of the knee is the	Popliteal
The superior and inferior nesenteric arteries supply the	Intestines
The vein that drains the veins of the chest wall and empties into the superior vena cava is the	Azygos
The veins of the head and neck are drained by the	Jugular Veins
Which arteries supply the heart?	Coronary
The atrioventricular (A-V) node causes	Ventricular Contraction
Why would an aspirated foreign body be more likely to enter the right bronchus rather than the left bronchus?	The right bronchus is more vertical, shorter, and wider than the left
The spleen filters	Blood
Circulation that is established through an anastomosis between two vessels supplying or draining two adjacent structures is called	Collateral Circulation
Which artery supplies the head and neck?	Carotid
The serous membrane that covers the heart is the	Pericardium
The circle of Willis is located	At the base of the brain
The branch of the external iliac artery that is located in the thigh is called the	Femoral Artery
The descending aorta terminates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra, dividing into	Two common iliac arteries
The contractions of the heart are synchronized and regulated by the pacemaker of the heart, called the	Sinoatrial Node
Tiny blood vessels that permeate and nourish tissue are called	Capillaries
The wall or partition dividing the heart into right and left sides is called the	Septum
The heart valve that closes at the time the right ventricle begins pumping, preventing blood from returning to the right atrium, is the	Tricuspid
The inner lining of the heart, composed of smooth, delicate membrane, is called the	Endocardium
The spleen is located	In the left hypochondriac
All of the follow are parts of the lymphatic system EXCEPT the	THYROID,tonsils,spleen,thymus
The s-shaped bend in the lower colon is called the	Sigmoid
The reabsorption of water and electrolytes is the main function of the	Large intestine
The terminal portion of the large intestine is the	Anal Canal
Which structure lies retroperitoneally/	Kidney
The first portion of the large intestine is the	Cecum
The appendix is attached to the	Cecum
The primary function of the gallbladder is	Storage of bile
When the gallbladder contracts, bile is ejected into the	Duodenum
The area in the duodenum where the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty is called	The ampulla of Vater
Which structure is also known as the "fatty apron"?	Greater Omentum
The common bile duct is the union of the	Cystic Duct, and the Hepatic Duct
The yellow tinge in the skin symptomatic of obstructive jaundice is cause by the accumulation of what substance in the blood and tissue?	Bilirubin
The head of the pancreas is located	In the curve of the duodenum
The sphincter at the junction of the small and large intestines is the	ileocecal sphincter
The portion of the small intestine that receives secretions from the pancreas and the liver is the	Duodenum
The region of the stomach that connects to the duodenum is the	Pylorus
The mesentery is	A double-layered peritoneal structure shaped like a fan
The large central portion of the stomach iscalled the	Body
The muscle serving as a valve to prevent regurgitation of food from the intestine back into the stomach is known as the	Pyloric Sphincter
The digestive passageway that begins at the pharynx and terminates in the stomach is the	Esophagus
The point at which the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm is called the	Hiatus
Adenoids are also called	Pharyngeal Tonsils
The function of the molar teeth is to	Crush and grind food
Mumps occur in the	Parotid Glands
The salivary glands located under the tongue are the	Sublingual
The liver has	Two lobes
The glomerulus is a	Cluster of Capillaries
The tubes or cuplike extensions that project from the renal pelvis are called	Calyces
Urine is tranported along the ureters to the bladder by	Peristaltic Waves
The smooth, triangular area at the bottom of the bladder that contains three openings is called the	Trigone
The kidneys are positioned	Retroperitoneally
The kidney structure that filters blood, returns useful substances to blood, and removes substances from blood that are not needed is the	Nephron
Blood is supplied to the kidney by means of the renal artery, which arises from the	Abdominal Aorta
The indentation in the kidney through which all structures must pass as they enter or leave the kidney is the	Hilus
The outer layer of the kidney is known as the	Cortex
The portion of the male urethra that passes through the pelvic floor is called the	Membranous Portion
A lack of voluntary control over micturition is called	Incontinence
Urine empties from the bladder through a tube called the	Urethra
Fertilization occurs in the	Fallopian Tubes
The perineum is	The area between the vagina and the anus
The small, sensitive structure of the female homologous to the male penis is the	Clitoris
Ova are swept into the fallopian tubes by small, fringelike extensions on the distal ends of the tubes called	Fimbriae
The inner lining of the uterus is called the	Endometrium
The ligament that attaches the ovaries to the pelvic wall is the	Suspensory
The supporting structure of the male reproductive system is the	Spermatic Cord
The loose skin covering the glans penis like a sheath is called the	Prepuce
The distal end of the penis is slightly enlarged and is called the	Glans Penis
In a male, the structure surrounding the entrance to the urethra just below the urinary bladder is	The Prostate Gland
Which structure is not a portion of the male urethra?	Vas
This structure stores sperm and propels them toward the urethra during ejaculation	Vas Deferens
The long, coiled tube in which sperm matures is the	Epididymis
The English surgeon who began the age of chemical control of the atmosphere was	Lister
Passage of fluid through a cell membrane is called	Osmosis
Oxygen-dependent bacteria are said to be	Aerobic
The destruction of bacteria by white cells during the inflammatory process is called	Phagocytosis
Bacteriostatic means	To inhibit growth of microorganisms
Staphylococcus aureus would most likely be transmitted by	Nose and mouth
Microbial death occurs when an organism is	No longer capable of reproduction
What immune protection is available to the fetus	Natural Passive
The clinical syndrome characterized by microbial inbasion of the bloodstream is	Septicemia
A toxoid is	An inactivated toxin
Inflammatory exudate that is thick and yellow is termed	Suppurative
The body's first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens is	Skin and mucous membrane linings
Rodlike shaped bacteria are identified microscopically as	Bacilli
A procedure used to remove damaged tissue that provides growth conditions for pathogens is called	Debridement
Herpes simplex is commonly called	Cold Sore
All of the following descriptor refer to the inflammatory process EXCEPT	heat,pain,VASOCONSTRICTION,edemal
Clostridium tetani causes	Lockjaw
A laboratory procedure useful in classifying bacteria using a staining procedure is	Gram Stain
A fulminating infection arising from necrotic tissue and spreading rapidly	Gas Gangrene
Which bacteria is commonly found in soil?	Clostridium Tetani
The bacteria that causes rheumatic fever is	Streptococcus
A severe allergic reaction possibly resulting in death is called	Anaphylactic Shock
What organism is responsible for a boil?	Staphylococcus
This organism most frequently founk in burns is	Pseudomanas Aeruginosa
A bacteria pathogen most frequently invading damaged skin is	Staphylococcus Aureus
Which type of wound would favor the development of gas gangrene?	Necrotic
Gas gangrene is cause by	Clostridium Perfringens
The bacteria highly resistant to sterilization and disinfections is	Spores
A bacteria found in the intestinal tract is	Eschrichia Coli
The burn classification that is characterized by a dry, pearly white, or charred-appearing surface is	Third
OSHA is a governmental regulating agency whose aim is to	Execute requirements designed to prevent transmission of blood-borne pathogens in the work environment
Inflammation is characterized by pain, redness, heat, swelling, and loss of funtion. The redness can be attributed to	Vasodilation bringing more blood to the area
Removal of contaminated debris from a wound is called	Debridement
The space caused by separation of wound edges is called	Dead Space
If tissue is approximated to tightly it can cause	ischemia
Tensile strength of a wound refers to	Ability of tissue to resist rupture
The substance that unites with thrombin to form fibrin, the basic structural material of blood clots is	Fibrinogen
A cicatrix is	A Scar
Keloids are	A raised, thickened scar
A wound that is infected or one in which there is excessive loss of tissue heals by	Secondary intention
A CDC guideline that addresses the care of "sharps" includes all of the following EXCEPT	**NEEDLES SHOULD ALWAYS BE RECAPPED,needles should not be bent or broken by hand,needles should not be removed from disposable syringes,needles should be discarded in puncture-resistant containers for disposal
The type of wound healing that requires debridement is	Third
To promote healing, a surgical wound must have all of the following requesites EXCEPT	suture closure of dead space,drains to remove fluid or air,a moderately tight dressing,TIGHT SUTURES TO CREATE TENSION
Wound healing that employs a technique allowing the wound to heal from the bottom up is called	Second Intention
Which body fluid is least likely to transmit HIV?	Saliva
A band of scar tissue that binds together two anatomical surfaces that are normally separate from each other is called	Adhesion
A drug that interferes with the blood-clotting nechanism is	Heparin
An mg is a measurement of	Weight
The solutions used intravenously to replace plasma when plasma is not available is	Dextran
An inch equals	2.54 cm
How many milliliters are in 1 ounce?	30
One gram equals	1000 mg
A drug used to increase blood pressure is	Epinephrine
The action of an anticholinergic drug is to reduce	Secretions
The total volume in a 30cc syringe is	1 ounce
Naloxone(Narcan) is an example of a/an	Narcotic antagonist
Avitene is	Hemostatic
An absorable gelatin hemostatic agent that is often soaked in thrombin or epinephrine solution is	Gelfoam
Each of the following agents must be applied used dry gloves or instruments EXCEPT	GELFOAM,collastat,avitene,helistat
An anticoagulant given subcutaneously, untravenously,or as a flush is	Heparin
A drug that decreases the tendency of blood platelets to clot is	Warfarin Sodium
An antibiotic used intraoperatively is	Gentamicin
A topical antibiotic is	Bacitracin
Which item is used on cut edges of bone to seal off oozing of blood?	Bone Wax
The most common diuretic is	Lasix
An osmotic diuretic agent used to decrease cerabral edema and intraocular edema is	Mannitol
A systemic agent used to control uterine hemorrhage is	Pitocin
Steroids are used for	Reduction of tissue inflammation and swelling
Solu-Medrol is a(n)	Anti-inflammatory
Tubal patency may be tested by the installation of____into the uterine caviity.	Methylene Blue
A mydriatic drug, Neo-Synephrine, is used to	Dilate the Pupil
Immobility of the eye, along with lowered intra-ocular pressure is facilitated by the use of	Retrobulbar Block
Miochol is a(n)	Miotic
An agent that keeps the cornea moist during surgery and is used for irrigaton as well is	BSS
An artificial plasma-volume expander is	Dextran
An anticougulant used in vascular surgery is	Heparin
Haparin effects are reversed by	Protamine Sulfate
The universal donor blood that may be given in ectreme emergencies until the pt can be typed and crossmatched is	O
Normal saline is used for laparotomy pack moistening and for intraperitoneal irrigation because it is	isotonic
Levophed	Restores and maintains blood pressure
A drug used to treat metabolic acidosis is	Sodium Bicarbonate
The last sensation to leave the pt during general anesthesia induction is	Hearing
An ultrashort acting drug useful during intubation to produce paralysis and also to produce muscle relaxation when used in a dulute solution is	Anectine
Neuroleptoanalgesia combines	A tranquilizer and narcotic
A sedative-tranquilizer used to reduce anxiety and apprehension of the pre-op pt and as an adjunct to general anesthesia to reduce the amount and concentration of other more potent agents is	Valium
An antimuscarinic	Limits Salivation
Anestheesia given in a combination of several agents to obtain optimim results is called	Balanced Anesthesia
A bolus is	A dose injected all at once, intravenously
A drug used to soothe and relieve anxiety is a(n)	Sedative
A Bier block provides	Anesthesia to a distal portion of an extremity
Which inhalation agent is used for short procedures requiring no muscle relaxation?	Nitrous Oxide
The most frequently used barbiturate for intravenous anesthesia is	Pentothal
Halothane is also called	Fluothane
A method of anesthesia in which medication is injected into the subarachnoid space, affecting a portion of the spinal cord, is called a	Spinal Block
The indication for an epidural would be	Anorectal, vaginal, perineal, and obstetric procedures
Compazine is	An Antiemetic
Pontocaine is	Tetracaine HCI
Which technique can be employed to prevent pain during an operative procedure or to relieve chronic pain?	Nerve Block
The most widely used local anesthetic is	Lidocaine
Another name for adrenalin is	Epinephrine
A basoconstrictor that, when added to a local anesthetic agent, extends its life is	Epinephrine
The purpose of an LMA is	To establish and maintain a patent airway
A drug used to reverse hypotension is	Levophed
Blood of fluid can be quickly delivered to a pt via	Rapid infusion pump
Blood oxygenation can be monitored during surgery by means of a(n)	Pulse Oximeter
A drug that could be used to reverse the effect of muscle relaxants is	Prostigmin
Arterial blood gases ABG's are commonly obtained by accessing the	Radial Artery
Which piece of equipment is of extreme importance when anesthesia induction begins	Suction
The minimum distance a nonsterile person should remain from a sterile field is	1 FOOT
Identify which of the followin is not safe practice	Sterile tables may be covered for later use
Tables are considered sterile	Only on the top
At the end of the case, drapes should be	Checked for instruments, rolled off, and placed in a hamper
The pounds of pressure necessary in a steam sterilizer set at 250F is	15-17
Positive assurance that sterilization conditions have been achieved can only be obtained through	Biologic control test
A wrapped tray of instruments is sterilized in a gravity displacement sterilizer at 250F for	30 Minutes
The minimum exposure time for unwrapped instruments in a flash sterilizer that is set at 270F (132C) is	3 Minutes
When steam is used to sterilize a rubber tubing or catheter	A residual of distilled water should be left inside the lumen
If a solution soaks through a sterile drape	Cover wet area with impervious sterile drape or towel
To be sterilized effectively, a linen pack must not weigh more than	12 Pounds
Gravity displacement utilizes ____ to destroy microorganisms	Steam
The process called cavitation occurs in the	Ultrasonic Cleaner
All of the following statements regarding instrument sets are true EXCEPT	instruments must be placed in perforated trays,heavy instruments are place on the bottom,ALL INSTRUMENTS MUST BE CLOSEDalldetachable parts must be disassembled
All of the following statements regarding steam sterilization are true EXCEPT	flat packages are place on the shelf on edge, smallpackages,placed one on top of the other,are criss-crossed, basins are pllaced on their sides,**SOLUTIONS MAY BE AUTOCLAVED ALONG WITH OTHER ITEMS AS LONG AS THEY ARE ON A SHELF ALONE
Wrapped basin sets may be sterilized by steam under pressure at 250F for a minimun of	20 Minutes
Which of the following statements regarding the sterilization of basin sets is TRUE?	**BASINS MUST BE SEPARATED BY A POROUS MATERIAL IF THEY ARE NESTED,sponges and linen may be packaged inside the basin to be sterilized,basins are placed flat in the autoclave,basins must always be placed on top shelf of the autoclave in a combined load
Why would gas sterilization be chosen over steam sterilization?	It is less damaging to items
The chemical agent used in gas sterilization is	Ethylene Oxide
What chemical system uses peracetic acid as a sterilant?	Steris
The lumen of a tubing under going ethylene oxide (EO) sterilization is	Dried Thoroughly
Why is ethylene oxide diluted with an inert gas such as chlorofluorocarbon?	It provides flame retardation
The commercial name for glutaraldehyde is	Cidex
A 30 minute, single use, sterilization system useful for endoscopes is	Steris
Which of the following is essential when using activated glutaraldehyde for sterilization?	Items must be rinsed thoroughly in sterile water before use
What is the shelf life of Cidex?	Between 14 and 28 days
In which procedure would the use of a high-level disinfectant be acceptable instrument prepartion?	Cystoscopy
In a high-speed flash sterilizer, unwrapped instruments are exposed for a minimum of	3 Minutes
To kill spores, an item must be immersed in a 2% aqueous solution of glutaraldehyde for	10 Hours
When placing tubing in an activated glutaraldehyde solution, one should	Be certain that the interior of the tubing is completely filled
What is the role of moisture in EO sterilization?	Dried spores are resistant to the gas, so they must be hydrated
"Slow exhaust" in a gravity displacement steam sterilizer is used for	Solutions
Oil is best sterilized by	Convection hot air
What is the function of an aerator in EO sterilization?	It is a separate unit used to decrease the aeration time
Ethylene oxide destroys cells by	Interfering with the normal metabolism of the protein and reproductive processes
Activated glutaraldehyde is used to disinfect endocopes for	20 Minutes
When using a high-level disinfectant, always	Rinse items with sterile distilled water before using
The chemical sterilant used in the STERIS method of sterilizing is	Peracetic Acid
The Endoflush system	Initially cleans reusable channedled instuments
Which of the following is not an acceptable wrapper for gas sterilization?	Nylon

Created by: sunkiss1973

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