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68C Exam12 Prac Ex
Practice Exam Question
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| When assessing a patient, the nurse recognizes that pain is? | Pain is subjective. Pain is exactly what the patient says it is. |
| Pain in the left arm secondary to coronary insufficiency is an example of: | An example of referred pain is coronary insufficiency manifested by pain in the left arm, which is a distant location from the real source of discomfort. |
| The nurse reassures a patient that most acute pain is intense and of short duration, usually lasting: | Acute pain lasts less than 6 months. |
| Continuous or intermittent pain that does not serve as a warning of tissue damage is called: | Chronic pain can be continuous or intermittent and may not be indicative of tissue damage. |
| When planning interventions for a patient experiencing pain, the nurse assesses for a synergistic relationship, such as: | Fatigue, sleep disturbance, and depression act in a synergistic relationship. |
| When giving a backrub to a patient to relieve pain, the nurse is using the pain theory of: | The pressure of a backrub will close the gate, according to the gate control theory of pain |
| When a young athlete asks the nurse why he felt little pain when he broke his leg during a game, the nurse describes the effect of: | Endorphins found in the pituitary gland and other areas of the central nervous system create the same effect as morphine, producing an analgesic effect. |
| The nurse recognizes that many institutions are now including pain assessment as a part of: | Making pain a vital sign would ensure that pain is monitored on a regular basis. |
| After a pain assessment, the nurse promptly administers an ordered analgesic because: | unrelieved pain can cause setbacks. Appropriate pain management can bring about quicker recoveries, shorter hospital stays, fewer readmissions, and can improve the quality of life. |
| The nurse obtains information from a patient about the site, severity, and duration of the pain. These data are considered to be: | subjective data. Information from the patient concerning site, severity, and duration of the pain is subjective data that only the patient knows. |
| When assessing pain of a Hispanic male, the nurse must be especially observant of objective data because some Hispanic men: | feel it is unmanly to admit to pain. |
| To share assessment findings and pain relief interventions, which documentation sample is the most helpful? | The nurse should record subjective information relative to the pain as well as the intervention and administration route. 1600: Patient reports sharp pain in left chest radiating to neck. MSO4 5 mg administered IM in right deltoid. |
| The nurse who uses guidelines for individualizing pain management recognizes the importance of providing pain relief how many minutes before a painful procedure? | 30, Giving an analgesic 30 minutes before an activity is controlling pain early. |
| The nurse teaches noninvasive pain relief techniques such as guided imagery, biofeedback, and relaxation because their primary advantage is that they: | give the patient some control. The greatest advantage of noninvasive pain relief techniques is that they give the patient some control. |
| The nurse explains that transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) provides a continuous mild electrical current to the skin and reduces pain by: | TENS works by blocking pain impulses. |
| When an American Indian patient requests that an egg yolk be placed in a saucer and put under his bed to absorb the pain, the nurse should? | place the egg in a saucer under the bed. The nurse should use methods of pain control that the patient believes will work. |
| The home health nurse explains that due to the patient’s implantation of a pacemaker, he is not a candidate for the use of: | a TENS unit. may interfere with the function of the pacemaker. |
| To reassure a patient who is concerned about receiving addictive drugs, the nurse states that research has shown that the percentage of patients who become addicted is less than | 1%, Research findings suggest that less than 1% of patients receiving analgesics become addicted |
| The nurse reminds the patient using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) that the major advantage to this method is that it is | quicker. The use of the PCA gives quicker relief as there is no delay in waiting for the nurse to respond to the request for analgesia. |
| When a patient tearfully declares the use of relaxation techniques does not work for her, the nurse should: | encourage the patient to try again. Some alternative approaches to pain control require practice. Encouragement to try again is appropriate. |
| The nurse carefully assesses a patient receiving an opioid narcotic for the common side effect of: | Constipation is the most common opioid narcotic side effect that patients do not develop a tolerance to. |
| The best approach for a nurse to utilize when planning pain relief measures is to use: | A variety of methods applied simultaneously have an additive effect on pain control. |
| To establish an effective relationship with the patient in pain, the nurse should begin the assessment by saying? | “I believe you are in pain.” A nursing intervention to establish an effective relationship is to believe the patient. Although the other options are not wrong, they do not help establish an effective relationship. |
| The home health nurse instructs the family of an older adult patient with arthritis that his sleep can be promoted by? | Diuretics should be given in the mornings to reduce having to wake up to go to the bathroom during the night |
| Using a pain scale of 1 to 10, the nurse explains that the maximum pain level at which a patient can function effectively is? | 4, Most patients do not function effectively if the pain level exceeds 4 on a scale of 10. |
| When a patient is receiving epidural analgesics, the patient must be closely monitored for a(n)? | decrease in respirations from 16 to 14. Administering epidural analgesics requires close monitoring for respiratory depression |
| When treating a postoperative patient’s pain, the nurse should administer: | To control pain early, an analgesic should be given 30 to 40 minutes before a patient must walk or perform an activity |
| When assisting a postoperative patient with pain control and comfort, the nurse should | lift the patient up in bed. Pain control and comfort measures include loosening constricting bandages, lifting, not pulling the patient up in bed, and preventing constipation by encouraging appropriate fluid and dietary intake. |
| While educating a patient about transcutaneous electric nerve stimulation (TENS), the nurse should inform the patient that the TENS | may interfere with the function of a cardiac pacemaker. sing a TENS unit if the patient has a cardiac pacemaker device may interfere with pacemaker function |
| A nurse caring for a patient who requires long-term management for severe pain recognizes that the drug of choice for this patient is | Morphine and hydromorphone are the opioids of choice for long-term management of severe pain. |
| The nurse should administer an analgesic to an unconscious patient after observing which sign | Pain indicators in the unconscious patient might include increased heart rate, blood pressure, and muscle tension; diaphoresis; and grimacing. |
| The pain relief intervention that stimulates large cutaneous nerve fibers to “close the gate” is the _________ unit. | TENS |
| The nurse clarifies that the term peripheral analgesics describes the group of drugs also referred to as ___________. | NSAIDs |
| The nurse is aware that the state at which a person is mentally relaxed, free from worry, and is physically calm is _________. | rest |
| When a patient tells the nurse he is reluctant to report his pain because he does not want to be a bother, the nurse explains that unrelieved pain can cause which problems | Increased oxygen demand, Depression, Respiratory dysfunction, Decreased GI motility, Irritability. Pain, which is unrelieved, can cause many physical and psychological symptoms. |
| The nurse reminds the patient recovering from a hip replacement that the exercises performed in the physical therapy department are considered | Complementary therapies are used in addition to conventional therapies. |
| An older adult patient tells the home health nurse, “My doctor hasn’t helped my arthritis at all. I am using the chiropractor now.” The patient has gone from | allopathic medicine to alternative therapy. Alternative therapies may become the primary treatment modality; for instance, the patient switching from traditional (allopathic) medicine to chiropractic (alternative). |
| The nurse recognizes that the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine (NCCAM) has the responsibility of: | evaluating effectiveness of alternative medical treatments. It was established to facilitate the evaluation of alternative medical treatment |
| When obtaining a health history, the nurse asks about the patient’s use of alternative therapies because many such therapies can | have unfortunate interactions with traditional therapies. Some alternative therapies may have serious side effects. As a rule, complementary and alternative (CAM) therapies are not curative or healing as is allopathic medicine |
| Because of its synergizing effect on barbiturates, the herb the nurse should ask if the patient taking barbiturates is also using is | Valerian enhances the effect of barbiturates. |
| The nurse reminds the patient who takes tincture of rosemary several times a day to | wear sunscreen. Rosemary can cause photosensitivity. |
| The nurse reminds users of herbal remedies that the manufacturers of these products? | Herbal remedy manufacturers are not required by law to demonstrate the safety of their products |
| Although herbs have not been approved for use as drugs, they are allowed to be sold? | Herbs are sold as diet/food supplements. |
| The goal of herbal therapy is to | The goal of herbal therapy is to restore balance. |
| Confusion and misinformation relative to herbal medicine can make patients reluctant to disclose their herbal use to health care providers. The nurse’s approach should be | A nonjudgmental open attitude will encourage the patient to share information about the use of CAM (complementary and alternative medicine). |
| Placing an herb in alcohol or vinegar will make a(n)? | Tinctures |
| During a follow-up visit with a patient recently started on Coumadin, the home health nurse is concerned after seeing an herbal remedy that enhances the effect of anticoagulants by the patient’s bedside. That herbal remedy is? | Ginseng |
| Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that uses fine needles placed in acupoints that: | open meridians to release Qi. |
| The nurse tells the patient with phlebitis of the left leg that until the condition is resolved, he should forgo | Therapeutic massage is contraindicated in conditions such as thrombosis, phlebitis, and infective skin diseases. |
| The nurse who uses essential oils to provide inhalation treatments is practicing | Aromatherapy uses pure essential oils to provide health benefits |
| The nurse recognizes that reflexology is a therapy based on the theory that the entire body can be reached by applying pressure to specific areas of the: | feet |
| A type of therapy thought to increase circulation to the affected area, promote healing, and stimulate acupuncture points, is called | magnetic therapy. |
| Using the conscious mind to create situations that evoke physical changes in the body is termed | imagery. |
| When the nurse describes a therapy that can produce a state of decreased cognitive, physiological, and/or behavioral arousal, the nurse is referring to the alternative therapy of? | Relaxation |
| A therapeutic treatment that joins the mind and body and increases muscle tone and flexibility is: | yoga therapy. |
| A training system that may help prevent osteoporosis is | Taiji, although a martial arts skill, increases balance and timing and may prevent osteoporosis |
| A patient wants to use aromatherapy to treat pneumonia, but the hospital policy will not allow burning of eucalyptus-scented candles. The nurse suggests the use of: | a topical eucalyptus product. Eucalyptus oils can be used for inhalation or may be applied topically |
| A patient admitted with lower back pain is unsure that the treatment is helping. When asked what alternative therapies might help, the nurse suggests | Chiropractic therapy is currently viewed as an acceptable treatment for certain disorders, including back pain |
| Herbal remedies vary from pharmaceutical remedies in what way(s)? | use the whole plant. have no quality control. have no standard dose. sold as food supplements. Herbal remedies are not always safe and effective. |
| Founded in 1992, the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine (NCCAM) has the responsibility for what actions? | The National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine has the responsibility to evaluate treatments, distribute information, and conduct research. It has no power to remove defective products from the market or deal with insurance payments. |
| The nurse recommends that a patient have animal-assisted therapy sessions (AAT) because this therapy has been found to have what effect(s)? | Improvement in mood, Decrease in blood pressure, Reduction of allergies, Increase in socialization skills |
| A nurse reassures that almost _% of all health care consumers in the U.S. take some form of herbal or natural supplement alone or in combination with conventional medicines but rarely report this practice to their health care providers | 50%. It is estimated that almost half of all health care consumers take some form of herbal or natural product supplement |
| People with fractures, rheumatoid arthritis, and osteoporosis are not candidates for ____________ therapy. | chiropractic therapy, Contraindications for include acute myelopathy, fractures, dislocations, rheumatoid arthritis, and osteoporosis. |
| People often choose complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) for which reason(s)? | CAM is less invasive, more holistic, focused on prevention, dedicated to health maintenance, within the control of the patient |
| Before giving permission for any procedure, a patient must have full knowledge about what will be done during the procedure along with its risks and complications. This is called: | nformed consent. |
| The nurse can assist with reducing anxiety when preparing a patient for a diagnostic examination by: | The nurse must be prepared to answer questions that the patient may have to reduce anxiety and give valid information |
| To lessen a patient’s embarrassment when asked to provide a sample of body excretions, the nurse may provide the patient with proper instructions and allow the patient to | With proper instruction, many patients may obtain their own specimen. |
| The responsibility for notifying the physician when laboratory and diagnostic studies deviate from the norm belongs to the: | nurse |
| The cleanest part of a voided urine specimen is collected after voiding is initiated and before it is finished. This is called a | midstream specimen |
| The patient is to be catheterized for residual urine. The nurse must perform this catheterization within how many minutes following voiding? | 10 minutes |
| The process for collecting a blood specimen for measuring blood glucose levels begins by asking the patient to hold the selected arm at his or her side for 30 seconds and taking the specimen from the? | The specimen should be collected from the side of the selected finger to avoid painful fingertip sticks. |
| A stool specimen that must be sent to the laboratory immediately is a specimen for? | A stool specimen for the presence of ova or parasites must be taken to the laboratory immediately. |
| If there is bright red blood in the stool, the nurse recognizes that the probable source of the blood is the | When blood in the stool is bright red, the site of bleeding is most likely from the lower gastrointestinal tract |
| Because a sputum specimen must come from deep in the bronchial tree, the nurse will attempt to collect the specimen | Early morning before a meal is the best time to collect a sputum specimen. |
| Because some patients are unable to obtain a sputum specimen by coughing and expectorating, the nurse may collect the specimen by? | Some patients cannot expectorate and must have the trachea suctioned to obtain a specimen. |
| When the nurse is collecting a specimen for a wound culture, the specimen should never be collected from: | The nurse should not collect a wound culture from old drainage. |
| Anaerobic organisms tend to grow within body cavities. To collect an anaerobic specimen, the nurse uses a sterile: | the nurse uses a sterile syringe tip. |
| When obtaining a throat culture, the nurse must use a cotton-tipped applicator to swab the? | The nurse should swab the tonsillar area (pharynx) with a sterile cotton-tipped applicator to obtain a specimen for a throat culture. |
| The nurse explains that electrocardiograms are graphic representations of electrical impulses generated by the heart and can identify abnormalities that | interfere with electrical conduction. |
| The nurse assesses a patient's knowledge of an ordered procedure to determine? | health teaching required. |
| Before administration of contrast media, the nurse should assess if the patient | is allergic to iodine. The patient should always be assessed for allergies to iodine before administration of contrast media. |
| The nurse should administer Telepaque in preparation for a cholecystogram one tablet at a time every | Telepaque should be taken one at a time, waiting 15 minutes after each tablet. |
| Following a liver biopsy, the nurse should observe for hemorrhage and ensure that the patient is kept on bed rest for 24 hours. For the first 1 to 2 hours, the nurse should keep the patient? | The nurse should keep the patient on his or her right side for 1 to 2 hours. |
| The patient has undergone a lumbar puncture. The nurse places the patient in which position for up to 12 hours to avoid discomfort from postpuncture spinal headache? | The nurse should place the patient in the prone position and keep in reclining position for 12 hours |
| When preparing a patient for a diagnostic examination, part of the nurse’s role is to obtain a signed informed consent before the procedure. This is required for all | All invasive procedures require a signed informed consent. |
| The procedure for collecting a sterile urine specimen via a catheter port includes clamping the Foley catheter tubing below the catheter port for | Clamp just below the catheter port for 30 minutes. |
| To protect a patient from aspiration following a bronchoscopy, the nurse should keep the patient NPO for 2 hours until the? | The nurse should not allow the patient to eat or drink after a bronchoscopy until the gag reflex has returned. |
| The nurse has an order to perform occult blood testing on a patient’s emesis. The nurse recognizes that the test is positive for occult blood when the sample turns | If the sample turns blue, the test is positive for occult blood; if it turns green, it is negative for occult blood. |
| When preparing the patient for an abdominal scan, the nurse should? | labs should be assessed for kidney function. The patient should be instructed to be NPO for 4 hours before the examination if contrast medium is to be used. The patient should be assessed for allergies to dye or shellfish |
| When preparing the patient for an arteriography, the nurse should: | For an arteriography, the nurse should assess if the patient has been taking anticoagulants. Kept NPO for 2 to 8 hours before the procedure. Warm flush may be felt when dye is injected. Instructed to void before the arteriography. |
| The nurse should explain to the patient that following a barium enema the color of the stools will be: | white until all of the barium is expelled. |
| When preparing the patient for an amniocentesis, the nurse should? | When a patient has an amniocentesis, fetal heart tones should be monitored. There are no fluid or food restrictions, and the patient should be told to contact her physician to obtain results, which are usually available after 2 weeks. |
| When preparing the patient for a bone scan, the nurse should? | Before a bone scan, the patient is encouraged to drink several glasses of water. No fasting or sedation is required before a bone scan. |
| When preparing the patient for a brain scan, the nurse should? | Before a brain scan, keep NPO for 4 hours if contrast dye is to be used, instruct not to wear a wig, hairpins, clips, or partial denture plates, inform the patient that a clicking noise is made as the scanner moves |
| When preparing the patient for a bronchoscopy, the nurse should | they will be able to breathe during the procedure. The patient is instructed to remain NPO after midnight (4 to 8 hours) before the procedure. Informed consent must be obtained before the patient is premedicated. |
| When preparing the patient for an electroencephalogram (EEG), the nurse should encourage the intake of | Food intake should be encouraged, but coffee, tea, and colas should be eliminated before an EEG. |
| When preparing the patient for a glucose tolerance test (GTT), the nurse should: | encourage water intake before the test, keep NPO for 12 hours before the test except for water consumption so that they can provide urine samples. Empty their bladder before the examination. |
| When preparing the patient for an exercise tolerance test (treadmill), the nurse should? | allow the patient to drink water before the test , keep NPO except for water, for 4 hours until after the test. The nurse should never hold the patient’s heart medications before this test. |
| A patient has just had a liver biopsy. Immediately following this procedure, the nurse should: | keep on bed rest for 24 hours. The patient should lie on his or her right side for about 1 to 2 hours. The nurse should tell the patient to avoid coughing or straining, which may cause increased intra-abdominal pressure. |
| After a bone scan, the nurse assesses a hematoma at the injection site of the dye. The nurse should apply ______ soaks or compresses. | Warm, Heat will speed absorption of collected blood. |
| When initiating a 24-hour urine collection, the nurse asks the patient to void. The nurse then _______ the specimen | discards, The first voided specimen of a 24-hour collection is discarded. |
| Following an intravenous pyelogram, the nurse should watch the patient closely for a delayed reaction to the dye, usually occurring within ___ to ___ hours following the procedure. | 2, 6. Delayed reactions to iodine may not be obvious until 2 to 6 hours postprocedure. |
| When collecting a stool specimen for a guaiac (occult blood in stool), the nurse should take a specimen from _____ different parts of the stool. | 2, The selection of different parts of the stool gives a broader testing range of the specimen. |
| When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be left on no more than ____ to ____ minutes | 1, 2. Occluding the vein for longer than 1 or 2 minutes may cause damage to the vein or cause it to rupture |
| When preparing to administer blood, the nurse should select a needle with a gauge of? | 18 or less, A large-bore needle will allow blood flow without clogging. |
| When a patient receiving IV fluid therapy shows an increase in blood pressure and has bilateral crackles, the nurse’s first priority is to: | When signs of circulatory overload are observed, the infusion is slowed down initially, then the nurse should notify the charge nurse. |
| The nurse notes an edematous area around the insertion site of an IV that is cool to the touch and the skin of which appears blanched. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse’s first priority is | The infusion should be stopped and restarted in another location. Warm compresses are contraindicated. Repositioning the arm will not remedy the infiltration. The charge nurse can be notified after the fact |
| While teaching a patient about the signs of IV therapy–associated phlebitis, the nurse reminds the patient that the area will be: | warm, edematous, and red. |
| The nurse is alert for a serious condition called ___________ that results from pathogens being introduced into the blood stream. | septicemia. |
| If a patient has a transfusion reaction, the nurse should perform the following interventions in which priority order? | The correct sequence of interventions is to stop the transfusion, take and record vital signs, notify physician and blood bank of the reaction, return the blood and tubing to the blood bank, and monitor urine output. |
| What percentage of an adult’s body weight consists of water? | The percentage of water declines to 50% to 60% in adults |
| When administering intravenous (IV) fluids, the nurse ensures that the IV fluids are infusing as ordered to prevent dehydration in an adult. Dehydration can become lethal if the patient loses? | A loss of 20% of body fluid in an adult is fatal. |
| The nurse uses a diagram to show that fluids in the interstitial and intravascular compartments are combined to form the? | extracellular compartment. |
| The nurse encourages a patient who has been vomiting to drink fluids because the body fluid lost daily must match the amount of fluid taken in to maintain homeostasis. The recommended daily amount of water for an adult is about: | Daily water intake and output is about 2500 mL in the adult. |
| The nurse must keep an accurate intake and output record to assess kidney efficiency. In order for the kidneys to remove waste, they must produce an hourly urine output of at least: | 30 mL. |
| The nurse weighs a patient at the same time of day with the same scale and same clothing as a simple and accurate method of determining: | water balance. |
| When a patient takes substances into the body, they first enter the extracellular compartment. However, to carry out their function they must enter the: | intracellular compartment. b. intracellular compartment. |
| The nurse instructs a patient that his inhaled oxygen moved into the intravascular compartment by a process called: | Passive transport occurs when the patient inhales oxygen into the lungs, with the oxygen passing by diffusion into the intravascular compartment. |
| The nurse explains to a patient that the drug Lasix reduces edema by drawing water from the interstitial space into the intravascular space. This process is called | Osmosis is the movement of water from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration. |
| Actively transporting electrolytes from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration requires: | Electrolytes are moved by hydrostatic pressure, which is a form of active transport |
| Electrolytes are not measured by weight; their electrical activity is expressed in milliequivalents. The nurse clarifies that 1 milliequivalent of potassium has the same combining power as 1 milliequivalent of | 1 milliequivalent of any electrolyte is equal to 1 milliequivalent of hydrogen |
| Sodium is the most abundant electrolyte in the body. The location of electrolytes is important for maintaining homeostasis. Sodium is the major electrolyte in which fluid compartment? | Sodium is the major extracellular electrolyte. |
| The lactating mother is counseled by the nurse to eat adequate amounts of meat and legumes to increase her level of | Phosphorus should be increased during pregnancy and lactation. |
| As the nurse assesses the edematous cardiac patient, she is aware that the condition is a result of retained fluid and the patient is | Hypernatremia is a greater-than-normal concentration of sodium, which leads to retained fluids and edema. |
| The nurse closely assesses a patient with hypokalemia for: | cardiac complications. |
| After assessing a calcium level of 6.2 mEq/L, the nurse modifies the care plan for the immobilized patient to include observation for possible | Hypercalcemia occurs when calcium levels exceed 5.8 mEq/L. It may occur when calcium stored in the bone enters the circulation, for example, in patients who are immobilized. Renal calculi may develop because of high levels of calcium. |
| Homeostasis of the hydrogen ion concentration in body fluids depends on the ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonate in the extracellular fluid, which is: | 1:20. 1 part carbonic acid to 20 parts bicarbonate |
| When reading the lab report of a patient with excessive diarrhea, the nurse notes that the pH is 7.10, and the PaCO2 and the PaO2 are normal. From this information alone, the nurse assesses the patient to be in? | The profile of a patient in metabolic acidosis is that the blood pH will be below 7.35 and the oxygen readings are within normal limits. |
| When assessing a patient with respiratory alkalosis, the nurse expects to see: | Tetany and muscle weakness, tachypnea, and cardiac arrhythmias are symptomatic of respiratory alkalosis. |
| Three body systems work at different speeds to keep the pH in the narrow range of normal. The order of effectiveness for these three systems is: | blood buffers, lungs, and kidneys. The blood buffers’ speed is a fraction of a second, the lungs take minutes, and the kidneys take hours to days. |
| A patient admitted in a state of extreme anxiety has vital signs of: T 98.6° F, P 81, BP 130/86, R 32. The nurse is aware if this hyperventilation continues, the result will be | Respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilation as the lungs blow off large amounts of CO2 |
| If a patient began vomiting and continued to do so for several hours, the nurse is aware that this loss of stomach contents can result in: | The most common cause of metabolic alkalosis is vomiting gastric contents. |
| When creating a nursing care plan for a patient with metabolic acidosis, the nurse should focus on? | Deep breathing will cause the patient to blow off CO2 and assist in increasing the pH and reduce the acidity. |
| The nurse concludes there is no need for further instruction about selecting foods high in potassium when the patient chooses | Apricots and asparagus are potassium-rich. |
| The three types of passive transport are diffusion, osmosis, and filtration. | The bicarbonate/carbonic acid system, the respiratory system, and the renal system are the buffer systems of the body |
| The nurse expects an adult with normal kidney function to void a minimum of ____ mL of urine in 4 hours | 120. The norm is to excrete at least 30 mL/hour. In 4 hours, the urine output is expected to be 120 mL. |
| A child has been having an asthma attack for the last 8 hours. Because of the child’s inability to exhale effectively, the nurse assesses for respiratory __ | Acidosis, Retained CO2 will lead to respiratory acidosis. |
| The nurse explains that a normal adult will lose approximately _____ mL of water through respiration in the course of a day. | 350, Adults lose about 350 mL of water daily through respiration. |
| The nurse teaches a patient who has a nonfunctioning or dysfunctional GI tract that total parenteral nutrition (TPN) will be infused through the? | TPN solution is usually infused through the superior vena cava. |
| The process by which certain cells engulf and digest microorganisms and cellular debris is called? | phagocytosis, process by which bacteria, cellular debris, and solid particles are destroyed and removed. |
| An examination in which the different kinds of white blood cells are counted and reported as percentages of the total examined or absolute (actual number) is called | A differential white blood cell count is an examination in which the different kinds of WBCs are counted and reported as percentages of the total examined. |
| The element that makes up 55% of the blood is? | Plasma constitutes 55% of the blood’s volume; the remaining 45% is composed of the blood cells and platelets. |
| Erythrocytes are also known as | RBC's(red blood cells) give blood its rich, red color. |
| Leukocytes are also known as | WBCs. (white blood cells) have nuclei, are colorless, and live from a few days to several years. |
| The presence of excess bands in the peripheral blood that indicate severe infection is called | a shift to the left (i.e., a shift toward immature cells) and indicates severe infection. |
| A patient has a test ordered to determine why he is having fatigue and soreness of the tongue. A test that will measure the absorption of radioactive vitamin B12 is | The Schilling test is a laboratory blood test for diagnosing pernicious anemia. The test measures the absorption of radioactive vitamin B12. |
| In an adult, erythrocytes are continuously produced in the | red bone marrow, principally in the vertebrae, ribs, and sternum. |
| Which is a normal blood value for eosinophils | 1% to 4%. |
| Which is a normal blood value for lymphocytes? | 20% to 40%. |
| _____________ are leukocytes which destroy and remove cellular waste, bacteria, and solid particles | Neutrophilsl, (granular circulating leukocytes essential for phagocytosis, ingest bacteria and dispose of dead tissue.) |
| The organ that forms lymphocytes is the __________. | spleen, The main functions are to serve as a reservoir for blood; form lymphocytes, monocytes, and plasma cells; destroy worn-out RBCs; remove bacteria by phagocytosis; and produce RBCs before birth. |
| The nurse is writing a nursing diagnosis for a plan of care for a patient who has been newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Which statement reflects the correct format for a nursing diagnosis? | Anxiety related to new drug therapy as evidenced by statements such as “I’m upset about having to give myself shots” |
| A patient is to receive oral digoxin (Lanoxin) daily; however, because he is unable to swallow, he cannot take it orally, as ordered. What type of problem does this represent? | “Right route” problem |
| The nurse has been monitoring a patient’s progress on a new drug regimen since the first dose and documenting signs of possible adverse effects. This example illustrates which phase of the nursing process? | Monitoring the patient’s progress is part of the evaluation phase |
| The nurse is assigned to a patient who is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement best illustrates an outcome criterion for this patient? | “Demonstrating safe insulin self-administration technique” is a specific and measurable outcome criterion. |
| Which activity best reflects the implementation phase of the nursing process for a patient who is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus? | Education is an intervention that occurs during the implementation phase |
| The medication order reads, “Give ondansetron 24 mg, 30 minutes before beginning chemotherapy to prevent nausea.” The nurse notes that the route is missing from the order. What is the nurse’s best action? | A complete medication order includes the route of administration. If a medication order does not include the route, the nurse must ask the prescriber to clarify it. The other options are not correct actions. |
| When the nurse considers the timing of a drug dose, which of the factors listed below is appropriate to consider when deciding when to give a drug? | The nurse must consider specific pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamic drug properties that may be affected by the timing of the last meal |
| Medication Administration must always include the right drug, the right route, the right dose, the right time, the right patient, and the right documentation | When giving medications, the nurse will follow the rights of medication administration, which include what rights? |
| The nursing process is an ongoing process that begins with assessing and continues with diagnosing, planning, implementing, and evaluating. | Place the phases of the nursing process in the correct order |
| A patient is receiving two different drugs. At current dosages and dosage forms, both drugs are absorbed into the circulation in identical amounts. Thus, because they have the same absorption rates, they are | bioequivalent. |
| When given an intravenous (IV) medication, the patient says to the nurse, “I usually take pills. Why does this medication have to be given in the arm?” What is the nurse’s best answer? | “The action of the medication will begin sooner when given intravenously.” |
| The nurse is administering parenteral drugs. Which statement is true regarding parenteral drugs? | Drugs given by the parenteral route bypass the first-pass effect |
| Monitoring a Pt. on an insulin drip to reduce blood glucose levels, it’s noted that the Pt’’s glucose level is extremely low, and the Pt is lethargic and difficult to awaken. This would be classified as which type of adverse drug reaction? | A pharmacologic reaction, an extension of a drug’s normal effects in the body |
| When reviewing pharmacology terms for a group of newly graduated nurses, the nurse explains that a drug’s half-life is the time it takes for | A drug’s half-life is the time it takes for one half of the original amount of a drug to be removed from the body. It is a measure of the rate at which drugs are removed from the body. |
| When administering drugs, the nurse remembers that the duration of action of a drug is defined as the time it takes | for a drug’s concentration to be sufficient to cause a therapeutic response. |
| When reviewing the mechanism of action of a specific drug, the nurse reads that the drug works by selective enzyme interaction. This process occurs when the drug | the drug attracts the enzymes to bind with the drug instead of allowing the enzymes to bind with their normal target cells. As a result, the target cells are protected from the action of the enzymes |
| When administering a new medication to a patient, the nurse reads that it is highly protein-bound. The nurse should expect which result? | Drugs that are bound to plasma proteins are characterized by longer duration of action |
| Under the tongue | A patient is experiencing chest pain and needs to take a sublingual form of nitroglycerin. Where does the nurse instruct the patient to place the tablet? |
| The nurse is administering medications to a patient who is in liver failure resulting from end-stage cirrhosis. The nurse is aware that patients with liver failure would most likely have problems with which pharmacokinetic phase | Metabolism, The liver is the organ that is most responsible for drug metabolism. Decreased liver function most strongly affects the metabolism of a drug. |
| A patient who has advanced cancer is receiving opioid medications around the clock to keep him comfortable as he nears the end of his life. Which term best describes this type of therapy? | Palliative therapy, The goal is to make the patient as comfortable as possible. It is typically used in the end stages of illnesses when all attempts at curative therapy have failed |
| The nurse gave a sleeping pill to an elderly patient at bedtime. Two hours later, the patient is irritable and restless and unable to sleep. The nurse recognizes that the patient’s response is reflective of which reaction? | Idiosyncratic reaction, is not the result of a known pharmacologic property of a drug or of an allergy but instead occurs unexpectedly in a particular patient. Such a reaction is a genetically determined abnormal response to normal dosages of a drug |
| which classification of drugs would be affected by the first-pass effect? | Orally administered drugs (elixirs, tablets, capsules) undergo the first-pass effect because they are metabolized in the liver after being absorbed into the portal circulation from the small intestine. |
| A woman is visiting the prenatal clinic and shares a desire to go “natural” with her pregnancy. She shows a list of herbal remedies that she wants to buy to “avoid taking any drugs.” Which statement by the nurse is correct? | “It’s important to remember that herbal remedies do not have proven safety ratings for pregnant women.” |
| The patient is asking the nurse about current U.S. laws and regulations of herbal products. | Current U.S. laws view herbal products as dietary supplements and do not hold them to the same safety and efficacy standards as drugs |
| A patient wants to take the herb valerian to help himself rest at night. The nurse would be concerned about potential interactions if he is taking which drugs? | Sedatives, may cause increased central nervous system depression if used with sedatives |
| A patient is taking an OTC acid-reducing drug for “stomach problems” for several months. He says the medicine helps as long as he takes it, but once he stops it, the symptoms return. Which statement by the nurse is the best advice for this patient? | “Using this drug may relieve your symptoms, but it does not address the cause. You should be seen by your health care provider.” |
| During an assessment, a patient tells the nurse that he eats large amounts of garlic for its cardiovascular benefits. Which drug or drug classes, if taken, would have a potential interaction with the garlic? | Insulin, The use of garlic may interfere with hypoglycemic drugs |
| A patient calls the clinic to ask about taking cranberry dietary supplement capsules because a friend recommended them. The nurse will discuss which possible concern when a patient is taking cranberry supplements? | It may reduce elimination of drugs that are excreted by the kidneys. |
| The nurse is conducting a class for senior citizens about the use of over-the-counter (OTC) drugs. Which statements are true regarding the use of OTC drugs | It is true that use of OTC drugs may delay treatment of serious ailments; OTC drugs may relieve symptoms without addressing the cause of the problem, and patients may misunderstand product labels and misuse the drugs |
| A Pt with pancreatic cancer last month, she complaines of a dull ache in her abdomen for 4 months. The pain has been gradually increased, the pain relievers are no longer effective. What type of pain is she experiencing? | Chronic pain is associated with cancer and is characterized by slow onset, long duration, and dull, persistent aching |
| An 18-year-old basketball player fell and twisted his ankle during a game. The nurse will expect to administer which type of analgesic? | Somatic pain, originating from skeletal muscles, ligaments, and joints, usually responds to nonopioid analgesics, such as nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). |
| A Pt. has lung cancer for 3 years. Over the past few months, the opioid analgesic she has been taking is not helping as much and says she needs to take more medication for the same pain relief. This patient is experiencing opioid? | Opioid tolerance is a common physiologic result of long-term opioid use. Patients with opioid tolerance require larger doses of the opioid agent to maintain the same level of analgesia. |
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68C14006