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OB exam 2 notecards

exam 2 notecards

QuestionAnswer
What is the purpose of antepartal testing? to detect for congenital anomalies and to evaluate the condition of the fetus
What are some maternal medical conditions that are risk factors associated with antepartal testing? diabetes and hypertension
What are the demographic factors associated with being risk ractors for antepartal testing? age, poverty and OB history
True or false: ultrasounds capture low-frequency sound. false. (explanation: ultrasounds are high-frequency sound waves that are beamed onto the abdomen)
What are ultrasounds? high-frequency sound waves are beamed onto the abdomen
What do the echoes in an ultrasound record? the fetus's location and size
What is the most common time to perform an ultrasound? Can be performed in any trimester, most common at 20 weeks (2nd trimester) because structures visibly seen
What are some reasons to do a first trimester ultrasound? to detect the baby's gestational age (typical with in an unplanned pregnancy) and if mom is going for further genetic testing
What can an ultrasound tell you? - Positive sign of pregnancy - gestational age - IUGR - BPP
What variables does the biophysical profile (BPP) measure? - fetal breathing movements - gross fetal body movements - fetal tone - amniotic fluid volume - reactive fetal heart rate tracing (non-stress test)
The results of a BPP test indicate a total score of 8-10. What does this mean? Very good! Baby received max points indicating fetal well being.
The results of a BPP test indicate a total score of less than four. What does this mean? May consider delivery at this time, poor result, indicating fetal ill-health.
The results of a BPP test indicate a total score of six. What does this mean? equivocal; may need to do another test because this baby may be in trouble (hypoxic)
True or false: Biophysical profile's are typically done by the RN. false (explanation: BPP typically done by the doctor/NP)
Each variable on the BPP receives what score for a normal response? 2
Each variable on the BPP receives what score for an abnromal or abspent response? 0
The Alpha-Fetoprotein test is done when? offered at 16-18 weeks
If there are elevated levels of alpha-fetaprotein in mom's blood, what does that mean? It can mean that the baby has neural tube defects
If there are decreased levels of alpha-fetaprotein in mom's blood, what does that mean? It can mean that the baby has down syndrome.
True or false: the alpha-fetoprotein test is diagnostic. false. explanation: the alpha-fetaprotein test is a SCREENING blood test.
The alpha-fetaprotein levels in a mom are found to be decreased. What does this mean, and what would you expect to do next? decreased levels of alpha-fetaprotein are associated with downs syndrome. I would expect to do an ultrasound next because an alpha-fetaprotein DOES NOT DIAGNOSE!!.
What factors may affect an alpha-fetoprotein screening? gestational age, maternal weight, twinse, race, diabetes.
True or false: there is a high rate of false positives associated with alpha-fetoprotein. true
How do twins affect an alpha-fetoprotein screening? more babies = more alpha-fetoprotein
True or false: the alpha-fetoprotein screening is a skin test done on mom. false. explanation: the alpha-fetoprotein screening is a BLOOD test done on mom.
villi is a part of the ____________. placenta
Describe chorionic villus sampling It is a removal of a small piece of villi (placenta) under ultrasound guidance
When is chorionic villus sampling typically done? between 10-12 weeks gestation
What is the purpose of chorionic villus sampling? It is a test that determines genetic diagnosis early in the first trimester
How long does it take to obtain the results of hte chorionic viollus sampling? one week
True or false: an ultrasound is a risky procedure. false
True or false: a CVS is a risky procedure true
Who would want to get a CVS? someone who has a history of a fetus with a congenital abnormality
What complications can arise with a CVS? spontaneous abortions (5%)
If mom is Rh negative and gets a CVS done, what is the nurse's responsibility at this point? to administer rhogam
True or false: A mother who is GBS positive should not get the CVS. True
True or false: A mom comes to you and wants the CVS. What do you need to test for? You need to test for the GBS. If mom is GBS +, it is contraindicated to perform the CVS.
What is an amniocentesis? Removal of the amniotic sample from the uterus.
The amniocentesis can be done when? as early as 15-20 weeks
Fluid removed from an amniocentesis is used to do what? to test for genetic abnormalities of the fetus
If a mom is GBS positive and wants to know about the genetic makeup of her baby, what would you reccomend? That she wait for the 15 week mark and get an amniocentesis instead of a CVS.
Between 15-20 weeks is called ___ trimester. mid
If an amniocentesis is done mid trimester, that is typically for what purpose? karyotype - to determine trisomies and sex-linked disorders
What does the term karyotype mean? determines down syndrome, other trisomes and sex linked disorders
If an amniocentesis is done in the third trimester, what is typically the purpose? to rule out infection and to look at fetal lung maturity
If a mom is in the third trimester and contractions won't stop, what is your body trying to do and why? There may be an infection so the body wants to get out the fetus to be safe. Mom will be asymptomatic but after an amniocentesis and lab testing it will show that the environment for the fetus is infected (or not) and decisions will be made from there.
During a mid-trimester amniocentesis, we want the bladder to be ________. full
Why do we want the bladder to be full during a mid-trimester amniocentesis? to help support the uterus (push the uterus up into the abdomen)
During a third trimester amniocentesis, we want the bladder to be _______. empty
Why do we want the bladder to be empty during a third trimester amniocentesis? so it will not be punctured
What is the L/S ratio? lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
What does the L/S ratio test for? fetal lung maturity
How do we test for fetal lung maturity? we use the L/S ratio
An L/S ratio of 2:1 indicates what? adequate surfactant and mature fetal lungs
An L/S ratio of 1:2 indicates what? poor surfactant and immature fetal lungs
What are the risks associated with an amniocentesis? spontaneous abortion (1%), fetal injury and infection
True or false: There is a higher risk of spontaneous abortion with a CVS in comparison with an amniocentesis. True
What is a Non-Stress Test used for? used to determine fetal well-being in high risk pregnancy and especially useful in post-maturity
What does a non-stress test note? the fetus response to its own movements
True or false: a non-stress test is invasive. false. with a non stress test an external monitor is placed on mom
Describe what you want the fetus's heart rate to do in response to it's own movement for a non-stress test. acceleration : 15 beats above it's baseline lasting 15 seconds at least twice in a 20 minute period
What is the normal heart rate range for a full term fetus? 110-160
The fetus that responds to its own movement by a fetal heart rate acceleration of 15 beats lasting for at least 15 seconds after the movment twice in a 20 minute period is classified as what? "reactive" and healthy.
True or false: a "reactive" fetus may take up to 40 minutes to have two FHR accelerations at least 15 beats per minute above the baseline and last at least 15 seconds. true
Why can we extend the time from 20 minutes to 40 minutes while classifying a reactive fetus after a non-stress test? to allow for common fetal sleep-wake cycles
We ask pregnant mom's to lay on their side for an hour and to count what? fetal kicks
Approximately how many fetal kicks are considered "normal" within the hour? 10 or more
If a mother reports that her baby has decreased number of kicks what is the next step? further evaluation is needed
What does electronic fetal monitoring measure? contractions and the baseline fetal heart rate
The ultrasound transducer measures what? the fetal heart rate
The tocotransducer measures what? the frequency and duration of a contraction
True or false: the tocotransducer measures the intensity of contractions false. explanation: the tocotransducer measures the frequency and duration of a contraction
How can the intensity of a contraction be measured? via palpation
What is the FSE? internal fetal scalp electrode
What is ISL? Internal fetal scalp electrode
What does the internal fetal scalp electrode measure? the fetal heart rate
What is the IUPC? Intrauterine Pressure Cathether
What does the IUPC measure? Contraction intensity in mm Hg
True or false: you can tell the intensity of a contraction using an internal fetal monitor. true
When auscultating the fetal heart rate, where is it best heard? over the fetal back
Define the baseline fetal heart rate The range of the FHR between contractions monitored over a ten minute period
The FHR results from the balance between what two things? the parasympathethic and sympathethic branches of the autonomic nervous system
What is variability? characteristic of the baseline FHR and described as normal irregularity of the cardiac rhythm
True or false: variability is concerning False (explanation: variability is charactertistic of the baseline FHR and is described as normal irregularity of the cardiac rhythm
What is one of the most reliable indicators of fetal well being? variability
What are the different categories of variability? absent, minimal, moderate and marked
What category of variability is best described: "Amplitude range is undetectable"? absent
What category of variability is best described: "Amplitude range detectable up to and including 5 beats/minute"? minimal variability
What category of variability is best described: " Amplitude rage 6-25 bpm"? moderate
What type of variability is considered normal? moderate variability
What category of variability is best described: "Amplitude range >25 bpm"? marked variability
With a fetal heart monitor, what are nursing actions based on? assessment of contractions and the assessment of fetal heart rate
What type of changes are best described: "FHR changes in relation to Uterine Contractions?" Periodic
Accelerations and early Decelerations are classified as what type of changes? Periodic
Accelerations of the fetal heart rate indicate what? fetal well-being
True or false: accelerations of the fetal heart rate are concerning. False. explanation: fetal heart rate accelerations occour NORMALLY in response to fetal movement and are a REASURRING sign.
To be classified as an acceleration, what has to happen to the heart rate? increase of 15 beats for 15 seconds
An acceleration is a ________ fetal response. sympathethic
What is best described? "heart rate slowly and smoothly deceleartes at the beginning of a contraction and returns to the baseline at the end of contraction" early deceleration
True or false: early decelerations are concerning. false. explanation: early decelerations are benign patterns caused by parasympathethic response
early decelerations are associated with what changes to the fetus? head compression: briefly increases the intracranial pressure, causing the vagus nerve to slow the heart rate
What nursing actions are required with early decelerations? none; just monitor the progress of labor and document the progress
True or false: variability changes are concerning. true (explanation: absent, minimal or marked are concerning)
True or false: bradycardia is concerning. true
True or false: accelerations are concerning false
True or false: tachycardia is concerning. true
True or false: variable decelerations are concerning true
True or false: late decelerations are concerning true
What FHR pattern is best described: "The FHR is absent or has minimal variability?" variability changes
What are the causes of minimal variability? hypoxia, acidosis, maternal drug ingestion (narcotics, CNS depressants like magnesium sulfate) and fetal sleep (usually 40 minutes or less with term fetus)
Nursing actions are based on what when FHR is absent? based on the cause (hypoxia, acidosis, maternal drug ingestion or fetal sleep)
What FHR pattern is best described?: "FHR is below 110 bpm (assessed between contractions) for 10 minutes) bradycardia
Late manifestation of fetal hypoxia is a cause of ___________ bradycardia
What are the causes of bradycardia? late manifestation of fetal hypoxia medication-induced (narcotics, magnesium sulfate) maternal hypotension prolonged umbilical cord compression
What FHR pattern is best described?: "Baseline FHR is above 160 bpm (assessed between contractions) for 10 minutes tachycardia
Narcotics can cause what FHR situation? (hint: bradycardia or tachycardia?) bradycardia
Magnesium sulfate can cause what FHR situation? (hint: bradycardia or tachycardia?) bradycardia
Maternal hypotension can cause what FHR situation? (hint: bradycardia or tachycardia?) bradycardia
Fetal heart block can cause what FHR situation? (hint: bradycardia or tachycardia?) bradycardia
prolonged umbilical cord compression can cause what FHR situation? (hint: bradycardia or tachycardia?) bradycardia
early signs of fetal hypoxia is a cause of what FHR situation? tachycardia
late manifestations of fetal hypoxia is a cause of what FHR situation? (hint: bradycardia or tachycardia?) bradycardia
Fetal Anemia is a cause of what FHR situation? (hint: bradycardia or tachycardia?) tachycardia
Dehydration is a cause of what FHR situation? (hint: bradycardia or tachycardia?) tachycardia
Maternal infection is a cause of what FHR situation? (hint: bradycardia or tachycardia?) tachycardia
Maternal fever is a cause of what FHR situation? (hint: bradycardia or tachycardia?) tachycardia
Terbutaline is a medication that can cause what FHR situation (hint: bradycardia or tachycardia?) tachycardia
Atropine is a medication that can cause what FHR situation (hint: bradycardia or tachycardia)? tachycardia
What FHR situation is best described: "characterized by an abrupt transitory decrease in the FHR that is variable in duration, depth of fall & timing relative to the contraction cycle. variable deceleration
What is the cause of variable deceleration? cord compression, but can also indicate rapid fetal descent
What does the "V" in the acronym "VEAL" stand for? Variable Deceleration Pattern
What FHR situation is associated with cord compression? Variable Deceleration Pattern
What FHR situation is classified as being the most common periodic pattern? variable deceleration pattern
True or false: an occasional variable deceleration is typically benign. true
What does the "E" in the acronym "VEAL" stand for? Early decelerations
What FHR situation is associated with head compression Early decelerations
What situation is best described: The FHR is a mirror image of the contractions. early decelerations
True or false: variability changes can be caused by alkalosis. false (explanation: variability changes can be caused by acidosis)
True or false: variability changes can be caused by acidosis true
True or false: variabilty changes can be caused by narcotics true
True or false: variability changes can be caused by atropine false (explanation: variability changes can be caused by maternal drug ingestion of narcotics or cns depressants like mag sulfate)
True or false: variability changes can be caused by fetal sleep. true
Describe the fetal sleep that can cause variability changes. usually 40 minutes or less with term fetus
True or false: Variable Deceleration Pattern can be caused by rapid fetal descent. true
True or false: Early Deceleration pattern can be caused by rapid fetal descent. false (explanation: VARIABLE deceleration pattern can be caused by rapid fetal descent)
What nursing actions are associated with a variable deceleration pattern? CHANGE MATERNAL POSITION discontinue pitocin if infusing Administer oxygen Perform vaginal exam Report findings to MD/CNM and document
True or false: with a variable deceleration pattern, you would perform a vaginal exam true
Why would you perform a vaginal exam with a variable deceleration pattern? to check for a prolapsed cord
If cord prolapse is detected with a vaginal exam, what is your next step? to position the mother to relieve pressure on the cord with a Knee-chest position or to push the presenting part off the cord until immediate c-section delivery can be accomplished
VEAL CHOP. What is the V and C for? Variable Decelerations: Cord compression
What is the purpose of positioning the mother in a Knee-Chest position with variable decelerations? to relieve pressure on the cord
If variable deceleration pattern has been established and it is difficult to push the presenting part off the cord, what is your next course of action? prep for c-section
What FHR situation is best described: "FHR below 70 bpm lasting longer than 30-60 seconds." severe variable decelerations
Define severe variable decelerations FHR below 70 bpm lasting longer than 30 to 60 seconds
True or false: severe variable decelerations have a slow return to baseline. true
True or false: severe variable decelerations are typically associated with decreasing or absent variability true
VEAL CHOP . What does E and H stand for? Early decelerations: head compression
Late decelerations are indicative of what? uteroplacental insufficiency
True or false: the depth of deceleration indicates the severity. FALSE.
True or false: the depth of deceleration does not indicate the severity. true
When does the FHR return to baseline with a late deceleration? AFTER the contraction is over
True or false: late decelerations are okay. FALSE. (explanation: late decelerations are very scary, an ominous sign!)
Variable decelerations have been established. In this situation, true or false: you should discontinue pitocin true
Late decelerations have been established. In this situaiton, true or false: you should start pitocin FALSE (explanation: you want to stop pitocin if infusing)
What does the acronym 'POISON' help you remember? the nursing actions necessary for late decelerations
Late decelerations are occuring. What is associated with the "P" from the "POISON" acronym? Prepare for delivery and position patient onto left side immediately
Late decelerations are occuring. How should you administer oxygen? 10 L by tight face mask
Variable decelerations are occuring. How should you administer oxygen? 10 L by tight face mask
True or false. You would expect to administer IV fluids with variable decelerations. false (explanation: you would expect to administer IV fluids with late decelerations)
True or false: You would expect to administer IV fluids with late decelerations. true (explanation: to correct hypotension)
True or false: Knee chest position is associated with late decelerations. false (explanation: with variable decelerations you would want to position your patient in knee-chest to relieve pressure from the cord)
True or false: you should notify the MD of accelerations. false (explanation: you want to notify the MD of ominous patterns such as variability changes or decelerations)
True or false: you should notify the MD of variability changes. true
True or false: you should notify the MD of late decelerations. true
True or false: you should notify the MD of variable decelerations. true
True or false: you should notify the MD of early decelerations. false (explanation: no nursing interventions are required with early decelerations other than to monitor and document the progress of labor)
Why does FHR decrease with early decelerations? because the head compression causes a brief increase in intracranial pressure which causes the vagus nerve to slow the heart rate.
What is the definition of prodromal labor signs? prodromal labor signs are early symptoms that mean that labor is coming
What are the prodromal labor signs? lightining, braxton hicks contractions, cervical softening and slight effacement, bloody show and burst of energy
Describe the "lighting" Prodromal labor signs The fetus drops into the true pelvis (inlet)
Describe braxton hicks contractions they can be uncomfortable. some women don't feel them (don't say this to a woman who does!)
Describe what the "bloody show" is (hint: prodromal labor sign) expulsion of the mucous plug
Describe the mucous plug bloody show from the softening of the cervix, mucous and WBC
Describe the "burst of energy" (hint: prodromal labor sign) "nesting instict)
pain in the lower back that radiates to the abdomen is indicative of true or false labor? true
pain accompanied by regular rhythmic contractions is indicative of true or false labor? true
contractions that intensify with ambulation is indicative of true or false labor? true
discomfort localized in the abdomen is indicative of true or false labor? false
no lower back pain is indicative of true or false labor? false
contractions that decrease in intensity with ambulation is indicative of true or false labor? false
contractions that decrease in frequency with ambulation is indicative of true or false labor? true
Progressive cervical dilation is indicative of true or false labor? true
effacement is indicative of true or false labor? true
A mom is 2 cm dilated. What does this mean? Her cervix is opened by 2 cm
What is nitrazine paper used for? to see if "leakage" from the mom is urine or if her water actually broke
Black on the nitrazine paper indicates what? rupture of membranes
Dark blue on the nitrazine paper indicates what? rupture of membranes
What color(s) indicate rupture of membranes with nitrazine paper? rupture of membranes
When a woman's water breaks in front of you, what should you be assessing and documenting? the color, odor, amount and time color = clear or meconium-stained
What happens to vaginal fluid under a microscope? it "ferns."
What is the priority assesment with rupture of membranes fetal heart rate (explanation: must be monitored for distress)
Describe the first stage of labor. The beginning of regular contractions or rupture of membranes to 10 cm of dilation and 100% effacement.
Describe the second stage of labor. 10 cm to delivery of the fetus.
Describe the third stage of labor. delivery of fetus to delivery of the placenta
Describe the fourth stage of labor physical recovery (1-4 hours)
What stage of labor is best described: "the woman is at 8 cm dilated and 80% effacement." first stage of labor (explanation: first stage of labor is from the beginning of regular contractions or the rupture of membranes to 10 cm of dilation and 100% effacement)
What event(s) start the first stage of labor? beginning of regular contractions OR the rupture of membranes.
What event(s) start hte second stage of labor? the woman being dilated to 10 cm
What event(s) end the second stage of labor? delivery of the fetus
What event(s) end the third stage of labor? delivery of the placenta
What event(s) start the third stage of labor? delivery of the fetus
True or false: effacement is measured in terms of percentage true
True or false: dilation is measured in terms of cm. true
True or false: effacement is measured in terms of cm. false (explanation: effacement is measured in terms of percentage)
What is dilation? The cervix pulls upward and the fetus pushes downward
What happens to the cervix in dilation? it pulls upward
What happens to the fetus in dilation? pushes downward
What happens to the cervix during effacement? thins and/or shortens
What is effacement? the thinning and/or shortening of the cervical length.
What are the three phases of the first stage of labor? latent (early), active and transition
What phase is best described: "0-3 cm dilation" latent phase (of 1st stage of labor)
What phase is best described: "8-10 cm dilation" transition phase (of 1st stage of labor)
What phase is best described: "4-7 cm dilation" active phase
What routine tests would you expect to see ordered for every pregnant patient? CBC, platelets and T&S
Why is a CBC ordered for every pregnant patient (meaning, what does it tell us)? patient's hydration if acute infection
Why are platelets ordered on every pregnant patient? in case they need emergency surgery or a regional anesthethic (will cause them to bleed out)
Why is a T&S ordered on every pregnant patient? Type and screen - for the RH factor
What is a priority lab upon rupture of membranes? GBS
Why is GBS a priority lab upon rupture of membranes? mom may have the bacteria in peri-area, do not want baby to pick up during vaginal delivery for fear of GBS pneumonia
How long does latent phase typically last? hours to days
How long does active phase typically last? 3-5 hours
How long does transition phase typically last? 1/2 - 2 hours
What stage of labor is known as the "pushing" stage? 2nd stage of labor
What happens to blood volume during contractions? increases
When should you take a laboring patient's blood pressure? between contractions for an accurate reading
You are in clinical. What diastolic blood pressure indicates that you need to go tell our clinical instructor immediately? any diastolic blood pressure > 85.
When does supine hypotension occur? when the vena cava is compressed
Your laboring mother has supine hypotension. What do you do? Position the laboring woman off her back.
True or false: there is increased oxygen consumption for the laboring woman. true
True or false: pain/anxiety causes a decrease in the rate of respirations. false (explanation: pain/anxiety causes an INCREASE in the rate of respirations)
True or false: pain/anxiety causes an increase in the depth of respirations. true
True or false: pain/anxiety cuases a decrease in the depth of respirations false (explanation: pain/anxiety causes an INCREASE in the rate and depth of respirations)
True or false: respiratory alkalosis is associated with hyperventilation true
True or false: respiratory acidosis is associated with hyperventilation False (explanation: respiratory ALKALOSIS is associated with hyperventilation)
Hyperventilation is associated with _______ alkalosis. respiratory
Hyperventilation is associated with respiratory ________. alkalosis
Your laboring patient is experiencing tingling of her fingers. What do you do? tell her to cup her hands over her mouth and re-breathe her CO2 because she is hyperventilating.
What are the symptoms of hyperventilation? tingling of fingers, dizziness, numbness
True or false: increased sensation is associated with hyperventilation. false (explanation: numbness is associated with hyperventilation)
Describe the connection between hyperventilating and co2. Hyperventilation = respiratory alkalosis. The patient who is hyperventilating is blowing off too much CO2.
Diarrhea in the laboring patient most typically occurs when? in the latent/early phase
Describe motility with the laboring patient. decreased motility (nausea, vomiting, belching)
True or false: the laboring patient will typically belch more. true
True or false: the laboring patient has a faster absorption of solid foods. false (explanation: absorption and digestion of solid foods slows)
True or false: dehydration is common in the laboring patient. true
True or false: the laboring patient will often over-salivate. false (explanation: dehydration common, dehydration = dry mouth)
True or false: in stage II labor, the patient may have an involuntary bowel movement true
What nursing interventions are associated with the GI system changes of the laboring patient? emesis basin, ice chips and peri-care
Why do you need to offer the bedpan or bathroom atleast q2 hours to the laboring patient? a full bladder can lead to a longer labor, more discomfort and inhibits fetal descent
Describe the connection between contractions and the maternal urinary system. cause decreased bladder sensation of bladder filling
true or false: a full bladder helps fetal descent. FALSE (explanation: a full bladder INHIBITS fetal descent)
what do you expect the laboring patient's urine to look like? a bloody show
True or false: a small amount of protein in the urine is okay for the laboring patient. false. (explanation: any amount of protein in the urine is abnormal)
You find protein in the urine of your laboring patient. What do you suspect? possibly gestational diabetes or bladder infection or kidney stones
How much blood volume is typically "gained" during pregnancy? 1-2 liters (30-50%)
How much blood loss is expected with a vaginal birth? up to 500 cc
How much blood loss is expected with a casarean birth? up to 1000 cc
What stage of labor is associated with increased fibrinogen? stage 3 (delivery of the placenta. descent of the placenta is associated with increased clotting factors)
what is fibrinogen? cloting factor
What is the expected decrease of WBC during pregnancy? trick question: NONE! (explanation: increase of WBC expected)
What is the expected increase of WBC during pregnancy? 14,00-16,00 (for a total of approximately 24,00 since normally people have 5-10,00)
What nursing interventions are associated with changes to the pregnant and laboring patient regarding the hematopoietic system? increase fluids check labs before and after birth
What is the expected hemoglobin range during pregnancy and labor? 10-12 g/dl
What is the expected hematocrit during pregnancy and labor? 32-40 percent
What is the expected platelet count during pregnancy and labor? 150,000-400,000
When would you expect a laboring patient to get a CBC? On admission
When would you expect a laboring patient to get a platelet count? on admission
When would you expect a laboring patient to get a type/screen? on admission
What would you expect to draw on a laboring patient upon admission? CBC, platelet count and type/screen
A successful labor depends on four integrated concepts which are what? 4 P's: Powers Passage Passenger Psyche
Describe the components of the "powers" factor uterine contractions + maternal pushing = forces to move the fetus
What are forces that move the fetus? uterine contractions and maternal pushing
What provides the strength to move the fetus? uterine contractions and maternal pushing
Uterine contractions and maternal pushing have what in common? both are forces that help move the fetus and are part of the "powers" factor of birth assessment
What happens to blood flow to the placenta with each contraction? During each contraction blood flow to the placenta is gradually decreasing
True or false: the primary power that drives the fetus to move during labor are the efforts of mom to push false (explanation: the primary power are the uterine contractions)
True or false: the primary power that drives the fetus to move during labor are the uterine contractions true
True or false: maternal pushing is a secondary power to move the fetus during labor true
True or false: the lower segment of uterus can be characterized as being more active than the upper segment false (explanation: the upper 2/3rds of the uterus actively push the fetus down while the lower 1/3rd segment is passively pulled)
Describe the job of the upper 2/3rds of the uterus during a contraction. Contraction begins here and works to actively push the fetus down against the cervix.
Describe the job of the lower 1/3rd of the uterus during a contraction To be passively pulled upward over the fetal presenting part in order to help thin the cervix (dilate) and efface (open the cervix)
What components are associated with the passage? passage - bony pelvis and fetal station
True or false: a woman's pelvis is of adequate size true
What is the most common pelvic shape? gynecoid
Describe the location of a fetus at "station 0." engaged at the ischial spine
True or false: -3 station means that the fetus is located inferior to the ischial spine. false (explanation: -3 indicates that the fetus is 3 cm above station 0 which is at the ischial spines)
True or false: -3 means that the fetus is located superior to the ischial spine. true
A fetus is at +1 station. Explain what this means. This means that the fetus is located 1 cm below the ischial spine.
What are the components of the passenger factor? fetal lie, fetal attitude, fetal presentation and fetal position
What is fetal lie? the relationship of the spine of the fetus to the spine of the mother
What are the different ways fetal lie is classified? longitudinal (up and down) transverse (perpendicular) oblique (slanted)
What does fetal attitude tell you? the relationship of the fetal parts to one another
What are the different ways fetal attitude is classified? flexion or extension
True or false: flexion is a classification of fetal lie false (explanation: flexion and extension are classifications of fetal attitude. fetal lie is classified as being longitudinal, transverse or oblique)
True or false: flexion is a classifaction of fetal attitude true
What fetal attitude classification is desired? flexion
Why is flexion the desired fetal attitude classification? so that the smallest diameter of the prsenting part is moving through the pelvis
The fetus' position can be described as "hugging herself." What fetal attitude is this? flexion
The fetus' has an arm position that can be described as "sticking out". What fetal attitude is this? extension
What does fetal presentation describe? The part of the fetus that presents to the inlet FIRST
What are the different ways that fetal presentation is classified? vertex, acromion, breech, sinciput, mentum
What does a vertex fetal presentation indicate? head/cephalic is in the inlet first
What does an acromion fetal presentation indicate? shoulder is in the inlet first
What does a breech fetal presentation indicate? buttocks is in the inlet first
What does a sinciput fetal presentation indicate? brow? Q?
What does a mentum fetal presentation indicate? chin is first in the inlet
What does fetal position describe? The relationship of a point of reference (occiput, sacrum, mentum) on the fetal presenting part (vertex, breech, shoulder) to the pelvis (right, left, transverse)
What is the most common fetal position? left occiput anterior
What does the fetal "head molding" mean? change in the shape of the fetal skull due to the force of contractions (allows passage of the head)
Why does fetal skull change shape during labor? due to the force of contractions that allow for passage of the head
What stage of labor is best described: "involuntary need to push"? second stage of labor
What enhances the mechanisms of labor? the addition of abdominal force to the uterine contractions
What are the mechanisms of labor in order? descent engagement flexion internal rotation extension external rotation expulsion
What is the first mechanism of labor? descent
What is the second mechanism of labor? engagement (order: descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation, expulsion)
What is the third mechanism of labor? flexion (order: descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation, expulsion)
What is the fourth mechanism of labor? internal rotation (order: descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation, expulsion)
What is the fifth mechanism of labor? extension (order: descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation, expulsion)
What is the sixth mechanism of labor? external rotation (order: descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation, expulsion)
What is the seventh mechanism of labor? expulsion (order: descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation, expulsion)
What is another term for mechanisms of labor? cardinal movements of labor
What is the "psyche" factor? The psychological aspects associated with pregnancy and labor
What parts of a person's individual viewpoint impact the psyche factor? past experiences, personal beliefs
What role do cultural norms play with the psyche factor? society influences and family values
What does the A in Apgar represent? the appearance, meaning color
What does a 0 score for A in APGAR represent? pale or cyanotic
What score would you give a pale baby during the APGAR assesment? A for Appearance would be 0
What score would you give a baby with blue hands/feet during the APGAR assesment? A for Appearance would be 1
What score would you give a baby with an overall pink color during the APGAR assesment? A for Appearance would be 2
When is the APGAR assesment completed? 1 min and 5 min after birth
What does the P in APGAR represent? P for pulse
What score would you give a baby whose pulse is absent during the APGAR assesment? P for Pulse would be zero
What score would you give a baby whose pulse is less than a 100 beats per minute during the APGAR assesment? P for Pulse would be 1
What score would you give a baby whose pulse is greater than a 100 beats per minute during the APGAR assessment? P for Pulse would be 2
What does the G in APGAR represent? Grimace (reflex response)
What score would you give a baby who did not have reflex response during the APGAR assessment? G for Grimace would be zero
What score would you give a baby who had minimal reflex response during the APGAR assessment? G for Grimace would be 1
What score would you give a crying baby during the APGAR assessment (for the grimace)? G for Grimace would be two
What does second A in APGAR represent? A for Activity (meaning muscle tone)
What score would you give a limp baby during the APGAR assessment? A for Activity would be zero
What score would you give a baby with minimal flexion during the APGAR assessment? A for Activity would be 1
What score would you give a baby who was moving during the APGAR assessment? A for Activity would be 2
What does the R in APGAR represent? Respiratory Effort
What score would you give a baby who had no spontaneous respirations during an APGAR assessment? R for Respiratory Effort would be Zero
What score would you give a baby with slow respirations during an APGAR assessment? R for Respiratory Effort would be 1
What score would you give a baby with a weak cry during an APGAR assessment? R for Respiratory Effort would be 1
What score would you give a baby with a strong cry during an APGAR assessment? R for Respiratory Effort would be 2
What score would you give a baby with strong respirations during an APGAR assessment? R for Respiratory Effort would be 2
True or false: labor pain is constant false (explanation: labor pain is intermittent)
Endorphin release during birth is ___genous endogenous
True or false: pain during childbirth is considered part of the normal process. tre
Labor pain ends with what event? the birth of a baby
What factors influence pain response? anxiety, fear, childbirth preparation, previous personal experiences, cultural influences, social and professional support
What is effleurage? massage/touch
What are some relaxation techniques? breathing, effleurage, imagery, focusing, water therapy, music, environment (quiet, dim lighting), acupuncture, accupressure, counter pressure, hypnosis, aromatherapy (like lavender), application of hot/cold packs, and birthing balls
How do narcotic analgesics work? they reduce perception of pain
What are some narcotic analgesics used in labor? nubain and morphine
True or false: Narcan is a narcotic antagonist. true
How can ambien help a pregnant woman? can help relieve anxiety and induce sleep
Why is IV administration preferred over IM administration for pain medications for the laboring woman? IV administration has a much faster peak and onset and a shorter duration (things happen quick in OB, may not want side effects much longer)
What is the typical onsent of an IV administration? 5 minutes
What is the typical onset of an IM administration? within 30 minutes
What is the typical peak of an IV administration? 30 minutes
What is the typical duration of an IV administration? 1 hour
What is the typical peak of an IM administration? 1-3 hours after injection
What is the typical duration of an IM administration? 4-6 hours.
What is the action of narcan? opioid antagonist
What is the indication of narcan? to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression
What dosage of narcan is used for neonates? 1 mg/1 ml
safe dosage is classified for neonates based on what factor? the neonate's weight, and is 0.1 mg/kg/dose
what route is typical for narcan? IV, IM, SC or endotracheal
At what frequency can narcan administration be repeated? 2-3 minute intervals
Mom has received pain medications that are causing fetal respiratory distress. What medication is needed? Narcan
You have a 2000 gram neonate. How much narcan should your dose be? explain/show work 2000 grams to kg = 2 kg. 2 kg x 0.1 mg / 1 kg= 2 times .1 = .2 mg of narcan
You can give 0.1 mg of narcan for every what of the neonate's weight? 1 kg
What is 1-2% lidocaine used for? episiotomy's and perineal repairs.
For an episiotomy, describe the type of anesthesia that would be used. It would be called a regional block type of anesthesia further classified as local. 1-2% lidocaine would be used
For a perineal repair, describe the type of anesthesia that would be used. It would be called a regional block anesthesia further classified as a local. 1-2% lidocaine would be used.
Describe what a pudendal block is. When 1% lidocaine is injected just medial to each ischial spine
A pudendal block is done to relieve what type of pain? pain in the lower vagina, vulva and perineum
What is used during a pudendal block? 1% lidocaine
uterine relaxation needs to be atleast how long? 30 seconds
Created by: skulkarni87
 

 



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