What are the normal microbiota?

microbes associated with a certain area of the body

Nosocomial infections are

infections acquired in a health care setting

All of the following are true statements concerning the normal microbiota EXCEPT

Most of the resident microbiota are parasites

All of the following encourage the development of opportunistic pathogens EXCEPT

exposure to a nonliving reservoir

Why do many pathogens prefer the mucous membranes rather than the skin as a portal of entry?

Cells of mucous membranes are living mucous membranes are generally thinner than the skin

All of the following are characteristics of exotoxins EXCEPT

they are stable at high temperatures

is sometimes difficult to identity the first case of a disease in an area or population an important piece of information needed by epidemiologists

All of the following are aspects of Universal Precautions EXCEPT

proper sterilization of instruments

Which of the following is an example of phagocytosis

a eukaryotic cell engulfs a foreign particle

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Question	Answer
The term "axenic" refers to a(n)	pure culture
What are the normal microbiota?	microbes associated with a certain area of the body
Beta-lactamase confers resistance to antibiotics involved in _____ synthesis	cell wall
Masses of bacteria adhering to a surface are called	biofilms
The field of etiology would not be possible without the work of ___	Koch
Lipid A is associated with which of the following?	endotoxin
Which of the following can protect bacterial cells from the effects of the immune system?	capsules
John Snow founded which of the following areas of microbiology?	epidemiology
Nosocomial infections are	infections acquired in a health care setting
Neoplasia is a term that refers to _____	uncontrolled cell division
(t or f) Epidemiologists report their data in a variety of ways	false
(t or f) AIDS has now progressed to the level of an epidemic	false
(t or f) The classification of diseases according to the body systems they affect is a better method than classifying them according to their longevity or severity	false
(t or f) Mechanical vectors passively carry pathogens to new hosts on their body parts EX: houseflies and cochroaches	true
(t or f) Fecal oral infection is a common type of waterborne disease transmission	true
(t or f) Airborne transmission involves the spread of infectious droplets over less than one meter of the surrounding area	false
(t or f) Direct contact transmission of a disease can occur within the same person	true
(t or f) Patients are infectious only during the prodromal and illness stages of a disease	false
(t or f) Zoonoses are generally transmitted only form animals to humans	true
(t or f) Pathogenic can exhibit varying levels of virulence	true
The presence of wood-digesting protozoa in the gut of a termite is an example of	mutualism
Which of the following is the most accurate definition of a pathogen? 1.A microbe that causes disease in humans 2.A virus that harms its host 3.A parasite that kills its host 4.A parasite that causes disease	A parasite that causes disease
All of the following are true statements concerning the normal microbiota EXCEPT	Most of the resident microbiota are parasites
All of the following encourage the development of opportunistic pathogens EXCEPT	exposure to a nonliving reservoir
Why do many pathogens prefer the mucous membranes rather than the skin as a portal of entry?	Cells of mucous membranes are living mucous membranes are generally thinner than the skin
Any change from a state of health is	morbidity
All of the following would be classified as symptoms EXCEPT	diarrhea
Which of the following affects the function of cells lining the gastrointestinal tract	enterotoxins
All of the following are characteristics of exotoxins EXCEPT	they are stable at high temperatures
M protein, produced by streptococcus pyogenes, is an example of a(n)	antiphagocytic chemical
Which of the following stages is not always exhibited by infectious diseases	prodromal period
Rabies is an example of a(n)	zoonotic disease
All of the following are associated with contact transmission EXCEPT	fomites
A disease that develops rapidly and lasts a short time is called a(n)	acute disease
All of the following are examples of noncommunicable diseases EXCEPT	influenza
A disease which occurs more frequently than expected for a given population would be considered	epidemic
The index case ____	is sometimes difficult to identity the first case of a disease in an area or population an important piece of information needed by epidemiologists
Which of the following types of epidemiology is used in situations where applying koch's postulates would be unethical	analytical
An infection caused by surgery or by the use of devices such as catheters is called a(n)	iatrogenic infection
All of the following are aspects of Universal Precautions EXCEPT	proper sterilization of instruments
All of the following are regarded as portals of entry for pathogenic microbes EXCEPT	secretions
Solutions that draw water out of cells are called	hypertonic
Which of the following Ph values would be regarded as too acidic for most cells	pH 3
Organisms such as E.coli that do not normally cause problems in the body are known as	normal microbiota
Another term used to refer to a pure culture is	axenic
Which of the following is an example of phagocytosis	a eukaryotic cell engulfs a foreign particle
A cell moving towards a nutrient is exhibiting	chemotaxis
All of the following are toxic forms of oxygen EXCEPT	catalase
Eukaryotic organelles that contain catabolic enzymes used in phagocytosis are called	lysosomes
An outer lipid membrane is associated with which of the following	gram-negative cell walls
(t or f) Sweat contains sebum, which inhibits the growth of microbes on the skin	false
(t or f) Mucous membranes are found only in the respiratory tract	false
(t or f) Serum is the fluid part of the blood without cells	false
(t or f) Leukocytes are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood	false
(t or f) Both granulocytes contain cytoplasmic granules can be observed with the electron microscope	true
(t or f) When macrophages leave the bloodstream, they are called monocytes	false
(t or f) The classical pathway of complement is activated by antibody-antigen binding	true
(t or f) Gram-negative cells are more susceptible to membrane attack complexes than gram-positive cells	true
(t or f) Prostaglandin acts to decreases the body temperature and helps to eliminate a fever	false
(t or f) Both acute and chronic inflammation are protective responses that help the body restrict the entry of foreign invaders	true
All of the following are associated with protection of the skin EXCEPT	interferon
All of the following cells in the bloodstream are associated with nonspecific immunity EXCEPT	goblet cells
All of the following activities are associated with the normal microbiota EXCEPT	phagocytosis of invaders
Lysozyme is found in all of the following secretions EXCEPT	vaginal secretions
All of the following are associated with the body's second line of defense EXCEPT	skin
All of the following are examples of fixed macrophages EXCEPT	Kopffer cells, alveolar macrophages, and microglia
Formed elements are _____	cells and cell fragments in plasma
Which of the following types of granulocytes can phagocytize pathogens	Eosinophils and neutrophils
An abnormal amount of which of the following cells is indicative of a healminth infection	eosinophil
M protein, a virulence factor of streptococcus pyogenes, directly interferes with which of the following steps of phagocytosis	adherence
Which of the following is an important defense against virus infected cells and cancer cells	NK cells
All of the following are true statements concerning complement EXCEPT	only the classical pathway of complement results in formation of the membrane attack complexes (MAC) which result in cell lysis
Interferon thereapy:	produces adverse side affects and is useful for only a limited number of viral diseases and some cancers
All of the following are aspects of inflammation EXCEPT	an increase in metabolic rate
All of the following are chemicals that provoke early events in inflammation EXCEPT	pyrogens
Pus is associated with which of the following	inflammation
The edema associated with inflammation is a direct result of the activity of which of the following	prostaglandins
All of the following can trigger fever EXCEPT	platelets
All of the following are thought to be beneficial aspects of fever EXCEPT	denaturation of proteins
All of the following are external structures of bacterial cells EXCEPT	inclusions
Which of the following molecules is a large polymer of repeating glucose subunits	starch
Disulfide bonds are associated with which of the following	proteins
The unit of molecular mass is the ___	dalton
Many eukaryotic cells, including some cells of the immune system, can engulf foreign particles via a process called	phaocytosis
A eukaryotic cell that produces lots of proteins would be expected to contain a large amount of which of the following	rough endoplasmic reticulum
Toxins that have been inactivated with heat or chemicals are called	toxoids
The golgi body ____	processes and packages cellular products
A system of proteins that interact to attack and kill nonspecific invaders is called	complement
(t or f) Most B cells can respond to antigens without the help of T cells	false
(t or f) Plasma B cells live for only a few days	true
(t or f) The prefix CD used with types of lymphocytes, stands for "cell designation"	false
(t or f) Lymph is pumped through the lymphatic vessels in a manner similar to that of blood in the blood vessels	false
(t or f) T cells are produced in the thymus	false
(t or f) There are 5 types of heavy chains found in antibody molecules	true
(t or f) igm is an antibody molecule with ten antigen binding sites	true
(t or f)B cells are activated with the help of TH2 cells	true
(t or f) Antigen presenting cells (APC) are involved in the activation of cytotoxic T cells	true
(t or f) A patient injected with antiserum against a pathogen will become immune to future infectious by that pathogen	false
(t or f) Most B cells can respond to antigens without the help of T cells	false
Which of the following illicits cytotoxic T immunity	intracellular live viruses
All of the following are characterisitics of effective antigens EXCEPT	simple molecules
How does penicillin trigger allergy in some people	it acts a hapten in the blood
Where are autoantigens found	normal body cells
All of the following are components of the lymphatic system EXCEPT	the liver
All of the following are characteristics of lymphatic vessels EXCEPT	flow away from the heart
MALT is associated with all of the following EXCEPT	the tonsils
Plasma cells belong to which of the following groups of cells	B cells
One variable region of an antibody is composed of	1 heavy and 1 light chain
Prevention of a virus' attachment to its target cell is an antibody function known as	neutralization
The most common class of antibodies in blood is	igG
Which of the following classes of antibodies is transferred to newborns through the mothers breast milk	igA
Which of the following types of cells is depleted during HIB infection	helper T cell
All of the following are examples of signaling molecules called cytokines EXCEPT	perforins
Lymphocyte editing occurs in which of the following sites	thymus
All of the following are true statements concerning MHC EXCEPT	MHC proteins are found on every cell in the body
Which of the following is a true statement concerning T independent antigens	they are large enough to cause cross linking of B cell receptors
The speed and effectiveness of the secondary immune response is dependent upon which of the following types of cells	memory cells
The use of a vaccine produces	artificially acquired active immunity
Class 2 MHC molecules are found on which of the following types of cells	both a and c
Morbidity is ______	any change from state of health
Because Jonathon had a bad case of measles as a young child, he cannot get measles again. This is an example of _____	naturally acquired active immunity
The study of the chemicals in the blood that fight disease, such as antibodies, is	serology
Edward jenner pioneered the use of	vaccination
Foreign cells and substances outside the cells of the body are known as	exogenous antigens
Electrophoresis is _______	a mechanism of separating molecules by their electrical charge, size, and shape
A gene gun is a tool used for	inserting DNA molecules into cells
Which of the following can be used in the diagnosis of infectious diseases	southern blotting
Clumping of cells caused by antibody antigen reactions is called	agglutination
The membrane attack complex, or MAC, is associated with which of the following	complement
(t or f) In his experiments, Edward Jenner merely repeated the procedure that Lady Montague and others had performed before him	false
(t or f) Unlike live vaccines, killed vaccines require several "booster" doses to provoke full immunity against a pathogen	true
(t or f) Inactivated poliovirus vaccine causes polio in 1 out of every 2 million recipients	false
(t or f)Cancer cells are used in the creation of monoclonal antibodies	true
(t or f)Hernagglutination reactions can be used to determine blood type	true
(t or f) Fluorescein-labeled antibodies do not bind as effectively to antigen as those that are not labeled	false
(t or f) Evidence of HIV infection provided by ELISA is confirmed by a western blot	true
Edward Jenner's method of protecting against smallpox was called	vaccination
Attenuation is _______	the process of reducing a pathogens virulence
(t or f) Piggyback vaccines use harmless bacteria to carry antigens from viral pathogens	false
Herd immunity can be stimulated by which of the following	live vaccines
By the 1900's there were vaccines for all the following EXCEPT	herpes
Which of the following stimulates antibody-medicated immunity	live vaccines
All of the following are issues associated with vaccine safety EXCEPT	multiple doses can be required
Which of the following vaccines is no longer routinely used	oral poliovirus vaccine
Why are monoclonal antibodies useful	they are pure preparations of a single antibody molecule
Which of the following explains the precipitation of antigen antibody complexes in a solution with optimal concentrations of both the antigen and antibody	there is extensive cross linking between the antigen and antibody molecules
An anti-antibody is an antibody directed against	another antibody molecule
Which of the following types of antibody is most effective in an agglutination test	igM
Serum that has a high antibody titer	can be greatly diluted while being able to cause agglutination has a high antibody content
Which of the following is used to detect the presence of mycobacterium tuberculosis in sputum samples	a direct fluorescent antibody test
All of the following are examples of labeled antibody tests EXCEPT	blood typing
ELISA can be used for all of the following applications EXCEPT	quantification of complement proteins
All of the following are associated with a western blot EXCEPT	sheep red blood cells
Which rapid version of an ELISA is used for pregnancy testing	immunochromatographic assay
Histamine and prostaglandins are molecules associated with ____	inflammation
Which of the following antibody types can cross the placenta	igG
Which of the following types of T cells activates B cells	TH2 cells
Recognition of self vs. nonself by the immune system is mediated by______	MHC
Leukocytes involved in protecting the body from helminth infections are called	eosinophils
Any molecule that triggers a specific immune response is called a(n)	antigen
Phagocytic cells important as a first line of defense in the epidermis are	dendritiAll cells
All of the following terms are related to reproduction of eukaryotic cells EXCEPT	binary fission
Which of the following types of antibodies is important for the protection of mucous membranes	igA
All of the following are associated with the process of inflammation EXCEPT	creation of holes in the cell membrane
(t or f) igE is routinely found in the bloodstream	false
(t or f) immunotherapy is useful in treating all types of type 1 hypersensitivity reactions	false
(t or f) Type 3 hypersensitivity is also known as complex hypersensitivity	true
(t or f) glomerulonephritis is an example of an autoimmune disease	false
(t or f) Individuals who have been previously sensitized to tuberculin will exhibit a red swelling at the site of tuberculin exposure	true
(t or f) Allergic contact dermatitis appears rapidly upon exposure to the allergen	false
(t or f) T cells do not function properly in the placenta because the placental enviornment lacks trpyotphan	true
(t or f) Some autoimmune diseases develop as a result of prior viral infections	true
(t or f) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example of a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction	false
Allergens cause which of the following types of hypersensitivity	type 1
All of the following types of immune cells can produce the effects of allergy EXCEPT	neutrophils
All of the following are associated with type 1 hypersensitivity EXCEPT	glomerulonephritis
All of the following might be used to treat type 1 hypersensitivity EXCEPT	rhogam
A person with type A blood will have which of the following types of antibodies present	anti B
Which of the following can lead potentially to the development of hemolytic disease of the newborn	an Rh + fetus carried by and Rh- mother
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is which of the following types of hypersensitivity	type 3
What accounts for the time delayed nature of type IV hypersensitivity	the migration and proliferation of macrophages and T Cells
All of the following are examples of type IV hypersensitivity EXCEPT	transfusion reactions
Which of the following is not associated with type 1 hypersensitivity	poison ivy
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is a resulty of	autoimmune
Endospores are bacterial cell structure that ____	are highly resistant to adverse enviornmental conditions
Staphylococcal cell arrangement is due to division in ___	random planes
Which of the following is a loosely-organized, water soluble covering found in some bacteria	slime layer
Facultative anaerobes can survive ___	with or without oxygen present
The process in which a bacteriophage genome becomes part of the bacterial cells genome is called	lysogeny
Antibodies that are used to stimulate phagocytosis are called	opsonins
Which of the following is a bacterial enzyme used for resistance to such drugs as penicillin	beta lactamase
Clear zones around bacterial colonies growing on blood agar are evidence of	beta hemolysis
Which of the following is associated with fever production	pyrogens
(t or f) Staphylococcal food poisoning is not typically treated with antibiotics	false
(t or f) All species of streptococcus can be classified in a lancefield group	false
(t or f) A person can have strep throat more than once	true
(t or f) Streptococcus pneumoniae virulence is a result of the prescence of a bacterial capsule	true
(t or f) Members of the genus enterococcus are more resistant to antibiotics than streptococcus species	true
(t or f) Anthrax can be spread from animals to humans, and also between humans	false
(t or f) Clostridium perfringens is a cause of pseudomembranous colitis	false
(t or f) Not all types of botulism can be treated with antibiotics	true
(t or f) Both botulism and tetanus involve disruption of communication at neuromuscular junctions	true
(t or f) Once mycobacteria enter the body, they can never be completely killed by the immune system	false
Which of the following molecules is associated with the ability of staphylococcus aureus to evade phagocytosis	protein A
Which of the following microbes is associated with food poisoning	staphylococcus aureus, clostridium botulinum, and listeria monocytogenes
All of the following are associated with cutaneous diseases caused by staphylococcus aureus EXCEPT	empyema
Lancefield groups are associated with which of the following microbes	streptococcus
All of the following are associated with the pathogenicity of streptococcus pyogenes EXCEPT	entertoxins
A diffuse rash associated with some streptococcus pyogenes infections is a symptom of____	scarlet fever
Which of the following can be caused by either a bacterial or viral infection	pharyngitis
Rheumatic fever is a complication of untreated infections of which of the following	group A streptococcus, streptococcus pyogenes
Which of the following can be passed from a mother to her child during birth causing bacteremia, menigitis, and pneumonia in the neonate	group B streptococcus (streptococcus agalactiae)
All of the following are pneumococcal diseases EXCEPT	glomerulonephritis
Which of the following is an endospore forming genus of gram positive bacilli	bacillus and clostridium
An eschar is associated with which of the following types of anthrax	cutaneous anthrax
Which of the following microbes is an opportunistic pathogen in patients being treated with broad spectrum antibiotics	clostridium difficile
Feeding honey to an infant less than a year old can result in which of the following diseases	botulism
Which of the following is capable of growing inside human cells	listeria monocytogenes and mycobacterium tuberculosis
Which of the following is effectively prevented by immunization	diphtheria
Which of the following toxins is the deadliest toxin know to scientists	botulism
BCG vaccine protects against which of the following	mycobacterium tuberculosis
Which of the following can be an opportunistic pathogen in patients with catheters or artificial joints	propionibacterium acnes
Any molecule that triggers fever in the body, such as the endotoxin of gram-negative bacteria, is called a(n)	pyrogen
IgA is found primarily In which of the following	mucous
All of the following are enzymes used by microbes to cope with the adverse effects of oxygen EXCEPT	polymerase
Pleomorphic bacteria___	vary in size or shape
Flagella that cover the surface of the bacterial cell are called	peritrichous
Microbes which can survive in the presence of oxygen even though they do not use it in metabolic pathways are called	aerotolerant anaerobes
All of the following are types of antimicrobial susceptibility tests EXCEPT the:	plaque assay
MacConkey medium qualifies as which of the following	selective medium, complex medium, differential medium
Zoonoses are spread from	animals to humans
In the three domain system of woese, prokaryotes are classified on the basis of similarities in which of the following molecules	rRNA
Sterols are associated with which of the following cellular structures	in the cell memebrane
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is associated with which of the following	pelvic inflammatory disease
in the gram stain, a cell that stains pink would be called	gram negative
Subcutaneous hemorrhages associated with diseases such as meningitis are called	petechiae
A disease that occurs at a greater than usual frequency for a particular area or population is said to be	epidemic
Fomites are associated with which of the following	indirect contact transmission
Spirochetes move using which of the following	axial filament
Which of the following would be the best type of microscope for observing a pale, living cell such as a spirochete	dark field
A site where pathogens are maintained as a source of infection is called a__	reservoir
During phagocytosis, a microbe is engulfed initially into a sac called a___	phagosome
All of the following are characteristics of fungi EXCEPT	they have no cell walls
How many divisions of fungi are there	4
Antifungal drugs target which of the following molecules in fungal cell membranes	ergosterol
Long, tubular filaments that make up the bulk of a fungus are called	hyphae
Mushrooms are members of which of the following divisions of fungi	basidiomycota
Which of the following cellular structures allows microbes to resist phagocytosis	capsules
Allergens are associated with which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions	type 1
Which of the following types of antibody is associated with allergic reactions	igE
All of the following are antifungal drugs EXCEPT	polymyxin
A fungal disease of plants, animals, or humans is called a(n)	mycosis
An organism that derives benefits from harming another organism is an example of___	parasitism
Fecal oral infections are an example of which of the following modes of disease transmission	vehicle transmission
Protozoa______	lack cell walls, are unicellular
All of the following are associated with protozoa EXCEPT	thallus
Pseudopodia are associated with ____	amoebae
All of the following are sexual means of reproduction EXCEPT	binary fission
All of the following are ways zoonotic diseases can be spread EXCEPT	blood sucking arthropods, direct contact with animals, eating animals (all of these spread disease)
Macrophages_____	devour foreign objects and cells
All of the following are biological vectors EXCEPT	flies
The infective stage of most protozoans transmitted by the fecal oral route is the	cyst
Edward jenner pioneered which of the following?	immunization
The outer membrane found in some viruses is called the__	envelope
Some animals viruses become dormant inside the cells they infect; this process is called	a latent infection
An infected person who is asymptomatic is called a(n)	carrier
Which of the following is the best defense against virus infected cells	cytotoxic T cells
The formal term for cell suicide is__	apoptosis
Which of the following do virus infected cells produce in order to protect other cells	interferon
The icosahedral capsid of a virus is classified as which of the following shapes	polyhedral
A drinking glass is an example of a(n)	fomite
Animal viruses often enter cells by the process of __	endocytosis
Immunity in a large group of individuals is called	herd immunity
Viral genetic material that acts directly as mRNA inside cells is called	positive strand RNA
Intestinal pathogens are most likely to enter the body through which of the following types of transmission?	fecal oral
Infections of the liver most often result in which of the following signs?	jaundice
Which of the following is a labeled antibody test used to detect and quantify antibodies in serum?	ELISA
Which of the following classes of antibodies protects the mucosal surfaces from invasion?	IgA
Which of the following is a test used to confirm the presence of anti HIV antibodies in a person's serum?	western blot
Which of the following are phagocytic cells found in the epidermis?	dendritic cells
A syndrome is a disease characterized by a common group of___	signs and symptoms
Oncogenes control_____	cell division
(t or f) HTLV-1 and HTLV-2 are oncogenic retroviruses that are transmitted in ways similar to HIV	true
(t or f) HIV can infect dendritic cells without the use of a coreceptor	true
(t or f) All body fluids in an HIV infected individual contain HIV and are therefore infective	false
(t or f) The practice of screening blood, blood products, and organ transplants for HIV has virtually eliminated the risk of HIV infection from these sources	true
Which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her unborn child?	rubella virus, HIV, coxsackie B virus (all of these are correct)
All of the following are HIV envelope glycoproteins EXCEPT	CD4
Some HIV infected individuals have not yet developed AIDS because___	any of the above can result in a long term nonprogressor
Which of the following is necessary to render new virions of HIV virulent?	protease
Which of the following cells is NOT infected by HIV?	B lymphocytes
How are HIV virions rendered virulent?	the action of protease releases reverse transcriptase and capsomeres from the virus
HIV reaches a concentration high enough to cause infection in all of the following secretions EXCEPT	stool
Which of the following cells is a major reservoir for HIV?	monocytes
Patients with AIDS might typically experience all of the following EXCEPT	an increased monocyte count
On average it takes_____after HIV infection for a person to develop AIDS	8-11 years
An infective HIV virion contains how many copies of its genetic information?	2

Created by: DanaD17

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