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bld bank intern pckt
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Antibodies are produced by: a. Killer cells b. Marrow stem cells c. Mast cells d. B cells | B cells |
| The chemical composition of anantibodyis: © Protein b. Lipid c. Carbohydrate d. Glycoprotein | Protein |
| lna'hemagglutinatiuntest;theantigen-is: Qon the red blood cell membrane b. secreted by the red blood cell c. in the red blood cell nucleus d. in the plasma or serum | on the RBC cell membrane |
| Agglutination reactions characterized by many small agglutinates in a background of free cells wo~ be graded in a tube setting as: W 1+ b. 2+ c. 3+ d. 4+ | +1 |
| Why are patient red blood cells washed before the addition of AHG reagents in the DATI a. to remove traces of bacterial proteins b. to wash away traces of free hemoglobin c. to expose additional antigen sites d. to remove unbound serum proteins | to remove unbound serum proteins |
| The (IAT) req's incubation at 37C. purpose? a. allow time for IgM antbdys to attach to antigens on the RBC's b) allow time for IgG antibodies to attach to RBCs antigens c. allow time for the antiglobulin reagent to react w/ RBC's d. allo AHG reagent | allow time for the IgG antibodies to attach to antigens on the RBC's |
| Characteristics of IgG | crosses the placenta |
| Characteristics of IgA | found predominantly in secretions |
| Characteristics of IgM (3) | fixes complement most efficiently, pentameric in shape,produced early in an immune response |
| What is the most common reason for a-positive Rh control tube when using a high protein anll~l» reagent? a. bacterial contamination b.hypotonic saline solution c. positiveDAT d. overreading of agglutination | positive DAT |
| Monospecific AHG reagents: a. increase the dielectric constant in vivo (§) contain ~ anti-IgG or anti-C3 antibody c. are not useful in identifying the protein causing a positive DAT d, contain human IgG or complement molecules | contain either anti-IgG or anti-C3 antibody |
| Part of the daily quality control in the BB is the testing of reagent antisera w/ corresponding antigen-pos and negative RBC's. What does-this procedure ensure? . a. antibody class b. antibody titer c.)antibody specificity d, antibody sensitivity | antibody specificity |
| Information regarding reagent limitations is located in the: a. standard operating procedures b. blood bank computer system c.product inserts . d product catalogs | product inserts |
| what antibodies are present in polyspec. AHG? a. anti-IgG b. IgG and C3 c. anti-IgG and anti-C3 d. anti-c3 | c. anti-IgG and anti-C3 |
| What reagent Wouldbese1~edtodetectthe~nce of unexpected red bloodcell.antibodies in a patient's .SCI11pl. sample? . a. Al and.B'cells : b. panel cells c. Coombsicontrol cells @screening cells | screening cells |
| To determine the presence of red blood cell antigen in a patient sample, what source of antibody is selected?' . ..' a. commercial reagent red blood cells b.commercial antisera c. patient serum d. patient plasma | commerical antisera |
| To determine the presence of a red blood cell antiQpdy in a patient sample, what source of antigen is selected? a. commercial reagent red blood cells b. commercial antisera c. patient serum d. patient plasma | commercial RBC's |
| What reagents are derived from plant extracts? a. panel cells b. commercial anti-B c. lectins d. antiglobulin reagents | Lectins |
| Which of the following describes the expression of most blood group inheritance? a. dominant b. recessive c. sex-linked d. codominant | codominant |
| With which of the following red blood cell phenotypes would anti-Jka react most strongly? a. Jk (a-b+) b. Jk(a+b-)(homozygous) c. Jk (a+b+) d. Jk (a-b-) | b. Jk(a+b-)(homozygous) |
| A gene that produces no detectable products is referred to as: a. a regulator gene b. an allele c. a null gene d. an amorph | anamorph |
| The term used when two of the same forms of a gene are inherited from each parent is: a. homozygous b. allele c. heterozygous d. syntenic | a. homozygous |
| Alternate forms of a gene at given genetic loci are called: a. alleles b. amplicons c. nucleotides d. amorphs | a. alleles |
| A gene that can inhibit the expression of another gene is called: a. an amorph b. a cis gene c. a null gene d. a suppressor gene | d. a suppressor gene |
| A gene inherited in a cis position to another gene is: a. on an opposite chromosome b. on a different chromosome number c. on the same chromosome d. antithetical | c. on the same chromosome |
| Pat. RBC's: 4+ anti-A, 4+ anti-B serum with reagent RBC's: 1+ a1, 0 B. a. group 0 b. group AB c. discrepant results; patient has A antigen on RBC's with anti-A in serum d discrepant results; patient has B antigen on RBC's w/ 0 anti-B in serum | discrepant results; patient has A antigen on RBC's with anti-A in serum |
| anti-A=0 anti-B=0 Al=4+ B=4+ What is the ABO interpretation? a.group O b. group A c. group B d. group AB | a.group O |
| anti-A=0 anti-B=0 Al=4+ B=4+ What ABO phenotypes would be compatible if the patient in question 30 required a transfusion of red blood cells? a. group AB, 0, A, or B b. group 0 or B c. group AB or 0 <]) only group 0 | only group O |
| anti-A=0 anti-B=0 Al=4+ B=4+ What ABO phenotypes would be compatible if the patient in question 30 required a transfusion with fresh frozen plasma? ~ group AB, 0, A, or B b. group 0 or B c. group AB or 0 d. only group 0 | group AB, O, A, or B |
| Using known sources of reagent antisera (known antibodies) to detect ABO antigens on a patient's red blood cells is known as: a. Rh typing b. reverse grouping c. direct antiglobulin test d. forward grouping | d. forward grouping |
| Which is discrepant if RBC typing shown is correct: anti-A= 0, anti-B=4+, a1=O, B=0 a. negative reaction with B cells b. positive reaction with anti-B c. negative reaction with Al cells d. no discrepancies in these results | c. negative reaction with Al cells |
| What ABO antibody is expected in this patients serum: anti-A=0, anti-B 4+ a. anti-B b. anti-A c. anti-A and anti-B d.none | b. anti-A |
| According to Landsteiner's rule, if a pt has no ABO antibodies after serum testing, what ABO antigens are present on the pt's RBCs? | both A & B |
| True or False ABO antibodies are present in newborns | false |
| true or false ABO titers remain at constant lvls throughtout life | false |
| ABO antibodies are stimulated b bacteria and environmental factors true or false | true |
| What immunoglobulin class is primarily associated with ABO antibodies? | IgM |
| What immunoglobulin sugar confers B blood group specificity: a. galactose b. frucose c. acetylgalactosamine glucose | galactose |
| 40. An individual has the genotype of AO, hh. What antigens would be present on the RBCs of this individual? a) A only, b) A & H, c) A & O, d) none of the above | none |
| 1. What gene controls the presence of soluble H antigens in saliva? H, A, Se, B | Se |
| 1. Which lectin agglutinates A1 RBCs? Dolichos biflorus Ulex europaeus dolichos europaeus Ulex biflorus | Dolichos biflorus |
| 1. What immunodominant sugar builds H antigen? a.galactose b. fucose c. acetylgalactosamine d. glucose | fucose |
| 44. Which of the following situations may produce ABO discrepencies in the serum testing? a) newborn, b) pt w/ hypogammaglobulinemia, c) cold alloantibody, d) all of the above | all of the above |
| 45. What soluble antigen forms are detectable in saliva based on the following genotype: AB, HH, SeSe a. nonsecretor b. only H c. A, B and H d. A and B | A, B and H |
| explain the discrepancy RBC's anti-A=4+, anti-B=0 serum a1=2+, B=4+ a.an elderly pat. b.subgrp of A c. deterioration of reagents d. hypogammaglobulinemia | subgroup of A |
| The Rh genotype CDE/cDE is written in Wiener notation as: a. RoRI b. RyR2 c. R2Rl d. RzR2 | d. RzR2 |
| In Rosenfeld notation the phenotype of a donor may be written as Rh: 1, -2, -3, 4, 5. What is the correct phenotype in Fischer-Race (CDE) notation? a.JcDe b. CcDe c. CcDE d. CDEe | cDe |
| The test for the weak D antigen involves: a. the indirect antiglobulin test b. the direct antiglobulin test c. anti-Du typing sera d. anti-D antisera with an LISS potentiator | a. the indirect antiglobulin test |
| Results of a weak D test w/ a pos DAT would be: a. accurate as long as the check cells were positive b. unreliable immunoglobulins already on the cell c. reliable if a high-albumin anti-D was used d. false negative because of antibody neutralization | unreliable because of immunoglobulins already on the cell |
| The Rh null phenotype is associated with: a. elevated D antigen expression b. increased LW antigen expression A the Bombay phenotype d. red blood cell membrane abnormalities | d. red blood cell membrane abnormalities |
| A donor tested Rh negative using commercial anti-D reagent. The antiglobulin or weak D test was .,.£?sitive. How should the red blood cell unit be labeled? ~ Rh positive b. Rh negative c. D variant ! d. will vary with blocli bank policy | Rh positive |
| Which offspring is NOT possible from a mother who is Rlr and a father who is Rlr? a. cDE/cDE b. CDe/cDE c. cDE/ce d. celce | a. cDE/cDE |
| How are antibodies to the Rh system antigens usually characterized? a. naturally occurring IgM b.immune IgG c. immune IgM d. naturally occurring IgG and IgM | b.immune IgG |
| Which of the following genotypes is heterogeneous for the C antigen? a. Rlr b. RlRl c. RIRI d. r'r' | a. Rlr |
| What is the likelihood that two heterozygous D-positive parents will have a D-negative child? a. less than 1% b. not possible c. 25% d.75% | c. 25% |
| Which of the following genotypes could make anti-Ce? a. RlRl b. RIRo c. RIRl d. r'r | a. RlRl |
| Which blood group system possesses the Js(b) and Kp(a) antigens? a. Duffy b. Lutheran c. Kell d. Kidd | kell |
| An antibody commonly associated with delayed transfusion reactions is: a. anti-Lu(a) b. anti-S c. anti-Jk(b) d. anti-M | c. anti-Jk(b) |
| Which phenotype is associated with a resistance to malarial invasion? A. Fy(a-b-) b. Jk(a-b-) c. Le(a-b-) d. Lu(a-b-) | A. Fy(a-b-) |
| Enzyme-treated reagent red blood cells used in antibody identification enhances all of the following antibodies EXCEPT: A. anti-M b. anti-Le(a) c. anti-Jk(b) d. anti-C | A. anti-M |
| Which of these antibodies are typically IgM? (There is more than one answer) a. anti-K e. anti-Le(b) b. anti-S f. anti-Jk(b) c. anti-U g. anti-PI d. anti-N | anti-N, anti-Le(b), anti-Pl |
| Glycophorin A and glycophorin B possess antigen sites for which blood group system? a. Duffy b. Kidd c. Lewis d.MNS | d.MNS |
| Select the antibody that is characteristically clinically insignificant: a. anti-Kp(b) b. anti-S c. anti-Le(b) d. anti-Fy(a) | c. anti-Le(b) |
| The McLeod phenotype is associated with: a. Rh null phenotype b. Kell null phenotype c. U-negative phenotype d. absence of Kx antigens | d. absence of Kx antigens |
| Cold autoantibodies are usually of which specificity? a. I b. M c. PI d. S | a. I |
| Alleles within the Lewis system include: a. Le, le b. Le(a), Le(b) c. Le, Se, H d Le,Le | a. Le, le |
| Which of the following antigens is poorly expressed on cord blood cells? a. Kl b. M c. Le(b) dD | c. Le(b) |
| Select the disease commonly associated with the McLeod phenotype: a. infectious mononucleosis b. chronic granulomatous disease c. Hodgkin's disease d. paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria | b. chronic granulomatous disease |
| Which set of antibodies could you possibly find in a patient with no history of transfusion or pregnancy? a. anti-I, anti-S, and anti-P b. anti-M, anti-c, and anti-B c. anti-A, anti-I, and anti-D d.anti-B, anti-I, and anti-Le(a) | d.anti-B, anti-I, and anti-Le(a) |
| The antibody screen: a. detects most clinically significant antibodies b. detects all low-frequency antibodies c. helps distinguish between an alloantibody and autoantibody d. can be omitted if the patient has no history of antibodies | a. detects most clinically significant antibodies |
| Which of the following statements is associated with anti-I? a. it has weaker reactions with stored blood b. it can be neutralized with commercially prepared substance c. it reacts best at 37C C d) it does not react with cord blood cells | d) it does not react with cord blood cells |
| An antibody demonstrating dosage would mean that: a.homozygous cells were stronger b. heterozygous cells were stronger c. cells react best with LISS d. cells react best at 4C | a.homozygous cells were stronger |
| A DAT performed on a clotted blood sample stored at 4C may demonstrate: a. in vivo complement attachment b. in vivo IgG attachment c. in vitro complement attachment d. in vitro IgM attachment | c. in vitro complement attachment |
| The prewarm technique may weaken IgG reactions because: a. samples are not read at the immediate spin phase b. warm saline washes may detach IgG antibodies c. the 37C readings are omitted d. polyspecific IgG is not recommended | b. warm saline washes may detach IgG antibodies |
| The procedure that removes intact antibodies from red blood cell membranes is: a. autoadsorption b. differential adsorption c. neutralization d. elution | d. elution |
| Th~moval of an antibody from serum or plasma using the individual's own cells is: a. autoadsorption b. differential adsorption c. neutralization d. elution | a. autoadsorption |
| An antibody was detected in the antibody screen at 37C and did not react at the AHG phase. Which of the following should be suspected? a. anti-S b. anti-E c. anti-N d. anti-Jk(a) | a. anti-N |
| Antigen typing on red blood cells should not be performed if the patient has been transfused within the following: a. 30 days b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 6 months | c. 3 months |
| purpose of add'l proced's when working up a warnm autoantibody is to: a. id warm autoantibody spec. in serum b. find RBC's compatible w/ autoant'by c. identify potential underlying alloantibodies d. identify the antibodies coating the red blood cells | identify potential underlying alloantibodies |
| Detection of serologic incompatibility between donor red blood cells and recipient serum is performed in the: a. antibody screen b. crossmatch c. direct antiglobulin test d. autologous control | b. crossmatch |
| Detection of serologic incompatibility between donor red blood cells and recipient serum is performed in the: a. antibody screen b. crossmatch c. direct antiglobulin test d. autologous control | b. crossmatch |
| What incompatibilities are detected in the antiglobulin phase of a crossmatch? a. IgM alloantibodies in recipient's serum b. ABO incompatibilities c. IgG alloantibodies in recipient's serum d. room temperature incompatibilities | c. IgG alloantibodies in recipient's serum |
| Which is true regarding compatibility testing for infants under 4 months of age? a. a DAT is req'd b. a crossmatch is needed when antibody screen is neg c. maternal serum can be used for crossmatch d testing for ABO antibodies is req'd for the infant | c. maternal serum can be used for crossmatch |
| What tests are included in compatibility testing? a. blood typing of recipient b. antibody screening of recipient c. crossmatch d. all of the above | d. all of the above |
| A group B Rh-positive unit of red blood cells is received in the transfusion service. What repeat testing is required on this unit? a. ABO typing only b. ABO and Rh typing c. ABO, Rh, and weak D typing d. ABO and Rh typing, and antibody scree | a. ABO typing only |
| What ABO and Rh type is selected for red blood cell units issued to a patient in emergency release? a. group 0 Rh positive b. group 0 Rh negative c. group A Rh positive d. group AB Rh negative | b. group 0 Rh negative |
| What antibodies are detected in the immediate spin crossmatch? a. Rh antibodies b. high-titer, low avidity antibodies c. ABO antibodies d. Kell antibodies | c. ABO antibodies |
| Pretransfusion=neg. antibody screen and previous history of anti-K, group A Rh pos. Which of crossmatch procedures is performed to id compatible units? a. immed. spin crossmatch b. electronic crossmatch c.antiglobulin crossmatch d. none of the above | antiglobulin crossmatch |
| Pretransfusion=neg. antibody screen and previous history of anti-K, group A Rh pos. Which donor units could be selected crossmatch? a. group A Rh positive, K+k+ b. group A Rh negative, K-k+ c. group 0 positive, K+kd. group 0 Rh negative, K+k- | b. group A Rh negative, K-k+ |
| What infor is sufficient for a properly labeled blood sample for the bld bank? a. name, unique id # b. name, unique id number, date of collection c. name, unique identification number, date of collection, physician's name d. none of the above | d. none of the above |
| A crossmatch detects most errors in the identification of antigens on patient's cells. | False |
| A crossmatch demonstrating a 2+ agglutination is interpreted as compatible | False |
| An immediate spin crossmatch of a D-positive recipient with a D-negative donor unit is incompatible | False |
| The electronic crossmatch requires two ABO and Rh typings on the recipient | true |
| A crossrnatch prevents the immunization of the recipient to blood group antigens. | False |
| The only component that requires crossmatching is a unit of red blood cells. | False |
| Group 0 plasma is considered the universal donor of plasma products. | False |
| The recipient sample must be labeled with full name, unique identification number, date, and some means of identifying the phlebotomist. | true |
| A=accept TD=temporarily defer PD=permenantly defer | ............................ |
| A 28-year-old female; 112 Ib.; hemoglobin, 12.5 g/dl; miscarried 2 weeks ago. A, TD or PD | TD` |
| 56-year-old man; 168 lb.; hematocrit, 44%, blood pressure, 180/95; took aspirin 4 hours ago for arthritis pain. | A |
| A 35-year-old female; copper sulfate screen, blood-drop sinks in 12 seconds; 115 lb.; blood pressure, 118/76; pulse, 65; temperature, 37C. | TD |
| A high school student; 17-year-old female; taking Acutane for acne | TD |
| Donor center volunteer; 75-year-old male; first-time blood donor; had hepatitis 20 years ago following surgery. | PD |
| A 21-year-old male; received tattoo in the service4 months age. | TD |
| A65-year-old female; has instructions from physician to donate for upcoming surgery; had syphilis and was treated 40 years ago; blood pressure, 130/80; pulse, 78; hematocrit, 37%; temperature 99F: | A |
| A 38-year-old male; received rabies vaccine after a d6g bite 3 months ago. | TD |
| A 19-year-old first-time donor; received human growth hormone 12 years ago. | PD |
| A 24-year-old donor with history of a positive test for hepatitis C from another blood center. | PD |
| Which is a cause for temporary deferral of a whole blood donor? a. influenza injection b. antibiotics 4 weeks ago c. oral polio vaccine 4 weeks ago d. rubella injection 2 weeks ago | Which is a cause for temporary deferral of a whole blood donor? a. influenza injection b. antibiotics 4 weeks ago c. oral polio vaccine 4 weeks ago @rubella injection 2 weeks ago |
| request by dr. to donate for surgery in 3 weeks w/ hemoglb of 10 gldl. she is: a. able to be an autologous donor b. low hemoglobin c. permitted with the approval of the blood bank's medical director d, permitted to donate a smaller unit of blood | b. low hemoglobin |
| Plateletpheresis donors cannot donate more than: a. twice a week b. 24 times a year c. every 48 hours Q) all of the above | all of the above |
| Autologous units may be given to other patients if they aren't used for the patient who donated it? True or False | False |
| Which disease has the highest potential for transmission by a transfusion? a. AIDS b. syphilis c. CMV d. hepatitis | d. hepatitis |
| Syphilis tests on donors are usually performed by which methodology or methodologies? a. RPR b. VDRL c. hemagglutination d. both a and b | a. RPR |
| HfL v-rn is: a. transmissible by contaminated needles b. an oncornvirus c. found in patients with tropical spastic paraparesis d. associated with adult T-cell leukemia e.all of the above | all of the above |
| The marker that demonstrates a previous exposure to hepatitis B that remains in convalescence is: a. anti-HCV b. anti-Hbc c. anti-HAV d. HBsAg | b. anti-Hbc |
| Which of the following is the confirmatory test for positive anti-HfV screen? a. Western blot b. RIBA c. PCR d. Southern blot | a. Western blot |
| HAV transmission through a blood transfusion is unusual because it is: a. transmitted enterically b. an acute hepatitis c. not infective after 2 weeks d) all of the above | all of the above |