Save
Upgrade to remove ads
Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever
or

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
focusNode
Didn't know it?
click below
 
Knew it?
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

bld bank intern pckt

QuestionAnswer
Antibodies are produced by: a. Killer cells b. Marrow stem cells c. Mast cells d. B cells B cells
The chemical composition of anantibodyis: © Protein b. Lipid c. Carbohydrate d. Glycoprotein Protein
lna'hemagglutinatiuntest;theantigen-is: Qon the red blood cell membrane b. secreted by the red blood cell c. in the red blood cell nucleus d. in the plasma or serum on the RBC cell membrane
Agglutination reactions characterized by many small agglutinates in a background of free cells wo~ be graded in a tube setting as: W 1+ b. 2+ c. 3+ d. 4+ +1
Why are patient red blood cells washed before the addition of AHG reagents in the DATI a. to remove traces of bacterial proteins b. to wash away traces of free hemoglobin c. to expose additional antigen sites d. to remove unbound serum proteins to remove unbound serum proteins
The (IAT) req's incubation at 37C. purpose? a. allow time for IgM antbdys to attach to antigens on the RBC's b) allow time for IgG antibodies to attach to RBCs antigens c. allow time for the antiglobulin reagent to react w/ RBC's d. allo AHG reagent allow time for the IgG antibodies to attach to antigens on the RBC's
Characteristics of IgG crosses the placenta
Characteristics of IgA found predominantly in secretions
Characteristics of IgM (3) fixes complement most efficiently, pentameric in shape,produced early in an immune response
What is the most common reason for a-positive Rh control tube when using a high protein anll~l» reagent? a. bacterial contamination b.hypotonic saline solution c. positiveDAT d. overreading of agglutination positive DAT
Monospecific AHG reagents: a. increase the dielectric constant in vivo (§) contain ~ anti-IgG or anti-C3 antibody c. are not useful in identifying the protein causing a positive DAT d, contain human IgG or complement molecules contain either anti-IgG or anti-C3 antibody
Part of the daily quality control in the BB is the testing of reagent antisera w/ corresponding antigen-pos and negative RBC's. What does-this procedure ensure? . a. antibody class b. antibody titer c.)antibody specificity d, antibody sensitivity antibody specificity
Information regarding reagent limitations is located in the: a. standard operating procedures b. blood bank computer system c.product inserts . d product catalogs product inserts
what antibodies are present in polyspec. AHG? a. anti-IgG b. IgG and C3 c. anti-IgG and anti-C3 d. anti-c3 c. anti-IgG and anti-C3
What reagent Wouldbese1~edtodetectthe~nce of unexpected red bloodcell.antibodies in a patient's .SCI11pl. sample? . a. Al and.B'cells : b. panel cells c. Coombsicontrol cells @screening cells screening cells
To determine the presence of red blood cell antigen in a patient sample, what source of antibody is selected?' . ..' a. commercial reagent red blood cells b.commercial antisera c. patient serum d. patient plasma commerical antisera
To determine the presence of a red blood cell antiQpdy in a patient sample, what source of antigen is selected? a. commercial reagent red blood cells b. commercial antisera c. patient serum d. patient plasma commercial RBC's
What reagents are derived from plant extracts? a. panel cells b. commercial anti-B c. lectins d. antiglobulin reagents Lectins
Which of the following describes the expression of most blood group inheritance? a. dominant b. recessive c. sex-linked d. codominant codominant
With which of the following red blood cell phenotypes would anti-Jka react most strongly? a. Jk (a-b+) b. Jk(a+b-)(homozygous) c. Jk (a+b+) d. Jk (a-b-) b. Jk(a+b-)(homozygous)
A gene that produces no detectable products is referred to as: a. a regulator gene b. an allele c. a null gene d. an amorph anamorph
The term used when two of the same forms of a gene are inherited from each parent is: a. homozygous b. allele c. heterozygous d. syntenic a. homozygous
Alternate forms of a gene at given genetic loci are called: a. alleles b. amplicons c. nucleotides d. amorphs a. alleles
A gene that can inhibit the expression of another gene is called: a. an amorph b. a cis gene c. a null gene d. a suppressor gene d. a suppressor gene
A gene inherited in a cis position to another gene is: a. on an opposite chromosome b. on a different chromosome number c. on the same chromosome d. antithetical c. on the same chromosome
Pat. RBC's: 4+ anti-A, 4+ anti-B serum with reagent RBC's: 1+ a1, 0 B. a. group 0 b. group AB c. discrepant results; patient has A antigen on RBC's with anti-A in serum d discrepant results; patient has B antigen on RBC's w/ 0 anti-B in serum discrepant results; patient has A antigen on RBC's with anti-A in serum
anti-A=0 anti-B=0 Al=4+ B=4+ What is the ABO interpretation? a.group O b. group A c. group B d. group AB a.group O
anti-A=0 anti-B=0 Al=4+ B=4+ What ABO phenotypes would be compatible if the patient in question 30 required a transfusion of red blood cells? a. group AB, 0, A, or B b. group 0 or B c. group AB or 0 <]) only group 0 only group O
anti-A=0 anti-B=0 Al=4+ B=4+ What ABO phenotypes would be compatible if the patient in question 30 required a transfusion with fresh frozen plasma? ~ group AB, 0, A, or B b. group 0 or B c. group AB or 0 d. only group 0 group AB, O, A, or B
Using known sources of reagent antisera (known antibodies) to detect ABO antigens on a patient's red blood cells is known as: a. Rh typing b. reverse grouping c. direct antiglobulin test d. forward grouping d. forward grouping
Which is discrepant if RBC typing shown is correct: anti-A= 0, anti-B=4+, a1=O, B=0 a. negative reaction with B cells b. positive reaction with anti-B c. negative reaction with Al cells d. no discrepancies in these results c. negative reaction with Al cells
What ABO antibody is expected in this patients serum: anti-A=0, anti-B 4+ a. anti-B b. anti-A c. anti-A and anti-B d.none b. anti-A
According to Landsteiner's rule, if a pt has no ABO antibodies after serum testing, what ABO antigens are present on the pt's RBCs? both A & B
True or False ABO antibodies are present in newborns false
true or false ABO titers remain at constant lvls throughtout life false
ABO antibodies are stimulated b bacteria and environmental factors true or false true
What immunoglobulin class is primarily associated with ABO antibodies? IgM
What immunoglobulin sugar confers B blood group specificity: a. galactose b. frucose c. acetylgalactosamine glucose galactose
40. An individual has the genotype of AO, hh. What antigens would be present on the RBCs of this individual? a) A only, b) A & H, c) A & O, d) none of the above none
1. What gene controls the presence of soluble H antigens in saliva? H, A, Se, B Se
1. Which lectin agglutinates A1 RBCs? Dolichos biflorus Ulex europaeus dolichos europaeus Ulex biflorus Dolichos biflorus
1. What immunodominant sugar builds H antigen? a.galactose b. fucose c. acetylgalactosamine d. glucose fucose
44. Which of the following situations may produce ABO discrepencies in the serum testing? a) newborn, b) pt w/ hypogammaglobulinemia, c) cold alloantibody, d) all of the above all of the above
45. What soluble antigen forms are detectable in saliva based on the following genotype: AB, HH, SeSe a. nonsecretor b. only H c. A, B and H d. A and B A, B and H
explain the discrepancy RBC's anti-A=4+, anti-B=0 serum a1=2+, B=4+ a.an elderly pat. b.subgrp of A c. deterioration of reagents d. hypogammaglobulinemia subgroup of A
The Rh genotype CDE/cDE is written in Wiener notation as: a. RoRI b. RyR2 c. R2Rl d. RzR2 d. RzR2
In Rosenfeld notation the phenotype of a donor may be written as Rh: 1, -2, -3, 4, 5. What is the correct phenotype in Fischer-Race (CDE) notation? a.JcDe b. CcDe c. CcDE d. CDEe cDe
The test for the weak D antigen involves: a. the indirect antiglobulin test b. the direct antiglobulin test c. anti-Du typing sera d. anti-D antisera with an LISS potentiator a. the indirect antiglobulin test
Results of a weak D test w/ a pos DAT would be: a. accurate as long as the check cells were positive b. unreliable immunoglobulins already on the cell c. reliable if a high-albumin anti-D was used d. false negative because of antibody neutralization unreliable because of immunoglobulins already on the cell
The Rh null phenotype is associated with: a. elevated D antigen expression b. increased LW antigen expression A the Bombay phenotype d. red blood cell membrane abnormalities d. red blood cell membrane abnormalities
A donor tested Rh negative using commercial anti-D reagent. The antiglobulin or weak D test was .,.£?sitive. How should the red blood cell unit be labeled? ~ Rh positive b. Rh negative c. D variant ! d. will vary with blocli bank policy Rh positive
Which offspring is NOT possible from a mother who is Rlr and a father who is Rlr? a. cDE/cDE b. CDe/cDE c. cDE/ce d. celce a. cDE/cDE
How are antibodies to the Rh system antigens usually characterized? a. naturally occurring IgM b.immune IgG c. immune IgM d. naturally occurring IgG and IgM b.immune IgG
Which of the following genotypes is heterogeneous for the C antigen? a. Rlr b. RlRl c. RIRI d. r'r' a. Rlr
What is the likelihood that two heterozygous D-positive parents will have a D-negative child? a. less than 1% b. not possible c. 25% d.75% c. 25%
Which of the following genotypes could make anti-Ce? a. RlRl b. RIRo c. RIRl d. r'r a. RlRl
Which blood group system possesses the Js(b) and Kp(a) antigens? a. Duffy b. Lutheran c. Kell d. Kidd kell
An antibody commonly associated with delayed transfusion reactions is: a. anti-Lu(a) b. anti-S c. anti-Jk(b) d. anti-M c. anti-Jk(b)
Which phenotype is associated with a resistance to malarial invasion? A. Fy(a-b-) b. Jk(a-b-) c. Le(a-b-) d. Lu(a-b-) A. Fy(a-b-)
Enzyme-treated reagent red blood cells used in antibody identification enhances all of the following antibodies EXCEPT: A. anti-M b. anti-Le(a) c. anti-Jk(b) d. anti-C A. anti-M
Which of these antibodies are typically IgM? (There is more than one answer) a. anti-K e. anti-Le(b) b. anti-S f. anti-Jk(b) c. anti-U g. anti-PI d. anti-N anti-N, anti-Le(b), anti-Pl
Glycophorin A and glycophorin B possess antigen sites for which blood group system? a. Duffy b. Kidd c. Lewis d.MNS d.MNS
Select the antibody that is characteristically clinically insignificant: a. anti-Kp(b) b. anti-S c. anti-Le(b) d. anti-Fy(a) c. anti-Le(b)
The McLeod phenotype is associated with: a. Rh null phenotype b. Kell null phenotype c. U-negative phenotype d. absence of Kx antigens d. absence of Kx antigens
Cold autoantibodies are usually of which specificity? a. I b. M c. PI d. S a. I
Alleles within the Lewis system include: a. Le, le b. Le(a), Le(b) c. Le, Se, H d Le,Le a. Le, le
Which of the following antigens is poorly expressed on cord blood cells? a. Kl b. M c. Le(b) dD c. Le(b)
Select the disease commonly associated with the McLeod phenotype: a. infectious mononucleosis b. chronic granulomatous disease c. Hodgkin's disease d. paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria b. chronic granulomatous disease
Which set of antibodies could you possibly find in a patient with no history of transfusion or pregnancy? a. anti-I, anti-S, and anti-P b. anti-M, anti-c, and anti-B c. anti-A, anti-I, and anti-D d.anti-B, anti-I, and anti-Le(a) d.anti-B, anti-I, and anti-Le(a)
The antibody screen: a. detects most clinically significant antibodies b. detects all low-frequency antibodies c. helps distinguish between an alloantibody and autoantibody d. can be omitted if the patient has no history of antibodies a. detects most clinically significant antibodies
Which of the following statements is associated with anti-I? a. it has weaker reactions with stored blood b. it can be neutralized with commercially prepared substance c. it reacts best at 37C C d) it does not react with cord blood cells d) it does not react with cord blood cells
An antibody demonstrating dosage would mean that: a.homozygous cells were stronger b. heterozygous cells were stronger c. cells react best with LISS d. cells react best at 4C a.homozygous cells were stronger
A DAT performed on a clotted blood sample stored at 4C may demonstrate: a. in vivo complement attachment b. in vivo IgG attachment c. in vitro complement attachment d. in vitro IgM attachment c. in vitro complement attachment
The prewarm technique may weaken IgG reactions because: a. samples are not read at the immediate spin phase b. warm saline washes may detach IgG antibodies c. the 37C readings are omitted d. polyspecific IgG is not recommended b. warm saline washes may detach IgG antibodies
The procedure that removes intact antibodies from red blood cell membranes is: a. autoadsorption b. differential adsorption c. neutralization d. elution d. elution
Th~moval of an antibody from serum or plasma using the individual's own cells is: a. autoadsorption b. differential adsorption c. neutralization d. elution a. autoadsorption
An antibody was detected in the antibody screen at 37C and did not react at the AHG phase. Which of the following should be suspected? a. anti-S b. anti-E c. anti-N d. anti-Jk(a) a. anti-N
Antigen typing on red blood cells should not be performed if the patient has been transfused within the following: a. 30 days b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 6 months c. 3 months
purpose of add'l proced's when working up a warnm autoantibody is to: a. id warm autoantibody spec. in serum b. find RBC's compatible w/ autoant'by c. identify potential underlying alloantibodies d. identify the antibodies coating the red blood cells identify potential underlying alloantibodies
Detection of serologic incompatibility between donor red blood cells and recipient serum is performed in the: a. antibody screen b. crossmatch c. direct antiglobulin test d. autologous control b. crossmatch
Detection of serologic incompatibility between donor red blood cells and recipient serum is performed in the: a. antibody screen b. crossmatch c. direct antiglobulin test d. autologous control b. crossmatch
What incompatibilities are detected in the antiglobulin phase of a crossmatch? a. IgM alloantibodies in recipient's serum b. ABO incompatibilities c. IgG alloantibodies in recipient's serum d. room temperature incompatibilities c. IgG alloantibodies in recipient's serum
Which is true regarding compatibility testing for infants under 4 months of age? a. a DAT is req'd b. a crossmatch is needed when antibody screen is neg c. maternal serum can be used for crossmatch d testing for ABO antibodies is req'd for the infant c. maternal serum can be used for crossmatch
What tests are included in compatibility testing? a. blood typing of recipient b. antibody screening of recipient c. crossmatch d. all of the above d. all of the above
A group B Rh-positive unit of red blood cells is received in the transfusion service. What repeat testing is required on this unit? a. ABO typing only b. ABO and Rh typing c. ABO, Rh, and weak D typing d. ABO and Rh typing, and antibody scree a. ABO typing only
What ABO and Rh type is selected for red blood cell units issued to a patient in emergency release? a. group 0 Rh positive b. group 0 Rh negative c. group A Rh positive d. group AB Rh negative b. group 0 Rh negative
What antibodies are detected in the immediate spin crossmatch? a. Rh antibodies b. high-titer, low avidity antibodies c. ABO antibodies d. Kell antibodies c. ABO antibodies
Pretransfusion=neg. antibody screen and previous history of anti-K, group A Rh pos. Which of crossmatch procedures is performed to id compatible units? a. immed. spin crossmatch b. electronic crossmatch c.antiglobulin crossmatch d. none of the above antiglobulin crossmatch
Pretransfusion=neg. antibody screen and previous history of anti-K, group A Rh pos. Which donor units could be selected crossmatch? a. group A Rh positive, K+k+ b. group A Rh negative, K-k+ c. group 0 positive, K+kd. group 0 Rh negative, K+k- b. group A Rh negative, K-k+
What infor is sufficient for a properly labeled blood sample for the bld bank? a. name, unique id # b. name, unique id number, date of collection c. name, unique identification number, date of collection, physician's name d. none of the above d. none of the above
A crossmatch detects most errors in the identification of antigens on patient's cells. False
A crossmatch demonstrating a 2+ agglutination is interpreted as compatible False
An immediate spin crossmatch of a D-positive recipient with a D-negative donor unit is incompatible False
The electronic crossmatch requires two ABO and Rh typings on the recipient true
A crossrnatch prevents the immunization of the recipient to blood group antigens. False
The only component that requires crossmatching is a unit of red blood cells. False
Group 0 plasma is considered the universal donor of plasma products. False
The recipient sample must be labeled with full name, unique identification number, date, and some means of identifying the phlebotomist. true
A=accept TD=temporarily defer PD=permenantly defer ............................
A 28-year-old female; 112 Ib.; hemoglobin, 12.5 g/dl; miscarried 2 weeks ago. A, TD or PD TD`
56-year-old man; 168 lb.; hematocrit, 44%, blood pressure, 180/95; took aspirin 4 hours ago for arthritis pain. A
A 35-year-old female; copper sulfate screen, blood-drop sinks in 12 seconds; 115 lb.; blood pressure, 118/76; pulse, 65; temperature, 37C. TD
A high school student; 17-year-old female; taking Acutane for acne TD
Donor center volunteer; 75-year-old male; first-time blood donor; had hepatitis 20 years ago following surgery. PD
A 21-year-old male; received tattoo in the service4 months age. TD
A65-year-old female; has instructions from physician to donate for upcoming surgery; had syphilis and was treated 40 years ago; blood pressure, 130/80; pulse, 78; hematocrit, 37%; temperature 99F: A
A 38-year-old male; received rabies vaccine after a d6g bite 3 months ago. TD
A 19-year-old first-time donor; received human growth hormone 12 years ago. PD
A 24-year-old donor with history of a positive test for hepatitis C from another blood center. PD
Which is a cause for temporary deferral of a whole blood donor? a. influenza injection b. antibiotics 4 weeks ago c. oral polio vaccine 4 weeks ago d. rubella injection 2 weeks ago Which is a cause for temporary deferral of a whole blood donor? a. influenza injection b. antibiotics 4 weeks ago c. oral polio vaccine 4 weeks ago @rubella injection 2 weeks ago
request by dr. to donate for surgery in 3 weeks w/ hemoglb of 10 gldl. she is: a. able to be an autologous donor b. low hemoglobin c. permitted with the approval of the blood bank's medical director d, permitted to donate a smaller unit of blood b. low hemoglobin
Plateletpheresis donors cannot donate more than: a. twice a week b. 24 times a year c. every 48 hours Q) all of the above all of the above
Autologous units may be given to other patients if they aren't used for the patient who donated it? True or False False
Which disease has the highest potential for transmission by a transfusion? a. AIDS b. syphilis c. CMV d. hepatitis d. hepatitis
Syphilis tests on donors are usually performed by which methodology or methodologies? a. RPR b. VDRL c. hemagglutination d. both a and b a. RPR
HfL v-rn is: a. transmissible by contaminated needles b. an oncornvirus c. found in patients with tropical spastic paraparesis d. associated with adult T-cell leukemia e.all of the above all of the above
The marker that demonstrates a previous exposure to hepatitis B that remains in convalescence is: a. anti-HCV b. anti-Hbc c. anti-HAV d. HBsAg b. anti-Hbc
Which of the following is the confirmatory test for positive anti-HfV screen? a. Western blot b. RIBA c. PCR d. Southern blot a. Western blot
HAV transmission through a blood transfusion is unusual because it is: a. transmitted enterically b. an acute hepatitis c. not infective after 2 weeks d) all of the above all of the above
Created by: nizhoni
 

 



Voices

Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards