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Aviation Basics
basics for aviation ground school prep & review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| what does a blue airport symbol indicate on a chart? | a controlled airport (w/ Tower operating at least some of the time) |
| are two-way radios required at uncontrolled airports? | no, but it's encouraged and strongly recommended |
| what to runway numbers reflect/indicate? | they correspond to magnetic north reference, rounded to the nearest 10 degrees (last zero is always omitted) - the opposite rwy (other end), should be approximately 180 degrees from the original end of the rwy |
| how would you designated a runway on a heading of 70 degrees | Runway 7 |
| what is the standard traffic patter direction? | left-hand pattern |
| if using a non-standard traffic pattern, how is such a distinction marked on a chart? | using the words RP on the airport info box |
| describe how an altimeter works? | static system, pressure differential, etc. |
| how do you convert an altimeter setting 30.12 for pressure altitude? | First, determine the difference from standard pressure 29.92. 30.12 -29.92 --------- .20 It can also be expressed as PA = IA + ((29.92 - AS) * 1000) where IA is indicated altitude and AS = altimeter setting. |
| describe how to exit the traffic pattern | climb out on the extended runway centerline of the upwind leg - depart the pattern straight ahead, or make a 45 degree turn L (R if RH pattern) |
| describe how to enter the traffic pattern | preferred entry is one the downwind leg - approaching at a 45 degree angle, joining the downwind leg midfield |
| name the 4 types of common wind indicators | windsock, environment, wind tee (manual or free), tetrahedron (manual or free) |
| why do aircraft generally takeoff and land into the wind? | for safety and improved aircraft performance |
| does wind direction refer to where the wind is coming FROM, or going TO? | coming from... |
| what is the standard procedure for approaching an uncontrolled airport (re: wind and rwy selection) | overfly the pattern altitude by 500-1000', look for traffic, observe environmental wind indicators, and locate on site wind indicator |
| what is a segmented circle? | a circular structure located near the rwy that includes a landing direction indicator within its circumference - it also indicates standard pattern direction using "L's" that extend from each respective end of the rwy (depicting base & final) |
| what are noise abatement procedures? | instituted to reduce a/c arr. dep. noise over neighborhoods: -assigned by ATC -included in AF/D's -provided by FBO - or signs near rwy -use designated rwy's only during specified times -recognize schools and housing, to avoid -use lowest pwr on ap |
| what are the VFR markings on runways? | runway number, dashed white centerline, some have white threshold "bar" at origin of usable rwy surface |
| what are the IFR markings on runways? | IFR - non-precision -aiming point markings (1000' from threshold, sometimes 1500') -threshold markings |
| what are the IFR markings on runways? (precision IFR?) | in addition to regular markings, they include: -touchdown zones every 500' for the first 3000' -side stripes (showing the edge of the rwy) |
| what are the four layers of the earth's atmosphere? | troposphere (most aviation & weather relevant), stratosphere (commercial, military, generally smooth), mesosphere (smooth, but not practical for most flight), thermosphere (spacecraft only) |
| what is the tropopause? | the tropopause is the boundary level that separates the troposphere from the next atmospheric layer (acts like a lid containing the water vapor, etc.) |
| what are the parameters of the troposphere? | SFC-~36000, elliptical shaped, temp decreases 2 degrees C every 1000' (max -60F/-51C) |
| what are the parameters of the stratosphere? | tropopause -~160000', temp rises w/ altitude to approx -15C / -5F due to increased exposure to UV rays |
| what are the parameters of the mesosphere? | temp decreases from stratosphere, up to -120C/-184F, thick gas concentration slows down objects like meteors (which burn up) before reaching surface |
| what are the parameters of the thermosphere? | ~250000' upwards, highly variable temp based on solar activity and facing/not facing surface. Up to 2500C/4532F during the day, or even 15000C if directly inline with exceptional solar activity |
| what is the general composition of the atmosphere? | 78%nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% other (argon,CO2 etc.), and small portion of water vapor (responsible for major weather changes) |
| what causes atmospheric temperature differences? | the earth's rotation + sun's energy affects the earth differently depending on the intensity of exposure - equatorial areas get the same exposure but intensified in a smaller area, whereas the polar regions get the same exposure spread out over more area |
| what is convection? | the process of transporting heat from warmer areas to cooler areas |
| what causes convection? | differences in temperature, which in turn creates atmospheric circulation-warm air moves to cool air, then cools, and moves back towards warmer areas (starts @ equator to N&S) |
| what are the three cells of circulation (convection across earth's surface) | Hadley cell (equator N/S to ~30degree), Polar cell (60degrees-Poles), Ferrel cell (30-60 degrees - *and is reversed circular mvmt) |
| what are the effects of unequal heating of the earth's surface? | constant modified air density, air circulation patterns, creation of areas of high pressure, most notably - pressure differences that affect altimeter readings |
| as warm air cools, what happens to it? | it increases density (cooler air = higher density) |
| as cool air warms, what happens to it? | it decreases density (warmer air = lower density) |
| what are isobars? | they connect points of equal pressure on a weather map (like topographic contour lines) |
| what do isobars tell the reader? | the measure atmospheric pressure in milibars(mb), identify high and low press areas, illustrate their respective gradient pattern, show press systems |
| what do closely spaced isobars indicate? | a strong pressure gradient (difference in pressure - stronger winds |
| what do widely spaced isobars indicate? | a weak pressure gradient (smaller difference in press. - more mild winds |
| what are the five types of pressure systems? | High, Low, Ridge, Trough, Col |
| what are high and low pressure systems? | centers of high or low pressure, surrounded on all sides by the opposing type of pressure |
| what are ridges and troughs? (wx related) | a ridge is an elongated area of relatively high press., whereas a trough is an elongated area of relatively low press. |
| what is a Col (wx related) | a neutral area between two highs or two lows, or the intersection of a ridge and trough |
| what is the pressure gradient force? | the force that moves air from areas of high pressure to low pressure (correct in theory, but other factors contribute to actual wind/air mvmt.) |
| what is the Coriolis Force? | the force that results from the earth's rotation - it affects all objects that move freely across the earth's surface |
| what are the effects of the Coriolis Force? | -deflects moving objects to the right in the north hemi. -differs in amt. of deflection depending on latitude -differs with the speed of the object -breaks up atmo circulation into three-cells -deflects wind until Coriolis and press gradient are balan |
| what is frictional force (wx related) | the affect of ground friction with the area below 2000' - which reduces the Coriolis force, and causes the wind to shift directions when near the earth's surface |
| what are the three global wind patterns? | Trade Winds (0-30 W2E), Prevailing Westerlies (30-60 E2W), Polar Easterlies (60-90 E2W) * all directions mirrored in the Southern Hemisphere |
| what are the characteristics of a sea breeze? | coast winds (sea or lakes) that cause cooler high press. air over water to flow inland, with warm low press. inland air flowing up and back over the water (circular flow) - only during daylight, and primarily between 1500'-3000'AGL |
| what are the characteristics of a land breeze? | coastal winds that flow from cooler land, out to warmer water (reverse of sea breeze) - occurs during night, but more mild as temp difference is less ...~2000' AGL upto 100 miles offshore |
| what are the characteristics of a valley breeze? | inland winds that flow from valley's upslope toward warmer regions - during day, high press cold air in valley moves upslope towards warmer low press air, then warms and returns into valley (however it is much weaker wind - aka antivalley wind) |
| what are the characteristics of a mountain breeze? | occur at night when the air at the top of mountains is cooler than air in the valleys - cold high press up top moves to the warm low press. in the valley - return flow of warm air rising is called the anti mountain wind |
| what are the Katabatic winds? | any wind that blows downslope - cold downslope and warm downslope |
| what is a cold downslope Katabatic wind? | ice and snow creates shallow dome of cold high press. that rushes towards warmer low press. ground air |
| what is a warm downslope Katabatic wind? | airmass that moves at high alt. across a range causing a trough of low press on downwind side of slope, causing the cold, high press air to flow towards the low press. below - the air temp increases due to compression at lower alt. |
| Adiabatic Process-what is it? | causes the temperature of an airmass to rise or fall without exchanging heat with surrounding air - cooling: air rises, press. decreases, rising air cools, and sinks heating: air sinks, baro press. rises, sinking air compresses, air temp rises |
| what is atmospheric stability | the atmosphere's resistance to vertical motion |
| what is lapse rate (wx)? | the rate at which the temperature of an airmass decreases as altitude increases, or increases as altitude decreases - used to predict the stability of the atmosphere (degrees per/thousand feet) 2C 3.5F / 1000' |
| how does temperature and moisture affect wx stability? | dry air is more stable w/ clear wx, moist air causes more vertical motion and more dynamic wx - warm+moist air is the most unstable w/ precip and thunderstorms (dry air ~3C 5.4F / 1000', moist air~1.1C-2.8C/1000') |
| why does moist air cool at a slower rate than dry air? | water vapor is lighter than air, so adding moisture to air decreases its density - water vapor causes an airmass to cool at a slower rate, because it must rise higher to cool to a temp that is lower than surrounding air |
| what are the causes of a temperature inversion? | (a smooth layer of air and a temp. increase w/altitude) when the ground cools and lowers the temp of adj. air, or a frontal system forces cool air under warm air, or warm air over cold air - wind will often breakup temp. inversions |
| what are temperature inversion hazards? | they can trap weather and pollutants, restrict visibility, and contribute to the formation of fog/haze/low clouds during high humidity @ lo-level inversion |
| what are the two types of temperature inversions | terrestrial:(radiation cooling near ground on cool, still nights) frontal inversions:when cool air is forced under warm air (cold front), or warm air spreads over cold air (warm fronts) |
| what are the three states of moisture? | solid, liquid, gas |
| what happens each time moisture changes physical state? (aka every physical process of weather is accompanied by...?) | it releases or absorbs energy |
| what is latent heat? | the amount of heat energy required to change the state of a substance without changing its temperature |
| what are the six processes that cause moisture to change state? | evaporation, condensation, sublimation (ice-water), deposition (water-ice), melting, freezing |
| during what two changes in moisture state is little heat exchanged (resulting in usually stable, clear wx)? | melting and freezing |
| how is water vapor added to the atmosphere? | by evaporation and sublimation |
| what is the difference between humidity and relative humidity? | humidity: the amount of water vapor in the air relative humidity: how close the air (molecule) is to saturation at the current temperature |
| how does temperature affect the amount of moisture air can hold? | higher temperatures allow for more moisture in the air (larger molecules) |
| what are the three states of moisture? | solid, liquid, gas |
| what happens each time moisture changes physical state? (aka every physical process of weather is accompanied by...?) | it releases or absorbs energy |
| what is latent heat? | the amount of heat energy required to change the state of a substance without changing its temperature |
| what are the six processes that cause moisture to change state? | evaporation, condensation, sublimation (ice-water), deposition (water-ice), melting, freezing |
| during what two changes in moisture state is little heat exchanged (resulting in usually stable, clear wx)? | melting and freezing |
| how is water vapor added to the atmosphere? | by evaporation and sublimation |
| what is the difference between humidity and relative humidity? | humidity: the amount of water vapor in the air relative humidity: how close the air (molecule) is to saturation at the current temperature |
| how does temperature affect the amount of moisture air can hold? | higher temperatures allow for more moisture in the air (larger molecules) |
| what are the characteristics of dew point? | the temp at which air must be cooled to reach saturation (and can hold no more water vapor), dew point and temp are proportional (higher temp=higher dewpoint) |
| when does condensation occur? | when the temperature and the dewpoint are equal - forming dew, fog, or clouds |
| how does frost occur? | when the dewpoint is reached at freezing temperatures |
| how do you calculate a cloud base using air temp and dewpoint? | temp - dewpoint = blank, blank/4.4F, blank*4 = estimated base of clouds (temp and dewpoint converge at 4.4F/1000') |
| what are the effects of frost on aircraft? | deposition changes water vapor directly to ice on a/c surfaces - interfering with smooth flow of air over airfoil = loss of lift (frost increases drag and dec. lift) FAA reg = FREE of frost prior to flight |
| what is the temperature dewpoint spread? | the difference between temperature and dewpoint (smaller the spread, the more likely fog or clouds are to form) 4F = key~area |
| what three events create cloud formation? | -air cools to its dewpoint and becomes saturated -water vapor collects around condensation molecules -condensation changes water vapor into clouds or fog |
| when are contrails produced? | generally between 25000-40000 in moist air |
| what always happens when water vapor condenses? | clouds, fog, and dew always form |
| what are the four families of clouds, and their respective groupings re: altitude? | low clouds & fog (small droplets of liq. water, SFC-6500AGL) middle clouds liquid, ice,supercooled droplets (6500-20000AGL)turb& icing haz. high clouds (20000AGL+) ice, little hax. vertical development clouds (can start low, but build vertically) |
| what do nimbus clouds always produce, regardless of cloud family? | rain |
| Stratus clouds are? | stratus means layer - sheet like clouds |
| Cumulus clouds are? | cumulus mean heap - are puffy clouds |
| Cirrus clouds are? | means "ringlet" - wispy clouds |
| Alto clouds are? | means "high" - clouds found at higher altitudes |
| Fracto clouds are? | means pieces or broken - are broken clouds |
| Cirrostratus means? | a layer of high, wispy clouds, made of ice crystals |
| Cumulonimbus means? | thunderstorm clouds |
| Nimbostratus describes? | sheet-like rain cloud |
| what are the characteristics of Low Clouds? | sfc-6500AGL, consist of liquid water droplets suspended in air - supercooled water droplets pose icing hazard |
| Low Cloud Family - Stratus? | layered clouds that form as the earth cools the moist air above it, or when moist, stable air flows up sloping terrain |
| Low Cloud Family - Nimbostratus? | gray or black - can be several thousand feet thick and pose serious icing hazards |
| Low Cloud Family - Stratocumulus? | white, puffy, clouds formed when stratus layers break up or cumulus clouds spread out |
| what is fog? | low-lying cloud that can form thick layers close to the ground - forms when air app. or reaches its dewpoint - base no more than 50'AGL, does not extend very high above sfc |
| what is radiation fog? | develops in moist air, over low-lying, flat areas on clear, calm, humid nights, or in mountainous terrain in river valleys where cold air pools - occurs in stable air, high-press. areas - usually dissipates in warmer temps by mid-am |
| what is advection fog? | exists most commonly along coastlines - under cloudy skies, requiring a light wind to form (so does upslope fog). Develops when wind moves a low layer of warm, moist air over a cooler sfc. |
| what is upslope fog? | develops along coastlines or mountain valleys, near lakes - requires wind to form, develops when winds force moist, stable air up a sloping land mass |
| what is steam fog? | when cold, dry air, moves over relatively warmer water, which evaporates and rises - droplets can freeze quickly and fall as ice particles = icing haz., also assoc. with low-lvl turbulence |
| what are the characteristics of middle clouds? | bases from 6500-FL20000, composed of water, ice crystals, or supercooled water - can cause moderate turb. and severe icing Altostratus and Altocumulus clouds |
| what are altocumulus clouds? | patchy gray or white clouds that form when altostratus clouds breakup - can contain supercooled water droplets and produce light turbulence |
| what are altostratus clouds? | flat, dense, gray or gray-white, producing minimal turb., but severe icing threat |
| what are the characteristics of high clouds? | bases starting at FL20000, mainly made of ice crystals, but generally low turb. and icing threat - cirrus, cirrostratus, and cirrocumulus |
| what are cirrus clouds? | thin, wispy, forming FL30000+ - pot. warning for bad weather |
| what are cirrostratus clouds? | long bands or sheets of thin, white, clouds against a deep blue bkgd. - low moisture content - little icing haz. |
| what are cirrocumulus clouds? | white patchy clouds that resemble cotton - producing light turbulence |
| what are the characteristics of vertical development clouds? | aka cumuliform-indicate atmospheric instability - form in convective currents as heating lifts moist, unstable air - producing turbulence - bases form at low/middle level, extending to high level - when other clouds obscure vert.dev clouds=embedded |
| what are the three types of vertical development clouds? | Cumulus-puffy white domes w/flat bases, ind. a shallow layer of instability Towering Cumulus-large mounds of cotton, ind. deep areas of unstable air, often forming thundr., turb, icing Cumulonimbus=thunderstorms=haz=lots of moisture |
| what are the causes of precipitation? | condensation (formation of water droplets), and deposition (formation of ice crystals), Coalescence (water droplets of different size merge until large enough to fall) |
| what is precipitation? | any liquid or solid water particle that falls from the atmosphere (they grow until the atmosphere can no longer support them) - usually occur in nimbostratus and cumulonimbus clouds |
| what are the impacts of precipitation? | reduce ceiling and visibility, affect engine performance, increase braking distance, cause severe wind shear, freeze on contact and affect wind flow over wings and control surfaces |
| what is the classification of rain? | .02 inches in diameter or greater, falls at a steady rate, stops gradually - showers start suddenly, change intensity suddenly, and stop suddenly |
| what is the classification of drizzle? | very small water droplets less than .02 inches in diameter - warm rain and drizzle can develop into dense, precip-induced fog |
| what are the traits of freezing rain and drizzle? | they freeze upon contact with objects |
| what is virga? (wx) | when falling rain evaporates very quickly and never reaches the ground |
| what happens when rain falls through a temperature inversion? | it can freeze and arrive at the ground as ice pellets (use as indication of temp inversion and freezing rain at higher alts.) |
| what is hail? | large clumps of ice, falling and colliding with other frozen droplets, updrafts circulate this pattern, enlarging the pellets until they eventually fall to earth |
| what is a fallstreak(s) - (wx) | similar to virga, but when ice changes from ice to vapor as it falls |
| what is the transformation of ice crystals directly into vapor called? | sublimation |
| what are the traits of snow? | falls at a relatively steady rate, and stops gradually - snow showers start suddenly, change intensity rapidly, and stop suddenly |
| how does snow form? | when temps are below freezing and temp of air and dewpoint converge - ice crystals form by deposition and grow quickly as they acquire the water vapor that is evaporating from supercooled water droplets |
| what is an airmass? | a large body of air that contains uniform temperature and moisture, acquires the overall traits of its source region, and spans a few thousand miles - existing for several days to more than a week |
| what are the six classes of airmasses? | continental(form over land) maritime(form over large bodies of water) polar(polar regions, w/cool temps) tropical(develop near tropics w/ warm temps) continental-polar (polar land w/ cold,dry, stable, air) maritime tropical(warm, moist, unstable, air |
| what does moist, unstable air do? | forms cumuliform clouds, showers, turbulence, but good surface visibility |
| what happens to the stability of an airmass when it is warmed from below? | its stability decreases |
| what are the characteristics of stable air? | generally smooth, w/layered stratiform clouds, visibility is often restricted, with widespread areas of clouds and steady rain or drizzle |
| what wx characteristics create a front? | when airmasses leave their source regions and come into contact with other airmasses - the differences are called discontinuities - the boundary that separates the difference is called a front |
| what three major discontinuities influence wx? | a change in temperature(!) shifts in wind direction or speed (a/c corrects to the right to account for this) a decrease in pressure at the boundary of the front |
| what should you do to your altimeter as soon as you cross a front? | update it to account for the change in atmospheric pressure (warm to cold = inc.press, cold to warm=dec. press) |
| what are the characteristics of cold fronts? | separates advancing cold, stable air from warm unstable air - severe turb., strong winds, and precip - cumuliform clouds and showers are common - cold fronts approach quickly |
| what are the traits of a fast moving cold front? | pushed by intense high-press systems behind the front - have a steep leading edge and extreme discontinuities that make them more haz. |
| what are the traits of slow moving cold fronts? | have a shallow leading edge, are less haz., produce clouds that extend far behind the surface front |
| what are the three phases of cold fronts? | prior to (cirriform, towering cumulus/cum.nimbus), showers, fair vis w/ haze, falling press. during passage (heavy rain, gusting, tempt/dew drop, press drops, than rises rapidly) after passage (cumulus, rain dis., good vis, dewpt drops, press rises) |
| what characteristics usually precede a warm front? | steady precip with little turbulence - generally less severe than cold fronts, and move much slower |
| what cloud formations precede a warm front? | cirrostratus, altostratus, and stratus - cumulus and stratocumulus can develop along, ahead or and behind the front |
| what are the phases of a warm front? | prior to(lt/mod precip, poor vis, cold temp, press falling) during passage (lt precip, poor vis+, temp rises, temp/dew steady, press steady) after passage(precip dec., vis fair/hazy, temp warms, press rises slightly/then falls) |
| what are the characteristics of stationary fronts? | separate two masses that might not move for days, until they dicipate - can display a mixture of weather characteristics both warm/cold |
| what are the characteristics of Occluded Fronts? | occur when a warm front and cold front converge and the cold front overtakes the warm front (cold front occlusions) warm frontal occlusion=lifts moist UNstable air - more severe ex |
| what are the phases of Occluded Fronts? | prior to (nimbo/stratfrm, lt/hvy precip, poorvis, temp cold, dew stdy, press falling) during passage(tempfalls cold, raises warm, slight dew pt drop, prss stdy) after passage (vis imprvs, dew rises, stdy, press drops slty, can rise after) |
| what factor does the FAA attribute to more aviation fatalities than anything else? | problems re: weather |
| what three conditions must exist for a thunderstorm to form? | unstable air, high moisture content, a lifting force (orographic(air forced over geographic barrier), frontal systems (coldintowarm), convection off heated ground) |
| what are the characteristics of airmass thunderstorms? | relatively short, rarely produce hail or strong sfc winds, typically cause by convection) |
| what are the characteristics of Severe thunderstorms? | last at least two hours, generate gusts 50kts or greater, produce hail at least 3/4" diam, spawn tornadoes - caused by developments in wx systems |
| what are the different types of cell(s) thunderstorms? | single-cell = typically airmass thdrstrms multi-cell = clustered cells that interact with each other and lengthen the lifespan of the storm super-cell strong winds, rotating updrafts, poss tornadoes |
| what are squall lines and frontal thunderstorms? | squall lines are multiple types of thunderstorms that gather into a single band - intense haz. frontal thdrstrms - type of front: fast-moving cold front (cumulonimbus in line, warm front (existing stratiform obscures storm), occluded front (anything poss |
| what is a sqall line? | a non-frontal band of thunderstorms that often produces the most intense weather hazards for a/c |
| what is the cumulus stage of the lifecycle? | cumulus = clouds, rising cool air condenses, vertical development via updrafts |
| what is the mature stage of the thunderstorm? | cumulonimbus: falling precip, wind from downdrafts/updrafts and heavy turbulence, violent wx, downrushing air spreads out, drop in press, wind shear, gust front/roll clouds, virga form - cloud ceiling ~FL40000 spreads into anvil |
| what is the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm? | downdrafts, decreasing precip, and cloud breakup, stratiform appearance of the storm cloud |
| what is the area of influence of a thunderstorm? | 20 miles |
| what are hazards associated with thunderstorms? | lighting always, severe turbulence around cumulonimbus clouds (between updrafts&downdrafts), hail (even downwind), funnel clouds(200kt+ winds), |
| what are the categories of turbulence? | LLT (low level turb) - air into obstacles, convection, or updrafts CAT (clear air turb)jet stream, or airmass mvmt at high alt. Mountain wave turb - mountains disrupting smooth air flow |
| what should you do with your aircraft if you encounter turbulence? | establish maneuvering speed and trying to maintain a level flight attitude |
| what are the types of low-level turbulence? | 15k' or less, originating from surface heating or friction mechanical-obstable deflection of air convective-rising thermals frontal-variations in temperature between converging airmasses |
| what should you expect when flying at low level, near buildings, slopes, hills, etc.? | mechanical turbulence, with varied wind direction and velocity |
| what are the characteristics of convection turbulence? | when sufficient moisture present, towering cumulus indicate conv.turbulence, occurs during the day when land is warm and weather is fair - uneven heating of earth's surface, or cold air moves horizontally over a warmer sfc-updrafts can move at 200-2000fpm |
| what is frontal turbulence? | more predictable as it occurs near weather fronts in the narrow zone ahead of the front. mod. turb from fronts moving over flat ground @30kts, mod+ turb from front moving over rough terrain |
| what is clear air turbulence? | caused by erratic vertical movements between high-level airmasses and resulting wind, usually occurs at FL15000+AGL, develops in thin layers, no visual indications, in-or near jetstream, occurs suddenly, adjac.layers of air moving diff. speeds |
| what is mountain wave turbulence? | when smooth stable air crosses mountain barrier at 40+kts, the obstacle displaces a layer of air upwards - wave patterns 100 miles or more downwind, crests extending beyond peaks, rotor cloud devlp., turb typically along lee slopes |
| when should you expect mountain turbulence? | when the winds across a ridge exceed 40 kts, and the air is stable - crests may be marked w/ lenticular clouds, indication poss. winds of 50+ kts (washboard pattern in clouds ind. hi-speed air) |
| how should you manage turbulence as a pilot? | slow a/c to rec. maneuvering speed, change alt. if necessary/poss., alert passengers, tighten seatbelts, secure loose objects, ensure ventilation, consider a ~faster approach speed, nogo approach if strong winds |
| how should you prepare for turbulence in the mountains? | climb to altitudes 3000-5000 above peaks, beginning climb before reaching crest of range, approach ridge at 45 angle, consider mountain dual checkout instruction |
| what is wind shear? | super haz. (esp. t/o and ldg), a sudden shift in wind direction or velocity (updraft, downdraft, etc.), can occur at any alt. and any direction when adj. winds are moving in different directions |
| what are conditions that may cause wind shear to form near the surface? | convective precip in thunderstorms (downdrafts), microbursts, frontal systems, low-level temp. inversions(cold sfc air, warm air 2k-4000' above at 25kts), CAT turbulence areas, jet stream |
| what are the associated hazards of wind shear? | inability to maintain vertical speeds, altitudes, and flight paths, difficulty clearing obstacles (t/o, ldg), over/undershooting rwy, deviating from rwy centerline |
| what are indications of wind shear? | variations in air speed that exceeds 15kts, decreasing headwinds, increasing tail winds (or shifts back and forth), deviation from normal vsi by 500'+, deviation from pitch attitude 5deg+, rain shafts/virga |
| what are the characteristics of microburts? | associated w/ thunderstorms and virga - from precip-induced downdrafts, from base of convective clouds, produces winds that spread laterally in a vortex ring, lasts ~15 min, 25-125kts, produce head/tailwind change of 45kts |
| what are the hazards associated with microbursts? | downdrafts of 6000'fpm, precip, gusty horiz. winds near ground, horiz wind shear, turbulence in vortex ring, size of burst can extend one mile horiz, and 1000' vertically |
| what conditions must be present for fog to form? | visible moisture, and a/c surface temp of 32F or less - icing can accumulate quickly! |
| what type of rain usually produces the highest rate of ice accumulation? | freezing rain |
| how does icing affect an aircraft? | it increases weight and drag, while decreasing lift and thrust |
| what is Rime ice? | Rime ice - stratus clouds - supercooled water droplets that freeze instantly-hazey because of trapped air, changing the airfoil shape along leading edge (often ~-15-120C) |
| what is clear ice? | forms when supercooled droplets strike a/c and flow over sfc before freezing, appears clear and forms hard glaze, adheres to sfc VERY well, forms between 0 and -10C |
| what is mixed ice? | forms in visible moisture in var. clouds, when large supercooled droplets freeze to each other, roughed edge mass on leading edges, forms ~-10 - -15C |
| what causes visibility restrictions to pilots? | concentrations of particles (ie haze, smoke, smog, and dust) |
| what is haze? | fine dry particles, in stable atmo condi. w/ light winds, generally within a few thousand ft of ground, vis above haze is usually ok, discolors objects viewed through it |
| what is smoke? | concentrations of combusted particles, vis reduction depends on amount, wind veloc., turb., and proximity to smoke's source, sky becomes reddish/orange, diffuses sky color |
| what is smog? | combination of fog and smoke, builds up in areas where stable air is trapped |
| what is dust? | can blow for hundreds of miles in strong winds with loose particulate, objects turn tan or gray |
| what can happen if you fly through volcanic ash? | can disable your engines and cause serious abrasions and pits to sfc's, can clog/disable pitot/static system - it consists of gas, dust, and ash +stay upwind of clouds |
| what should you do if you inadvertently fly through a volcanic ash cloud? | reduce engine to minimum power and reverse course |
| what are the pieces of the forecasting process? | observation (air,land,sea) - communication - processing - dissemination |
| what time range weather reports are generally the most accurate | predictions of weather occurring in 12 hours or less is generally the most accurate |
| how far out are semi-accurate daily changes in weather forecast? | 48 hours in advance |
| how far in advance can some large storms or weather systems be forecast? | up to 5 days in advance |
| how far in advance do forecasters do predicting temperatures and precip? | fairly good up to 10 days in advance |
| what are some wx forecasting methods? | persistence, trend, climatological, analog, meteorological, numerical |
| what is an Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)? | an observation of surface weather reported in a standard format (aka"Meteorological Terminal Air Report") |
| what does METAR vs. SPECI indicate? | METAR indicates the ex report is issued every hour as schedule, whereas SPECI indicates a "special" report that has been issued interim to report one or more changes in the elements |
| what is ICAO | International Civil Aviation Organization |
| when are modifiers used in a METAR? (AUTO, AO1, AO2) | no modifier=standard manual obs., AUTO means the reporting station is automated at the time of reporting, AO1=station withOUT precip discriminator, AO2=station WITH precip discriminator , COR=corrected report replacing current one |
| what is the difference between V and VRB when reading the wind info of a METAR? | V indicates wind direction varying 60 degrees or more (at 6kts+) VRB indicates variable wind direction of any degree (6kts or less) |
| is wind direction reported in relation to true north or magnetic north in a METAR? | true north |
| how is prevailing visibility reported on a METAR? | statute miles w/ abbreviation SM |
| what code is used when reported visibility measured electronically besides a runway? | RVR (ex: R34/2400FT) or, R34/2000FTV2500FT if variable vis., Preceding P = RVR greater than highest reportable value, Preceding M = lower than lowest reportable value |
| what is the reporting order for "present weather"? | intensity or proximity descriptor precipitation obstructions to visibility any other wx phenomena |
| what are the three wx intensity codes? | - light (none) moderate + heavy |
| what is the wx proximity code? | (VC) (very close?), when obs. is within 5-10 statute miles of airport when re: obscurations, or within 10 miles when re: precipitation |
| wx descriptor TS | Thunderstorm |
| wx descriptor SH | Shower(s) |
| wx descriptor FZ | Freezing |
| wx descriptor BL | Blowing |
| wx descriptor DR | Low Drifting |
| wx descriptor MI | Shallow |
| wx descriptor BC | Patches |
| wx descriptor PR | Partial |
| wx phenom RA | rain |
| wx phenom GR | hail (less than 1/4" diam) |
| wx phenom DZ | drizzle |
| wx phenom GS | Small Hail/ Snow Pellets |
| wx phenom SN | snow |
| wx phenom SG | snow grains |
| wx phenom IC | ice crystals |
| wx phenom PL | ice pellets |
| wx phenom UP | unknown precipitation |
| wx phenom FG | fog |
| wx phenom PY | spray |
| wx phenom BR | mist |
| wx phenom SA | sand |
| wx phenom FU | smoke |
| wx phenom DU | dust |
| wx phenom HZ | haze |
| wx phenom VA | volcanic ash |
| wx phenom SQ | squall |
| wx phenom SS | sandstorm |
| wx phenom DS | duststorm |
| wx phenom PO | Dust/Sand Whirls |
| wx phenom FC | funnel cloud |
| wx phenom +FC | tornado or waterspout |
| what are the qualifiers for prevailing visibility (re: fog, mist, etc.)? | less than 5/8SM = FG/fog 5/8-6SM = BR/mist 7SM+ = MIFG(shallow), BCFG(patches), or PRFG(partial) |
| how are cloud heights or the vertical vis. into an obscuration reported? | with three digits in hundreds of feet |
| what is the definition of a cloud ceiling? | what more than half of the sky is covered by clouds, the AGL height of the lowest layer of clouds that is reported as broken or overcast - ceiling + visibility = conclusion as to whether or not VFR conditions exist |
| wx code SKC | clear sky (manual report) |
| wx code CLR | clear sky (automated report) |
| wx code FEW | 0 - 2/8 of the sky |
| wx code SCT | 3/8-4/8 of the sky |
| wx code BKN | 5/8-7/8 of the sky |
| wx code OVC | overcast |
| wx code W | total observation by phenom such as fog, haze, or smoke, that extends from the sfc to an interminable height |
| wx code TCU | towering cumulus clouds |
| wx code CB | Cumulonimbus clouds |
| wx readouts for temperature and dewpoint are usually only provided to the single-digit, however are sometime provided to the tenth of a degree (C) where? | in the remarks section of the METAR |
| how is the altimeter setting reported on a METAR | reported in inches of Mercury (Hg), in a four-digit group prefixed by the letter A |
| wx code RMK | "remarks" section of a METAR, can include additional wind date, variable vis., beginning and end times of particular wx activity, press. info, more precise temp/dewpt readings |
| wx code PRESFR | in remarks section, "pressure falling rapidly" |
| wx code RAE42SNB42 | in remarks section, "rain ended and snow began at 42 minutes past the hour" |
| wx code VIS 3/4V11/2 | in the remarks section, "prevailing visibility variable 3/4 to 1&1/2 miles" |
| wx code PK WND 20032/35 | in remarks section, "peak wind from 200 degrees at 32kts, 25 minutes past the hour" |
| what does information contained in the RMK "remarks" section of a METAR include? | information considered significant to aircraft operations |
| what is a Radar Weather Report? | aka "Automated Routine Radar Weather", used to determine areas of severe weather when other radar information is unavailable. (can be upto 80min old) When echo tops extend to high levels, TS and related haz. are likely. |
| what are the 8 components of a radar weather report? (and their respective issuing order) | station and issuing time echo configuration coverage, precip type, and intensity azimuth (ref true north) and range (nm) dimension of wx (nm) direction and speed of the wx cells maximum top of precip and where it occurs report is auto or manual |
| what are the three types of echo configurations for Radar Weather Reports? | LN (line of echos 30+ miles long) AREA (a group of echos of similar type, not a line) CELL (a single, isolated convective echo) |
| what are PIREPs? | Pilot Weather Reports - reports of wx conditions reported from pilots inflight |
| what are the five essential components of a PIREP? | UA or UUA (routine report or urgent report) /OV location(in relation to NAVAID) /TM time (coordinated universal time/zulu) /FL altitude/flight level (essen.for turb&icing reports)MSL! /TP aircraft type |
| what are other important but non-essential components of a PIREP? | /SK sky cover (cloud height and coverage) /WX flight visibility and weather (precip, etc.) /TA temperature (re: icing) /WV wind / direction and speed /TB turbulence / intensity, loc., duration /IC icing / intensity and type /RM remarks |
| when should you file a PIREP? | anytime you are instructed to do so my ATC, or you encounter unexpected wx conditions |
| what is a TAF? | Terminal Aerodrome Forecast - contains an estimate of possible weather conditions at a specific airport |
| what are the five elements of a TAF? | type, location, date/time of issue, valid date/time, forecast |
| what are the four types of TAF forecasts? | (code none) routine TAF (every six hours) AMD amended COR corrected RTD delayed |
| when are TAFs issued (what common intervals)? | 0000Z, 0600Z, 1200Z, 1800Z |
| how long are TAFs usually valid (unless amended)? | 24-hour period from time of issue (2216/2312 means 22nd day 1600 thru 23rd day at 1200) |
| while similar to METARs, how are TAFs different? | they include weather only when significant to aviation - expected visibilities great than 6SM are preceded with a "P", lowlevel wind shear is indicated with WS, 015 (height AGL), /30045KT(wind),CB (cumulonimbus) is the only type of cloud included in a TAF |
| what are changegroups (re: TAFs) | changegoups indicate that a significant change to the wx conditions is expected to endure for the duration of the TAF code FM = a rapid change is expected within an hour code BECMG = a gradual change is expected code NSW (no sig. wx, wx is improving) |
| what are TEMPOs (re: TAFs)? | Temporary Conditions: wind, visibility, wx, or sky conditions that are expected to last less than one hour, which includes the anticipated time period |
| what are PROBs (re: TAFs)? | Probability Forecast: when probability of a change is less than 50%, PROB is issued instead - PROBs might not be included during first nine hours of a TAF |
| what is an FA? | Aviation Area Forecast - issued three times a day, amended as required - covers general wx conditions over a wide region (good for enroute checking, airports that don't have TAFs, between reporting stations, etc.) |
| what are the four components of an FA - Aviation Area Forecast? | Communications/Product Header Precautionary Statements Synopsis (re: wx) VFR Clouds and Weather (re: wx) |
| what are the six regions of forecasts for FAs? | San Francisco, Salt Lake City, Dallas/Ft. Worth, Chicago, Boston, Miama |
| what three precautionary statements are including in all FA's? | -check latest AIRMET Sierra (areas of IFR and mountain obscuration forecast in area) -Thunderstorms imply severe+ turb, icing, wind shear, etc.), so those haz. aren't included in this forecast -heights that aren't MSL, are listed AGL or CIG (ceiling) |
| what is contained within an FA synopsis? | brief desc. of loc. and mvmt. of fronts, press. systems, and cirulation patterns over an 18-hour period |
| what does ALF mean? | abbreviation for "aloft" |
| what does STNRY mean? | abbreviation for stationary |
| what does CONTG mean? | abbreviation for continuing |
| what does the VFR clouds and weather section describe in an FA? | clouds and wx that could affect VFR operations over an area of 3000sq miles+, vis. expected less than 6sm reported, % of area covered by showers or ts is descbd: OCNL, ISOL, WDLY SCT, SCT/AREAS, NMRS/WDSPRD, with final OTLK, designated VFR,IFR,marg. etc) |
| what does TRW- represent (wx) | thunderstorms, with light rain |
| what does VSBY 3R-F represent (wx) | visibility occasionally reduced to 3SM in light rain and fog |
| what are the specs for VFR? | ceilings greater than 3000' with 5SM visibility + |
| what are the specs for IFR? | ceilings less than 1,000', OR visibility less than 3SM, or both |
| what are the specs for MVFR? | ceilings from 1,000-3,000', or visibility between 3-5SM, or BOTH |
| what does OTLK...MVFR CIG RW? | the outlook as described in the FA/Aviation Area Forecast is designated Marginal VFR conditions due to CIG/ceilings (low 1-3k'), and RW (rain showers) |
| what are the specs for ISOL (isolated)? | ceilings and visibilities that are expected to affect less than 3000 sq. miles |
| what are the specs for NWRS (wx cloud coverage) | expected greater than 55% area coverage (cloud, obscurations, etc.) |
| what are the specs for WDLY SCT (widely scattered)? | less than 25% area coverage |
| what are the specs for SCT (scattered)? | 25-54% area coverage |
| what are FB winds? | winds and temperatures aloft information - a type of printed weather forecast |
| what information is contained in an FB winds report? | an estimate of wind direction in relation to true north, wind speed in kts., and temperature in C for selected alt. (MSL) |
| how do you decode winds and temperatures aloft information: 2531-15? | 25 = wind from heading 250 31 = wind speed kts. -15 = temperature (+FL30, -'s are omitted) |
| how do you decode FB data when winds are over 100 kts? : 7701-10 | 7701= wind 270 at 101kts (temp -10C) (77 minus 50 = 27 for wind, and 01 plus 100 = 101 for wind speed) |
| what does a code of 9900 indicate on a FB wx report? | light and variable winds (less than five knots) |
| what does a WH, or Hurricane advisory contain? | the location of the storm center the storm's expected movement maximum winds in and near the storm center minimum pressure in the storm center |
| what does a AC or Convective Outlook contain and describe? | it describes areas subject to slight,moderate,or high risk of severe TS, 50+knt winds, 3/4"hail, and tornadoes header (time and date) time valid summary detailed discussion/description |
| what does a WW or severe weather watch contain/describe? | areas of possible severe TS or Tord's, an "alert" or AWW is sent out to prep briefers prior to WW issue contains: header, bulletin#, type, area, time period, coordinates to watch, specific conditions |
| what is in AIRMET? | issued haz's re: GA a/c every 6hours for mod icing, mod turb, sustain 30kt winds, 1k'ceilings, less than 3mi vis, excessive mountain obscuration, contains: header,type code, valid for, location info, advisory text |
| what is an AIRMET type Sierra? | IFR conditions, and mountain obscuration |
| what is an AIRMET type Tango? | Turbulence, strong surface winds, low-level wind shear |
| what is an AIRMET type Zulu? | Icing and freezing levels |
| what is a SIGMET? | unscheduled forecasts issued for hazardous weather to all a/c: sev icing, sev turb, ca turb, dust storms, volc ash (SIGMET's use N thru Y for type code) |
| what is a VAFTAD? | Volcanic Ash Forecast Transport and Dispersion Chart (for flight planning only, aid in showing progression re: altitude in panels) |
| WSTs are Convective SIGMETS that are used to describe what? | tornadoes, lines of TS, TS over wide area, embedded TS, hail 3/4"+, wind gusts 50kts+, can contain obs. and/or forecast (valid for 2hours, or until superceded) |
| NCWF (National Convective Weather Forecast) supplements what info? | the info contained within Convective SIGMETs, updated every 5min, but tends to lag when labeling severity (too much, too late) |
| what is a convective outlook? | areas in which a slight, moderate, or high risk of severe thunderstorms exists |
| what is a severe weather watch bulletin? | possibility of severe thunderstorms or tornadoes |
| what is a surface (weather) analysis chart? | a chart that depicts atmospheric wx conditions as of the valid time shown on the chart, at the surface of the earth, transmitted every 3 hours |
| what is a station model (wx) and what does it depict? | round=human,square=auto,opencircle=buoy depicts: sky cover, clouds (low,mid,high),sealvl press, press change/tendency, precip,station ident, dewpoint (F), present wx, temp (F), wind |
| what is contained in weather depiction chart? | IFR conditions (hatches), MVFR (non-hatched), VFR not contained within contours, cloud height/ceiling, sky cover, visibility, general weather/and/or obstructions |
| what is the visual sky cover progression (pieces of pie)? | clear, few, scattered, broken, breaks in ovc, overcast, obscured, missing/partial obstruction |
| what is a weather depiction chart most useful for? | determining general weather conditions and quickly locating areas of adverse weather |
| what is a radar summary chart? | (produced 35min after each hour)graphically depicts location, size, shape, and intensity, of precip, and direction of cell mvmt. (and echo tops/bottoms of cells) |
| how is intensity shown on radar summary charts? | with six levels, indicated by three contour lines (1-2, 3-4, 5-6) |
| what are some limitations of radar summary charts? | does not detect fog, and isn't 100% accurate on tops/bottoms, time relevant/sensitive - not current), |
| what is NEXRAD? | Next Generation Radar, uses Doppler radar to detect movement via the frequency of the reflected signals (varies with speed of cell, etc.) |
| what is depicted on a radar summary chart? | individual thunderstorms / cells, as well as lines of thunderstorms, but because they only depict precip, cloud formations aren't always depicted |
| what do the following codes mean on a radar summary chart? NA, NE, LM, R/RW/TRW | NA no radar report received NE no echos detected LM little movement R rain RW rain showers TRW thunderstorms with rain |
| how is the height of precipitation displayed on radar summary charts? | height of precip (not clouds) is display in MSL, above short line, no line = base at sfc, |
| how are a lines of echoes labeled on a radar summary chart? | dark/heavy line, 8/10 coverage is also marked with SLD on each end of the heavy line |
| what do WS and WT indicate when paired with a dashed rectangular box on a radar summary chart? | the box indicates a severe weather watch area, with WS indicating severe thunderstorm watch, and WT indicating possible tornadoes - 0005 indicates the 5th watch issued for a specific area in that year |
| what is a G-AIRMET? | a graphical airmet, is a depiction of hazardous weather and conditions, issued four times a day (0255,0855,1455,2055) - forecasts last for 12 hours, broken into three hour increments |
| what hazards are depicted on a G-AIRMET? | ceiling and vis, mountain obsc., turb, sfc winds, lowlvl wind shear, icing, freezing level |
| why is it preferred to use a G-AIRMET over a regular text-based AIRMET? | because a G-AIRMET provides more accurate details, position, size, and shape of the affected area, more frequently than a text-based version |
| what are the two types of satellite weather images used? | visible (used to see presence of clouds, shape, texture) IR - depicts heat radiation emitted by cloud tops and earth's sfc |
| what do "prog" prognostic charts show? | 4 panel charts, that show (upper) significant weather (12 hours on left, 24 hours on right), and (lower) surface weather (low vis,ceilings, turb areas, icing) (12 left, 24h on right) |
| what are two key elements that you are aided in avoiding by use of a prog chart? | areas of significant turbulence and areas conducive to icing |
| what components are depicted on the two upper-panels of the prog chart? (significant weather) | areas of IFR, MVFR,VFR, moderate+ turbulence, forecast alt. freezing lvl |
| on the upper panels of a prog chart, what do these codes mean?: solid line, scalloped line, dashed line (enclosed), regular dashed line, zigzag line? | solid - ceiling less than 1000' and/or vis <3mi scalloped - 1-3k' ceil., vis 3-5mi dashed - moderate+ turb. dashed line-freezing lvl above MSL zigzag - freezing lvl at sfc |
| what elements are depicted on the lower panels of a prog chart? (sfc weather) | solid lines-enclosed areas of precip, shading = intensity and coverage, fronts, press. areas, weather events, |
| what is a convective outlook chart? | a chart that defines areas of conductive activity and the associated risk factors, and general areas of thunderstorms |
| what do the following convective chart codes mean? SLGT, MDT, HIGH | SLGT well-organized, small thunderstorms, in small numbers/graphical area MDT - potential for greater concentration of severe TS w/ greater severity HIGH - major severe weather outbreak expected, high concentration and high liklihood of extreme ex,TS,TN |
| what time period outlooks are associated with convective outlook charts? | Day 1 (current day) Day 2 (next day) Day 3 (three days out) |
| what do forecast winds and temperatures aloft charts show? | forecast winds and temperatures aloft charts depict temps, wind speeds, and wind directions for various altitudes ranging from the sfc to 42000 MSL (FL18+ expressed in press. alt.) |
| what is a pilot's primary source for preflight weather information? (and what is the secondary source if the primary is not available?) | FSS (Flight Service Stations) 1-800-WX-BRIEF Secondary =NWS (National Weather Service) alternatively, airport/facility directories may have alternate numbers |
| what is a DUATS? | The Direct User Access Terminal System allows pilots with a current medical certificate to receive weather briefings and file flight plans directly through the internet |
| what info does DUATS offer? | current, continuously updated weather info, easy to understand language, flight plan filing and closing, and automated flight planning www.duat.com or www.duats.com 1-800-767-9989, or 1-800-243-3828 |
| what is TIBS? | telephone information briefing service - a continuous recording of area and route meteorological info, airspace proc., and special aviation announcements - can be accessed when calling an AFSS - not intending to replace live FSS brief |
| what are the only two sources that provide FAA certified weather briefings? | an FSS or DUATS briefing |
| what should you say/provide when contacting a weather briefer? | identify yourself as a pilot flying VFR, and provide aircraft number or your name, type of a/c, intended route, destination, and any other relevant bkgd. info. |
| what are the three types of preflight weather briefings? | outlook-when dep. is 6+ hours in the future standard-most complete, assumes no prior knowlege/info of conditions abbreviated-request when intending to update wx info from earlier brief or tele brief |
| what is contained in a standard preflight briefing? | adverse conditions (haz's), VFR nogo, synopsis, current cond., enroute forecast, destination forecast (at eta), winds/temps aloft, NOTAM's, ATC delays, request for PIREP, EFAS (flight watch availability), other info as requested (MOA's, etc.) |
| what are some common/useful in-flight weather information sources? | FSS's, EFAS (enroute flight advisory service), HIWAS (hazardous inflight advs. serv.), CWA's (center weather advisories), Automated weather reporting systems |
| what is provided in an EFAS / Flight Watch callup? | flight watch provides actual wx information including any TS activity that may be enroute, and radar wx info- FREQ 122.0 for EFAS between 5000-18000 MSL |
| what is a HIWAS? | HIWAS - or hazardous inflight weather advisory services, use select VORs to continuously transmit: AIRMET, SIGMET,conv.SIGMET,urg.PIREP,AWS(sev.wx watch), CWAs (center wx) - broadcast on all but emerg. freq., provides type and number of advis. |
| what is a CWA or center weather advisory? | an unscheduled weather advisory provided by control ctr. to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse wx within nxt 2 hours. -issued in lieu of SIGMET when PIREPS indicate situation, to supp. existing advs., conditions affecting safe flow of traffic |
| when a CWA is broadcast, how far/area-wise is addressed? | reported to all areas within 150 miles of control ctr's airspace - for local terminals, broadcast within 50 miles of airspace |
| what is AWOS? | automated weather observing system - 20-30second weather message updated each minute (7 diff. types of AWOS), broadcast over discrete VHF freq., white are noted on charts and AFD's |
| what is ASOS? | automated surface observing system - primary surface wx observing system in U.S., provides cloud ht and amount, vis., type/intensity of precip, press., alt. setting, temp/dew, wind dir/speed/character, broadcasting over VHF freq or ATIS is tower closed |
| what is not reported in an ASOS broadcast? | clouds over 12000, virga, tornadoes, ice crystals, snow pellets, drizzle, snow, dust, sand, and cannot detect storms |
| what are the seven types of ASOS? | |
| what components are contained within CFR part 61 of the FAR/AIM? | certificates, ratings, authorizations, pilot requirements, privileges, and limitations |
| as a pilot, what must you carry to act as pilot of command of an aircraft? | valid pilot certificate, current medical certificate, photo ID (ie driver's license) |
| what are the details of FAR part 61.3? (presenting cert. to authority) | Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection up request by FAA admin, NTSB, TSA, or local/state/fed law enforcement |
| what is the maximum certificated gross takeoff weight, below which, a pilot does not need a specific TYPE rating? | 12,500 lbs. |
| what is the definition of a high performance aircraft? 61.31 | an aircraft with an engine of more than 200 HP |
| what is the definition of a complex aircraft (regardless of engine size) | an aircraft with retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller |
| what do you need to act as PIC of a complex aircraft? | you must have received and logged training from a certified instructor, and get a logbook endorsement |
| how often does a pilot need to receive a flight review (pilot proficiency check)? | every 24 months / biennial |
| how frequently do you need to fly to maintain PIC capability? | 3 t/o's and landings every 90 days, as sole manipulator of controls and performed in same category, class and type as required |
| re: tailwheel endorsements - what requirements are needed to maintain currency? | 3 t/o's and landings within 90 days - TO A FULL STOP (landing and taking off) |
| what are the requirements to stay current if you want to fly at night? | at least 3 t/o's and landings within 90 days within the time period beginning 1 hour after sunset, and 1 hour before sunrise (landings must be STOP and goes) |
| how much time do you have to notify the FAA of a permanent mailing address change? | 30 days from date of move |
| what are the specific allowances of a private pilot sharing expenses with passengers? | a private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, and rental fees |
| what are the terms of PIC or pilot in command? | the pilot of an aircraft that is directly responsible for, and is the final authority for the operation of the aircraft |
| what can the PIC do in an emergency that requires immediate action? | If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from the FARs to the extent required to meet that emergency - a written report is not required unless requested from the FAA |
| what is the definition of airworthy? | the aircraft conforms to a type design approved under a type certificate or supplemental type cert. and to related airworthiness directives AND that the a/c is in a condition for safe operation |
| is there a distinction between airworthiness and flyability? | YES, while an aircraft may still be flyable, it does not mean it is necessarily airworthy as defined by the FARs or mechanic opinion...adhere to expert advice! |
| who is responsible for determining if an a/c is suitable for flight? | the PIC has the final authority for determining whether an a/c is in a condition safe for flight - and must discontinue the flight when unairworthy mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur |
| what are the FARs re: dropping objects | it is not officially prohibited, HOWEVER, can only be done if reasonable precautions are performed to ensure the avoidance of injury or damage to persons or property |
| what are the regulations re: alcohol and flying? | NO FLYING within 8 hours of consumption of any alcoholic bev - while under the influence (incl. hangovers), or with a BA level of .04% or greater |
| what are the regulations re: alcohol and passengers? | unless under the supervision of proper medical care or in an emergency, you cannot carry a passenger who appears to be under the influence of drugs |
| what is the IMSAFE checklist? | Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion |
| what are the specs of FAR 91.103 (preflight) | each pilot in command must, BEFORE beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight |
| what runway information is contained under preflight FAR 91.103? | runway lengths at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance information |
| as part of FAR 91.103, what additional information comprises "preflight" aside from IMSAFE and runway info? | checking weather reports AND forecasts, fuel requirements/burntime/etc., aternatives available if the flight cannot be completed as planned, and any known traffic delays (from ATC, etc.) |
| what are the specs of FAR 91.105 re: seatbelts and shoulder harnesses? | during t/o, ldg, and enroute, each required flightcrew member shall keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station - additionally keeping the shoulder harness fastened when applicable / available |
| 91.107 re: safety belt briefing...what are the specs? | the PIC does not need to be the one that gives the briefing, but they must ensure that it is completed PRIOR TO MOVEMENT - w/ instructions on how to use it properly |
| 91.111 operating near other aircraft (formation regs) | NO formation if carrying passengers for hire - NO formation unless each PIC involved has discussed and arranged it, NO formation so close that it creates collision hazard |
| 91.117 airspeed restrictions - what are they? | under 10,000' MSL, no airspeed over 250 KIAS is allowed (except possibly in class B) |
| 91.117 airspeed restrictions re: flight near Class C or D airspace??? | unless authorized by ATC, no flying at or below 2,500 AGL within 4nm of primary airport in Class C or D at more than 200 KIAS |
| 91.117 airspeed restrictions near class B | - no operation at speeds above 200 KIAS in airspace underlying class B area designated for an airport, or a VFR corridor designated through said class B |
| 91.123 re: ATC clearances and pilot responsibility | No PIC may deviate from ATC clearance unless an amended clearance is obtained, an emergency exists, or the deviation is in response to a traffic alert / collision avoidance TCAS |
| 91.123 if you MUST deviate from an ATC clearance,what two things must you do??? | notify the ATC asap of the deviation, and submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the ATC manager of that airport if requested by ATC |
| how should one act re: traffic patterns at uncontrolled airports? | each pilot of an aircraft MUST comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in part 93.... |
| 91.151 fuel requirements...what are they? | Day VFR flights must carry enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing, and to fly after that an addition 30 minutes - 45 minutes additional is required for night flights (personal minimums: 45 minutes and 1 hour, respectively) |
| what is CFIT? | controlled flight into terrain - 25% of which occurs during takeoff and landing |
| what are some causes of CFIT? | -loss of situational awareness - op and non-op distractions -complacency -lack of tech/op experience (operating gps) -lack of adequate preparation -general confusion |
| what are some situations that can LEAD to CFIT? | -vfr flying in mvfr conditions -flying in substandard ifr conditions -low-flying aircraft in vfr |
| how would you orient the controls for a right quartering headwind? | aileron controls right - elevator neutral |
| how would you orient the controls for a right quartering tailwind? | aileron controls left, elevator down |
| how would you orient the controls for a left quartering headwind? | aileron controls left - elevator neutral |
| how would you orient the controls for a left quartering tailwind? | aileron controls right - elevator down |
| what type of wind is most hazardous during taxi? | quartering tailwind (impacting from left or right) |
| how would you handle a tailwheel a/c in windy taxi conditions? | be aware that the a/c will try to weathervane, and use up elevator to keep tail down in headwind, or down elevator to keep tail down in tailwind |
| what are the AROW documents? | wirworthiness document registration (Federal (state if app.) Operator's Handbook/limitations(official/unique) Weight Balance / Performance Document |
| ATOMATOEFLAMES (faa requirements for minimum equipment for VFR daytime) | anti-collision lights, tachometer, oil press., manifold press (if app), airspeed, temp gauge (if liq. cooled), oil temp, fuel lvl, landing gear ind. (if app), altimeter, mag compass, ELT, safety belts |
| what are the general components of a radio call? | Who (you are calling) Who (you are) Where (where you are) What (is your request) With (atis, information, etc.) |
| how does weight act in a stabilized climb (re: forces on the aircraft)? | weight consists of a component acting 90 deg to the flight path, AND as a force opposing thrust |
| when are the left-turning tendencies of an aircraft most noticeable? | during high power, low airspeed conditions (climbs/takeoff, etc.) |
| what are the four forces that contribute to an a/c left turning tendency? | torque reaction (ie drill, prop turns right, left roll along long. axis) gyroscopic precession (prop acts like gyroscope w/ rigidity in space and prop is at angle) asymetrical thrust from prop spiraling slipstream (decreases after t/o) |
| what is P-Factor? | aka asymetrical thrust - occurs when flying at high AOA, angle of blade produces more thrust on one side than the other |
| what is spiraling slipstream? | rotating props create backward flow of air (aka slipstream) which wraps around the a/c hitting the left side of the vertical tail/left yaw (most noticeable on t/o) |
| how does weight affect the aircraft in descending flight? | weight acts perpendicular to the flight path, and forward along the flight path(increasing speed during a power on descent WITHOUT increasing thrust) |
| what is L/D or the lift/drag ratio? | L/D is used to calculate the best angle and max distance of glide for a given altitude - the point at which you have the maximum lift with the least amount of drag |
| how does a headwind or tailwind affect gliding distance? | headwinds decrease gliding distance, while tailwinds increase gliding distance (in a strong headwind, increase gliding airspeed to compensate) |
| what are the ARROW documents? | Airworthiness (in aircraft) Registration (state&fed - in aircraft) Radio License (when used/op outside of US) Operating Limitations/Handbook Weight & Balance information |
| what is it ok to test an ELT? | during the first five minutes of every hour |
| 91.207 - what are the specs re: maintaining an ELT? | the ELT batteries must be replaced when the transmitter has been in use for 1 cumulative hour, or they reach 50% of their useful life |
| what frequencies can you monitor to listen for an ELT? | 121.50 MHz and 243.00 MHz |
| when must your aircraft use its position lights (red/green/white)? | any operations from sunset to sunrise must use the aircraft's position lights (in Alaska - when unlighted object cannot be seen from 3SM, or sun is +6 degrees below the horizon) |
| 91.211 supplemental oxygen requirements? | from 12,500-14,000 oxygen required at those altitudes lasting more than 30 minutes from 14,000+ all flightcrew must use at those altitudes the entire duration at alt. 15,000+ all OCCUPANTS must use entire duration at alt. |
| what's the difference between cabin pressure altitude and flight altitude? (FAR91.211) | cabin pressure altitude is the equivalent elevation occupants experience in a pressurized cabin, whereas flight altitude is the altitude of the aircraft --FAR's relate to cabin pressure altitude (usually affecting non-press aircraft) |
| 91.130 / 91.215 Operations in Class C airspace - what are the required pieces of equipment? | coded radar beacon transponder having either Mode 3/A 4096 code capability, and an automatic pressure altitude reporting equip with Mode C capability that automatically replies to Mode C (radar) interrogations in 100 foot increments |
| 91.303 Aerobatic flight - what are the specs (6 of them) | nogo over congested area, nogo over open assembly of people, nogo with lat boundaries of B,C,D,E airspace designated for airport, within 4nm of Federal airway, below 1500 AGL, vis less then 3SM |
| 91.307 parachute requirements? | only parachutes of approved type may be carried on board for emergency use - and must by chair type (canopy in back), and packed by a cert'd rigger within preceding 120 days |
| 91.307 what are the aircraft handling limitations if each occupant IS NOT wearing a parachute? | no intentional maneuvers that exceeds a bank of 60 degrees (rel. to horiz), or a nose-up/nose-down attitude of 30+ degrees relative to the horiz. |
| are parachutes required when a CFI is conducting approved spin training with a student? | NO - spin training, or any operation that falls under the exceptions category to parachute req's |
| what are some of the categories of "restricted civil aircraft"? | agricultural, aerial survey, patrolling, weather control, forest and wildlife conservation, cargo carrying, and aerial advertising ( |
| 91.313(e) waivers for flying a restricted category aircraft over densely populated areas, etc. - details? | the application for waiver must be made on the form (written), and in the manner prescribed by the FAA |
| what restrictions apply when operating a "restricted" category aircraft? (C172 with hole in bottom for camera, etc.) 91.313 | flight over a densely populated area is usually prohibited - unless appropriate waiver is obtained |
| 91.319 - experimental certificates and flight restrictions (what are they?) | unless special authorization is obtained from administrator, no person may operate an aircraft with an experimental certificate over a densely populated area, or in a congested airway |
| what is the purpose of the FAA issuing "experimental certificates" to aircraft? | research and development, showing compliance (prior to obtaining regular airworthiness cert.), crew training, exhibition, racing, market survey, and amateur built aircraft |
| who is primarily responsible for maintaining aircraft airworthiness, including compliance with airworthiness directives? | the owner/operator |
| what is a "return to service" statement in an aircraft record? | a statement provided in the aircraft records after any maintenance has been performed |
| do inoperative instruments or equipment still need to be inspected during regular aircraft checks/maintenance? | Yes, when regular maintenance is performed, inoperative equipment still needs to be inspected to insure it will not adversely affect the operation of other components |
| when must an aircraft be flight tested? FAR91.407 | before passengers can be carried, any aircraft that has been altered in a way that could appreciably change its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by appropriately rated pilot w/ atleast PPC |
| FAR 91.409 what are the terms for an annual inspection? | upon completion of annual inspection, appropriate notation should be recorded in aircraft logs - lasting 12 calendar months (to the end of the original month the following year) |
| after receiving an aircraft back from maintenance, what should you check for in addition to a "return to service" statement? | ensure that all airworthiness directives that were due have been accomplished with appropriate notations made |
| what are the qualifying terms that require a 100-hour inspection? FAR 91.409 | a 100 hour inspection is required for any aircraft used to carry any person, other than a crew member for hire, or to provide flight training (student provided aircraft (CFI only) no 100-hour req) |
| does an aircraft provided for rental or lease without a pilot (dry lease) require a 100 hour inspection? | NO |
| does an annual inspection satisfy the requirements for a 100-hour inspection? | as long as it was accomplished within the preceding 100 hours of time in service |
| annual and 100-hour aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction (t/f)? | TRUE |
| what are the terms for 100-hour inspections when flight time is needed to fly aircraft to cert. maintenance facility? FAR91.409 | 10-hours of leeway is provided beyond 100 hours to fly aircraft to maintenance, however the next 100-hour inspection is STILL DUE 100 hours from the original time marker (not including 0-10 extra hours) |
| what aircraft records should an owner keep/maintain? FAR91.417 | maintenance, prev. maintenance, alterations, 100-hour, annual, and progressive, and any other required or approved inspections |
| where should a pilot look to determine the expiration date of the last annual inspection? | in the aircraft maintenance records |
| what are the specs of FAR91.417 (aircraft record retention)? | the owner operator of an aircraft shall keep aircraft maintenance records to show compliance with an applicable airworthiness directive |
| FAR 91.413 - what are the specs on Transponder inspections? | transponder inspections must be performed/recorded every 24 calendar months (due at the end of the original month of issuance, 24 months later) |
| under what conditions must you report a situation to the NTSB? NTSB 830.5 | if an aircraft is involved in an accident that results in death, injury, or substantial damage to the a/c, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified IMMEDIATELY |
| what three "incidents" constitute contacting the NTSB immediately? | flight control system malfunction or failure, in-flight fire, or overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident |
| what should you do re: aircraft wreckage? NTSB 830.10 | wreckage can only be moved prior to NTSB taking custody, to the extent required to safely extract persons injured or trapped in the wreckage, or to protect the wreckage from further damage, or to protect the public from injury |
| before submitting any statement to the NTSB, what should you do? | have your statement reviewed in full by your attorney |
| NTSB 830.15 - when must you submit a report to the NTSB - and how long do you have to submit it? | the operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is REQUIRED to file an accident report within 10 days of the accident |
| when involved in an "incident" (not accident), what must the operator do? | only submit a report to the nearest NTSB field office if requested |
| what is ramp weight? | the weight of the standard airplane loaded for flight prior to engine start |
| what is takeoff weight? | the ramp weight minus the fuel burned during engine startup, runup, and taxi |
| what is landing weight? | the takeoff weight minus the fuel burned enroute |
| what is the useful load? (also termed gross weight, generally speaking) | the weight of the flight crew, usable fuel, passengers, baggage, and cargo |
| what is the usable fuel? | the portion of the total fuel onboard the airplane that is available for flight and ground operations |
| what is the payload? | the term for the weight of only the passengers, baggage, and cargo |
| what is the landing weight? | usually very similar to the takeoff weight, it is the manufacturer specified max weight allowed for landing without significant risk of structural damage to a/c |
| what is the standard weight of 1 gallon of gasoline? | 6 lbs. |
| where is the center of gravity (CG) located? | over the fulcrum (directly over) |
| what is the reference datum? | an imaginary vertical plane from which all horizontal distances are measured |
| what is the arm (re: weight and balance)? | the distance, measured in inches, from the reference datum to any area used for weight dist. (aft of the datum is a positive value - forward of the ref datum is a negative value) |
| what is the moment (re: weight and balance)? | a measurement of the tendency of a weight to cause rotation at the fulcrum |
| weight x arm =??? | the moment (ie, the expression in pound-inches in a particular position from the reference datum) |
| how do you find the moment of an object? | you multiply its' weight by it's arm (length - as measured by its distance from the ref. datum) = the sum expressed in pound-inches |
| how much does a quart of oil weigh? | 1.875 pounds per quart, or 7.5 lbs. per gallon |
| what are the terms associated with the CG? | reference datum, arm, and moment |
| what are the three methods of computing the total weight and center of gravity (to be used depending on info/method provided by each unique POH)? | the computational method, graph method, and table method |
| how do you calculate the CG using the computational method? | total moment / total weight = CG (expressed in inches from ref datum) *(then use weight and CG to check the chart for safe mark within prescribed envelope) |
| using the table method for weight and balance computation, how will you tell if the total moment with acceptable? | while you won't usually get an actual CG measurement using the table method, you will get a total moment that can be checked against a valid range for the given total weight of the a/c, and quickly determine if the total moment is safe/to spec as-is |
| what is the purpose of the weight shift formula? | it's used to calculate the amount of weight or specific distance you must adjust to get your CG within a/c limits |
| what are the four variables of the weight shift formula? | weight moved, weight of airplane, distance that CG moves, distance between CG arms |
| how do you solve the weight shift formula? | establish 3 of the 4 variables, and cross multiply, then divide by the remaining variable to get the final missing variable |
| what does aircraft performance information help the pilot determine? | how much runway is needed for takeoff, safe obstacle clearance dist. on dep., fuel needed for flight, how much runway needed for landing |
| how are performance charts presented? | as either tables (requiring interpolation) or graphs, providing info to calculate necessary data |
| what three factors contribute to low are density? | low atmo pressure, high temperature, and high humidity |
| how does decreased air density affect aircraft performance? | it reduces performance by requiring air to move faster over the wings to produce the same amount of lift as when in denser air (also red. prop effectiveness) |
| what is density altitude? | is pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature (15 deg C) |
| pressure altitude and density altitude are equal only at standard temperature? T/F? | True |
| High, hot, and humid =??? | High density altitude (and decreased aircraft performance) engine power, lift, and prop efficiency |
| what can you determine using a density altitude chart? | pressure and density altitude |
| how do tailwinds affect takeoff distance and landing roll? | tailwinds significantly increase BOTH takeoff distance and landing roll because the tailwind decreases the magnitude of the airflow over the wing, thus decreases the amt. of lift it generates |
| what tool does a pilot use to compute a crosswind component? | a crosswind component graph |
| how does the runway gradient affect takeoff distance and landing roll? | negative gradient is good for takeoff, bad for landing, and a positive gradient is bad for takeoff and good for landing |
| when is a runway gradient published in the AFD? | when the gradient is .3% or greater |
| what tool does a pilot use to calculate takeoff performance (aka distance)? | a takeoff performance table (or graph), using the variables/conditions of weight, flaps, OAt, runway type/specs, wind, |
| what tool does a pilot use to calculate landing performance? (aka distance) | a landing distance graph or table |
| what does Vy (rate of climb) provide? | the best gain in altitude over a given period of time |
| what does Vx (angle of climb) provide? | the greatest gain in altitude over a given distance |
| what is the absolute ceiling of an aircraft? | the point at which an aircraft can no longer climb (the altitude where Vx and Vy meet) |
| what is the service ceiling of an aircraft? | the altitude beyond which, an aircraft can climb no more than 100 ft per minute |
| what is cruise climb? | the airspeed at which you achieve a climb that yields better engine cooling, forward visibility, and forward speed/less time enroute |
| how does a high altitude density affect climb performance? | climb performance, engine performance, lift, and prop efficiency are all reduced at higher density altitudes |
| what do cruise performance charts help you predict? | rate of fuel consumption, true airspeed, range, and endurance |
| what are the trade-offs that coincide with cruise-flight decisions? | time, power, fuel consumption, speed, and range |
| what are three important airspeeds to memorize in regards to cruise flight? | max level flight airspeed, max range airspeed, and maximum endurance airspeed |
| what is the max airspeed at level flight? | the point where force of total drag equals the force of full thrust (you can't accelerate any more, even at full power) |
| what is the max range airspeed? | the airspeed that enables the a/c to fly the greatest distance/gallon of fuel (best lift to drag ratio / LD max) |
| what is the max endurance airspeed? | allows a/c to remain aloft for the longest period of time (least amt of fuel consumed/hour) - at the cost of less distance |
| what are cruise performance tables used to calculate? | manifold press., fuel flow, fuel consumption, and true airspeed |
| Mechanical Flight computers are comprised of what parts? | the 10 unit index, press alt. window, density alt. window, air temp window, speed index, far/cels conversion, A Scale (non-rotating outer), B scale outer rotating, C scale (inner rotating) |
| E6B's, for time, speed and distance calculations, what represents what? | A scale is distance, B scale is time (min), and speed index points to rate of speed |
| what are the two types of wind components? | headwind/tailwind component, and crosswind component |
| what is pilotage? | navigation by reference to visual landmarks, using course lines |
| LOP / line of position...what is it? | the idea that an aircraft is along a specific line of possible positions |
| what is a "fix" | the intersection of two lines of position |
| what are three pilotage techniques? | estimate your position on a sectional chart, locate a landmark to confirm position, continuing on a course/and making corrections |
| what are good examples of checkpoints? (to use for nav?) | small cities, major roads/railroads, rivers and lakes, section lines, airports |
| what is dead reckoning? | the process of establishing your aircraft's position through preflight and inflight calculations |
| what are the primary elements of dead reckoning? | calculating time from speed/distance, calculating GS from time/distance, calculating distance from time/speed, observing direction on a magnetic compass or heading ind. |
| what are the components of a navigational plotter? | straightedge, protractor, distance scales |
| what is true course? | the intended / desired direction of flight as measured on a chart clockwise from true north - expressed in degrees - obtained via use of protractor |
| what does the phrase "east is least, west is best" mean? | in relation to magnetic course correction, variations marked on a map with the E marking are subtracted from your true course hdg, variations with a W marking are adding to your true course hdg |
| what is magnetic course? | magnetic course is True Course, corrected for local magnetic variation (as referenced using isogonic lines) |
| what is the difference between magnetic course and magnetic heading? | magnetic heading is magnetic course corrected for the effects of wind (using winds aloft data) |
| what is compass heading? | compass heading is magnetic heading corrected for compass deviation (as noted on the compass card in an aircraft) |
| what are the four steps to determining/calculating your final Compass Heading? | determine true course, correct for magnetic variation, apply wind correcting angle, correct for compass deviation |
| what are the acceptable exceptions to the FAA VFR cruising altitudes? | below 3000', flight in any direction is ok, above 3000' must adhere to reg's unless maneuvering, turning, or changing altitude |
| what are the VFR cruising altitudes above 3000' from 0-179 degrees? | odd thousands plus 500 |
| what are the VFR cruising altitudes above 3000' from 180-359 degrees? | even thousands plus 500 |
| what type of course does the VFR cruise altitude rule apply to? | to your MAGNETIC COURSE, regardless of your heading |
| what are the day & night VFR reg's regarding fuel reserves? | Day = enough fuel to first point of intending landing, plus 30 minutes additional....night= 45 minutes additional |
| when using multiple cruise altitudes during a flight, which one do you enter into your flight plan? | the INITIAL cruise altitude is the one entered into your flight plan |
| what is the definition for total usable fuel onboard? | the total amount of usable fuel, expressed in hours and minutes, that you can keep your aircraft aloft |
| how do you notate stopovers on a flight plan? | for stops less than an hour, enter the name of the airport in the dest. box, and file a separate flight plan for more than an hour stops |
| what do you do if your arrival is delayed and you have an open flight plan? | delays more than 15 minutes should be reported to FSSs and plans amended, failure to close a plan 30min post ldg, SAR will be launched if they cannot contact you |
| what are the five C's of lost procedures? | Climb - gain altitude for better view Communicate - speak w/ a facility for help Confess - explain situation Comply - follow controller's suggestions Conserve - save fuel, by reducing power/airspeed |
| what are some reasons to divert during a flight? | unpredicted weather, system malfunctions, poor planning |
| what is the most straightforward way to perform a diversion? | don't plot an actual course, navigate direct! (w/ GPS, VOR, NDB, radio) map is backup, start diversion near prominent ground feature if possible - once on course, note time, and use winds aloft nearest to calc. hdg and GS, then fuel and ETA |
| what is VOR? | Very high frequency, Omni-Directional, Range...VHR used for course guidance and a/c positioning, consists of 1000+ installations, enables cross country nav, line of sight only |
| what is DME? | Distance measuring equipment - |
| what is VORTAC? | a collocated VOR and TACAN (tactical air navigation) which provides the distance information (VOR provides course information) |
| where do you find information about VOR's that are affected by terrain (breaking line of sight)? | in the AF/D |
| what is the VOR Broadcast pattern? | transmitted in all directions, with radials numbered 1-360 clockwise, from magnetic north |
| what is a Victor airway? | routes for air traffic, comprised of specific radials that connect various VOR locations |
| what are the three classes of VOR ground stations? | based on normal reception/alt. range: TVOR (25nm of station 12k' alt. or less) LVOR (40nm 1-18k' alt. range) HVOR (40nm 1-14k 100nm 14-18k' 18-45k' 130nm |
| what are the components of VOR airborne equipment? | antenna, receiver, indicator |
| how do VOR receivers work? | VOR receivers determine azimuth/direction from a station by timing two signals from the tuned station (reference signal, second signal), and associates the phase diff. between the two signals into a degree heading in relation to the station |
| what are the key components of the VOR indicator? | CDI (course deviation indicator), TO/FROM indicator, Course index, Azimuth Dial, OBS (Omnibearing Selector) |
| what should you always do before relying on VOR navigation? | tune and indentify the transmitting station, and verify that the frequency is correct/station is working properly |
| what are the steps to obtain a VOR reading FROM a station? | -tune the station, turn the OBS knob until the CDI needle centers with a FROM indication, read the resulting radial next to the course index |
| what are the steps to obtain a VOR reading TO a station? | tune the station, turn the OBS knob until the CDI needle centers with the TO indicator, turn the aircraft to the heading displayed, and assuming NO crosswind, flying directly on course to the station |
| what radial are you on if the CDI needle is centered with a TO indication? | the course you are on is the reciprocal of the course set by the OBS (you are flying towards a VOR, directly opposite the radial coming FROM that VOR) |
| is standard VOR information presented on the indicator, sensitive to the aircraft's actual heading? | NO, the radial indicated, is simply TO/FROM the VOR to the aircraft's location, regardless of the a/c course heading |
| what does the CDI on a VOR indicator indicate? | it shows the aircraft's centered, left, or right of the VOR station on the selected course (needle on right = deviated to the left, etc.), deviation dots = 2 degrees / dot |
| what does a VOR "off" flag indicate (barber pole, etc.) | it can mean: you are directly over the station, you are 90 degrees to the left/right of the intended course, the VOR signal is unreliable |
| what happens when you fly directly over a VOR station? | you enter the "cone of confusion" which lasts a few seconds-minutes depending on your altitude over the station, displaying an OFF indication, ultimately transitioning to a FROM indication (if you were TO prev.) |
| if you see a VOR OFF indication and you are not directly over or abeam the VOR station, what is the likely situation? | it is likely that the VOR is not reliable or functioning properly |
| what is bracketing? (re: VOR tracking with wind correction) | bracketing is the process of making a series of corrections to determine the appropriate wind correction angle when flying a VOR course with winds aloft (10 deg cor, wait, 5 deg cor., wait...etc. |
| how do you intercept a course (to avoid clouds on an already est. VOR hdg) | depart current radial, setup intercept angle to intercept new radial, turn OBS knob to set new inbound course, when CDI is centered, turn a/c to new radial and head inbound |
| what is the acceptable range for intercept angles (avoiding clouds when VOR)? | 20-90 degrees, depending the distance from the station and the course |
| how can you cross check your VOR position? | plot the intersection of the lines of position from two or more VOR stations///use VOR#2 to note radial of checkpoint, OBS set it, and wait until VOR2 needle centers |
| what is VOR orientation? | |
| what is the process of VOR tracking? | maintaining a selected course TO or FROM by keeping the CDI centered, and (if app) maintaining the correct wind correction angle via bracketing to stay on course |
| what is an HSI? | A horizontal situation indicator, combines a regular heading indicator with a VOR indicator, displaying information from both indicators in one instrument |
| what is DME? | Distance measuring equipment is on some aircraft, providing distance, eta, and speed information to an aircraft in relation to a DME/VOR facility |
| what is the max range of a DME? | 199 nm from a station (depending on line-of-sight and altitude) |
| are VOR and DME's the same thing? | NO, they are separate facilities even if collocated, and frequency pairing allows them to broadcast on one frequency...DME's transmit an ident signal every 30 seconds |
| how accurate is DME information? | usually within 1/2 mile, HOWEVER their info is SLANT range (not horizontal distance over ground) (ie: altitude dependent) |
| what are the limitations of DME? | flight in any direction other than directly TO/FROM results in unreliable speed information, |
| what is RNAV? | Radio navigation, allows for DIRECT navigation by means of a computer that enables the creation of waypoints (aka phantom VORs) |
| how is an RNAV deviation displayed differently from a VOR course deviation? | RNAV presents deviations in nm off course, instead of tradition VOR which notes deviations as degrees / angle off course |
| what is GPS? | Global Positioning System, a network of satellites that provide radio signals for time/speed/distance 3D position information to devices with receivers for GPS signals |
| what is GNSS? | aka GPS, Global Navigation Satellite System - is a generic way to describe the principle of GPS - the U.S. uses primarily the NAVSTAR network of satellites, however a combination of sat's can be used for GPS |
| what is the minimum number of satellites needed in the GPS network? | 24 satellites, arranged in 6 orbital planes/constellations, providing pole-to-pole coverage at all times |
| how many satellites are needed to produce a full 3D aircraft position? | 4 satellites, with data from all four yielding a very precise composite 3D position, with lat/long, and altitude |
| what happens when only 3 satellites are in view? | VFR lat/long solutions are still available, however altitude information is not, which is not acceptable for many IFR situations |
| how are satellite outages, failures, and maintenance presented to the public? | via GPS NOTAMs, and you might need to ask for them specifically (not a standard part of the NOTAMs) |
| what is RAIM? | Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring - informs you when the integrity of GPS signals is in question, and drops below acceptable levels for accurate information (advanced versions include FDE Fault Detection & Exclusion)which filters faulty sat's |
| what is WAAS? | wide area augmentation system, reduces errors in position calc., indicates areas where GPS unusable, filters faulty signals quickly, receives WAAS signals over several states/wider reception |
| what is LAAS? | local area augmentation system (ground based system that acts like GPS sat's) - yields greater accuracy than WAAS, produces corrections message on VHF, over limited area 20-30 miles from airport |
| what are the four main types of GPS receivers? | handheld, panel mounted (530), integrated IFD(w/pfd's), FMS integrated (flight manag. systems) |
| what are the differences between a traditional HSI and PFD-generated HSI in GPS mode? | traditional HSI notes the number of degrees off course, while the GPS HSI notes the number of nm of lateral distance you are off course |
| what are the three modes for the HSI / GPS? | enroute (1 dot is 2.5nm off), terminal, (1 dot is .5nm off), approach (1 dot is .15nm off) |
| If your gps receiver is equipped, what will happen to the HSI if your signal fails/becomes inconsistent? | an INTEG (integrity) alert will appear inside the HSI dial, indicating a signal integrity alert, and the course-deviation bar will disappear |
| what is some common information provided on an MFD (re: GPS)? | your pos. in relation to desired course, nav aids (airports, airspace, waypoints), terrain info, topo info, obstacle data TAWS, wx (real-time) if equipped) |
| what is a waypoint? | used in nav to provide guidance to a specific point, often predefined, and retrievable in GPS. |
| what are VFR waypoints? | published on aeronautical charts, identified with five letters beginning "VP", and CAN be collocated with VFR checkpoints or VFR reporting points, which are visible to ATC (and used to direct flow of traffic near an airport) |
| what is the difference between VOR and GPS navigation? | VOR is often TO/FROM navigation, whereas GPS navigation is ALWAYS TO/TO navigation (using a succession of waypoints) |
| what is a GPS route? | a series of waypoints |
| what is a GPS course also commonly known as? | the DTK or desired track, which may differ from the noted course between VORs, as the GPS information is often more current (re: mag deviation) than when the VORs were originally notated |
| when navigating along a route, what is the DTK / desired track between your previous waypoint and the waypoint you are navigating towards called? | this is called the "active leg" |
| what is the difference between a track and aircraft's heading? | a track is the direction the aircraft is heading (accounting for wind, etc.), whereas the heading simply indicates where the nose of the aircraft is pointing |
| referring to DTK (desired track), XTK (cross-track), XTE (cross track error), and TRK (track), what does an aircraft on course indicate? | (ex) DTK 155 deg, XTK 0.0nm, TKE 0.0 deg, TRK 0.0 deg |
| what is TKE? | track angle error, expressed in degrees, is the number of degrees your track is off, in relation to the desired track, the arrow indicates the direction of turn needed to get back on course |
| what is XTK? | cross track (and cross track error) is the indicated distance from your current position to the desired track, expressed in nm. If you are on course, 0.0nm is shown, off course is the nm off, and an arrow indicating the direction you are off |
| what can you do when you check your GPS database currency and discover that your database is out of date? | to continue using for GPS only, you must not use the GPS for critical nav decisions, and verify named waypoints when navigating to a named fix (as the waypoint location might have been moved) |
| what is the safest way to adjust/set your GPS data tasks? | preset as much as possible on the ground during pre-flight, ONLY when the aircraft is NOT moving |
| what are the best pretaxi preparations to perform on the ground? | input/activate flight plan, verify route, verify active leg, setup VOR cross checks (if app), note orientation of rwy, zoom map to show rwy and plan dep direction, |
| how should you plan your intercept your first active leg upon takeoff (aka "active leg intercept" | note traffic pattern orientation, and after complying with traffic pattern exit procedures, plan and execute an intercept angle 30-45 degrees of your intended DTK / active leg |
| what are your intended bank angles for active leg intercept during day and night flight | 30 bank max during day, standard rate (~20) max at night (so lead the turn a bit more at night) |
| when does your heading NOT equal your TRK? | when a wind correction angle requires you to point the nose of the aircraft in a different direction in order to keep the DIRECTION of the aircraft aligned with the DTK (desired track) |
| if you make a 5 degree angle for intercepting a DTK after being slightly off course, what is the degree of turn you will need to straighten out your aircraft once you intercept your DTK? | 5 degrees turn in the opposite direction for your original intercept to maintain the trk once reestablished on your original dtk |
| how should you orient/configure your GPS prior to arriving at your destination airport? | zoom in enough to see the rwy orientation and decided how to best enter the traffic pattern (as instructed for ATC rwy assign) in relation to your current track |
| what is ADF Navigation? | automatic direction finder, radio nav w/ low/med strength (L/MF) frequencies, including NDB's and AM commercial stations |
| what is the ADF equipment on the ground? | NDB (non-directional beacons), and AM commercial stations - NDB's transmit morse code, and sometimes voice signals |
| what is the ADF equipment onboard an aircraft? | Nondirectional (sense)(wire)antenna (resolves the ambiguity from the loop antenna), Loop antenna (receives radio signals to determine line of direction to station, ADF bearing indicator (dir. TO), ADF receiver (shows TO direction of both ant's) |
| should you use AM commercial stations as primary navaids? | NO, but they're useful as supplemental guides |
| what is the difference between bearing, and relative bearing? | bearings are stated in degrees from the nose of the aircraft, RELATIVE bearings from the ADF provide the angle or bearing between the nose of your aircraft and the station |
| what are the three types of ADF indicators? | fixed-card, moveable card (manually move to adjust magnetic heading), and RMI (radio magnetic indicator) - which automatically adjusts the azimuth card to show magnetic heading) |
| how can you determine the magnetic bearing to an NDB station? (re: a FIXED card ADF indicator) | by adding your aircraft's magnetic heading to the relative bearing shown on the ADF indicator (MH 060 + RH 210 = MB of 270 to the NDB station) *sums of 360+ should subtract 360 to get the MB |
| how can you determine the magnetic bearing to and NDB station (re: a MOVEABLE card ADF indicator)? | simply align the azimuth dial on the ADF to match your aircraft's magnetic heading - the ADF needle points to the relative hdg TO the NDB station, and the opposite end of the needle is the FROM hdg of the NDB |
| how do you determine the relative bearing on a moveable card ADF indicator? | you turn the azimuth dial to zero, and read the hdg pointed to by the ADF arrow |
| what should you do to properly use a two-needle RMI / ADF indicator? | ensure you're reading the appropriate needle for the assigned navaid you are using (if you set single needle for ADF, double needle for VOR, etc.) The azimuth will automatically adjust as your aircraft changes magnetic headings |
| how do you execute homing towards an NDB station using ADF? | tune and verify the NDB station, point the nose of the aircraft so that it aligns with the bearing arrow on the indicator (assuming no wind), fly direct towards the station |
| how do you track to a station (homing w/ crosswind adj.) using ADF? | employ bracketing to adjust and calibrate the appropriate heading (with WCA) to stay on course with the given crosswind component |
| when you have achieved an appropriate WCA (wind correction angle) during ADF tracking, what will the ADF indicator look like? | the arrow will show the amount of WCA of the aircraft in the opposite direction of the aircraft's actual corrected heading |
| what happens as you get closer to an NDB station? | the needle becomes more sensitive - so don't chase the needle as it moves more frequently/drastically |
| how do you obtain a "fix" using ADF orientation? | find the reciprocal bearing for each of your ADF relative bearings (you need two bearings to get a fix), convert those MB's to true (for use on the sectional), plot the lines of position on the chart |
| when converting magnetic to true headings, how to you account for the isogonic variations? | add easterly, subtract westerly variations (opposite when converting true to magnetic) |
| how long do your eyes need to adapt to the dark? | 30 minutes |
| how should you prepare for night flight? | keep cockpit lights as dim as possible, keep light exposure minimized 30 min prior, use supp oxy above 5000', use off-center vision |
| is your peripheral or direct/frontal vision better at night? | peripheral vision is better due to hightened effectiveness of the rods around the outer edges of the eyeballs |
| how should you employ your vision at night? | use off center viewing - looking 10 degrees above or below center for 1 second intervals to improve vision effectiveness |
| what is autokinesis? | the false perception of movement by a single point of light against a dark background (occurring in very dark places with few visual references) - don't fixate on one target - shift your gaze frequently |
| what are false horizons? | when the natural horizon is obscured or not readily apparent - rely on your instruments and maintain spatial awareness |
| how do you best avoid landing illusions? | treat all approaches the same (day/night), fly normal patterns, use GPI's, note when a rwy has a significant slope up/down |
| what is a vection illusion? | when you detect motion when there is none - RELY on your instruments |
| what is flicker vertigo? | 4-20 flashes/sec (ie strobe against propeller, moon/sun against prop), avoid looking at a light source through a propeller for any length of time - also change prop speed freq if problematic |
| what is disorientation? | when your perceived position and motion relative to the earth's surface DO NOT agree with reality |
| what are your three primary sensory inputs? | vision, kinesthetic sense, vestibular (inner ear) |
| when are you more succeptible to disorientation? | when fatigued, anxiety ridden, under heavy workload, or when consuming alcohol/drugs |
| what is the coriolis illusion? | an overwhelming sensation of rotating, turning, or accelerating along an entirely different plane |
| what is the inversion illusion? | the feeling that you are tumbling backwards when you are actual level |
| what is a graveyard spiral? | a feeling that the airplane is turning in the opposite direction as the actual turn |
| what is the leans? | a feeling that the airplane is rolling in the opposite direction |
| what is a somotogravic illusion? | a feeling that you are in a nose-high attitude when the aircraft is actually level, |
| what is hypoxia? | hypoxia occurs when the tissues in the body do not receive enough oxygen or when the body tissues are unable to use the available oxygen |
| what are some common symptoms of hypoxia? | headache, decreased reaction time, impaired judgement, euphoria, visual impairment, drowsiness, lightheaded or dizzy, numbness, blue fingernails/lips, limp muscles |
| what are the four types of hypoxia? | hypoxic (decreased avail oxy at sufficient pressure due to altitude), hypemic (unable to carry sufficient oxy to cells) , stagnant (inadequate circulation), histotoxic (inability of cells to use oxy) |
| how long should you wait after diving before flying? | 12-24 hours |
| what are the FAR91 supplemental oxygen requirements? | 10,000/5,000 MSL (day/night) rec's 12,500 crew must use after 30 min 14,000 crew must use for full flight 15,000 crew must use full flight, provided to each occupant |
| what are the three types of supplemental oxygen? | continuous flow (100% oxy), demand regulators (only during inhale), pressure demand (positive pressure to mask) |
| why should you only use aviator grade/type supplemental oxygen? | medical grade contains too much moisture which can collect in the valves and lines and freeze |
| what is hyperventilation? | rapid or deep breathing that can be caused by emotional tension, anxiety, or fear |
| what are some symptoms of hyperventilation? | muscle spasms, pale/clammy appearance, all others associated with hypoxia |
| how can you easily treat hyperventilation? | slow your breathing back to normal, breathe into a paper bag, talk aloud |
| what are the six basic steps for planning a cross country flight? | draft overview, develop route, obtain faa ex brief, complete nav log, complete & file flight plan, perform IMSAFE and preflight a/c check |
| what is the purpose of using checkpoints along your intended route? | keep track of your position, monitor your progress, and provide reference for ATC contact/flight following |
| what are the 5p's | pilot, passengers, plane, programming, and plan |
| how do 5p checklists work? | the 5p process can be applied to any number of stages from preflight to inflight, postflight, etc., all with the thoroughness to make informed and responsible/safe decisions |
| what is the ADM process? | aviation decision making helps to determine and implement the right course of action during flight ops...used for standard and emergency ops, performed via SRM |
| what is the first step in the ADM process? | Recognize a change (ie instrument reading, sound, feeling, etc.) |
| what is step two of the ADM process? | Define the problem (electrical failure, stuck flaps, etc.) |
| what is the third step of the ADM process? | Choose a course of action (master switch off, commit to diverting, etc.) |
| what is step four of the ADM process? | implement your decision (shut down electronics, contact FSS to amend flight plan, and change course to diversion) |
| what is the final step of the ADM process? | monitor the outcome (evaluate how your decision is unfolding (according to plan or not...) |
| what are the five steps of the ADM process? | notice the change, identify the problem, choose a course of action, implement the decision, monitor the outcome |
| what is a self assessment, as performed by you, the PIC? | a way to set personal minimums and safe checklists to maintain the safest possible operating environment, that is inline with your level of experience at that time |
| what are some basic questions to ask yourself when performing a self-critique / debrief? | what maneuvers/actions did I perform well, what mistakes did I make, could I have made better decisions, do I have any questions about the flight, what should I do to work on weak ares? |
| how should you coordinate with crew members on a flight with more than one qualified pilot? | designate pilot and copilot responsibilities for tasks like ATC and flying the aircraft, and use positive exchange of flight controls |
| what are some ways to greatly reduce communication errors? | verify instructions with ATC, readback clearances, silence is not an automatic verification, be aware of similar call signs, acknowledge with your call sign |
| what are two ways to optimize cockpit/cabin communication? | use a "sterile" cockpit (limiting conversation during taxi, takeoff, and landing - and perform passenger briefings with safety info, procedures, roles, and questions |
| how would you setup for an S-turn? | find a road or straight and long reference point that is perpendicular to the wind direction, and enter "downwind" with a tail wind crossing the reference point initially at wings level - quickly rolling into the first turn |
| how can you check if you're slow enough on the runway to turn off onto the taxiway? | your IAS (indicated airspeed) should essentially read zero |
| what is the basic sequence for landing once abeam the numbers (high key at 1000' pattern alt.)? | abeam = first flaps, hold nose to slow to 80 turn base ~825' = 2nd flaps 70-75 kts turn final ~425' = 3rd flaps 65-60 kts |
| what is the IMSAFE checklist? (pilot safety) | Illness, medications, stress, alcohol, fatigue, eating/emotion |
| what are three different types of clearing turns? | 2x 90 deg turns, 1x 180 deg turn, or 1x 360 deg turn |
| what is the basic sequence for power off stall recover? | full power, positive climb and 1st flaps, 2nd flaps at 65, 3rd flaps at 75 |
| what is the PTS standard for a steep turn? | clearing turn, pick ref point on horizon, enter turn at maneuver speed of 90kts, roll to 45 deg bank (outside vis ref), pitch to prevent alt. variation, at power/backpress as needed, rollout to level at 30 deg prior to ref point |
| describe the Cessna 172SP engine? | it is a Lycoming-10-360-L2A, 180hp, 4cyl., air cooled, dual mags, normally aspirated (front air filter), direct drive (engine speed = prop speed (no gearbox), fuel injected, horizontally opposed cylinders |
| what are the AROW documents? | airworthiness (expires only in maint. isn't completed), registration (state annual - fed 36mos), Radio Cert. (int'l only), Operating Handbook/Limitations (placards ok in place of OH), weight and balance info |
| what documents are required by "me", the student pilot? | 3rd class medical, student pilot cert., photo ID, logbook w/ endorsements, |
| what is AAV1ATES? (think airworthiness) | a/c maint. ad's, annual 12 calend., VOR (every 30 days for IFR), 100 hour (if for hire), altimeter (24 cal. mos, IFR only), Transponder (24 cal mos), ELT (12 mos, 1hour usage, half batt life), Static system (24 cal mos) |
| describe class A airspace? | from FL18000 - FL60000, IFR only, |
| describe class B airspace? | solid blue line, 2-way radios, atc clearance to enter, mode C transp. w/ squawk, often 4 tier layers, usually 10k' top |
| describe class C airspace? | 2-way radios, no clearance req'd????, mode C transp, w/ squawk from atc, usually upto 4000' |
| describe class D airspace? | 2-way radios, no mode C (unless inside 30mi veil), always starts at surface, dashed blue perimeter |
| describe class E airspace? | "safe version of gold", non-towered ctrl, but optional center control, starts @ sfc (magenta dashed), 700' gradient magent., 1200'outside magenta, 14500' inside blue, 1200' outside blue, unique as ind. blue zipper line |
| are airspaces measured MSL or AGL? | MSL!!! |
| what does a purple hashed area on a chart indicate? | MOA (military operations area) - see chart for details and contact info/ hours of operation |
| what does a blue hashed area on a chart indicate? | a restricted area - sometimes active, sometime inactive (check prior to entry) |
| what does a P-blue hashed area on a chart indicate? | a prohibited area - ALWAYS prohibited - don't enter under any circumstances |
| state ATOMATOFLAMES | Altimeter, Tachometer, Oil Temp, Manifold Press, Airspeed, Temp (watercooled engine), Oil Press, Fuel guage, landing gear ind. (if app),anti-collision lights, mag compass, ELT, safety belts |
| what is the difference between FAR part 61 and part 91? | part 61 provides information pertaining to getting your license, whereas, part 91 provides info pertaining to "keeping it" |
| state the basic setup for reference turns (ie: turns around a point) | (try to maintain constant radius / adj. for wind if nec.) 600-1000' AGL, 2300rpm, 90-100kts, hold altitude, bug heading, enter the turn on the downwind, reference the target in relation to the wingtip/strut |
| what is the key distinction between things said by ATC? | items that are instructional vs. informational (instructions must be obeyed and usually read-back, information is either silently applied, or acknowledged if sensible) |
| how does one specify a departure with the intention of staying in the traffic pattern? | "Cessna 639SP, taking off runway 16 for left/right closed traffic" |
| how to you articulate the process/intention behind rounding out the aircraft above the runway? | rounding out and flaring are all done to help de-energize the aircraft, and help it lose lift, to gently sink onto the runway surface |
| what is the acronym for FLAPS? (VFR req's for night) | fuses (extra of each type), landing light (if for hire), anti-collision lights, position lights, source of power (engine - aka...no gliders) |
| if you are not current for night flight, what happens? | nothing (you just can't take passengers until you become current) 3 full stop landings at legal night in the past 90 days |
| what are the different definitions/applications of "night"? | navigational night begins at sunset, civil twilight is 1/2hour past sunset, loggable night time starts 1 hour past sunset |
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