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Pumping

Driver/Operator Pumping Apparatus, IFSTA 2nd edition Ch1-5

QuestionAnswer
According to data compiled by NIOSH, the number of firefighter fatalities occurring while responding to/from an emergency is second only to: Heart attacks
NFPA 1002, __________ sets the minimum qualifications for D/O. Standard for Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications
What skill is recommended but not required to be a D/O? Mechanical Skill
What activity is one that a D/O is NOT ordinarily expected to perform at a fire scene? Using a chainsaw for ventilation D/O may be expected to: Deploy portable water tank, connect to a hydrant with intake hose, and stretch a supply line to a hydrant by hand.
NFPA 1582 requires that firefighters have a corrected far visual acuity of _______ w/ contacts or spectacles. 20/40
In career FD, D/O are usually promoted from the rank of: Firefighter
What NFPA standard gives direction for establishing a D/O training program? NFPA 1451
In general, what vehicular statutes, laws and ordinances is the D/O subject? All statutes, laws and ordinances that govern any vehicular operator
In the US, what government authority establishes the basic requirements for the licensing of drivers? DOT (Department of Transportation)
Which Canadian authority establishes the requirements for licensing of drivers? Transport Canada
T or F: Fire apparatus D/O are responsible for safely transporting firefighters, equipments and apparatus to and from the scene of an emergency or other call of service. True
T or F: NFPA 1002 requires any D/O who will be responsible for operating a fire pump to also meet the requirements of NFPA 1001 for Firefighter II. False: NFPA 1002 requires any D/O who will be responsible for operating a fire pump to also meet the requirements of NFPA 1001 for Firefighter I.
T or F: NFPA 1582 recommends rejecting any firefighter candidate who has a hearing loss of 20 decibels or more at frequencies of 500-1000-2000 Hz in the unaided better ear. False: NFPA 1582 recommends rejecting any firefighter candidate who has a hearing loss of 40 decibels or more at frequencies of 500-1000-2000 Hz in the unaided better ear
T or F: Promotion to the D/O is frequently based upon a required minimum time of service with the department, written and performance tests, or a combination of service and tests. True
T or F: Ignorance of driving laws and regulations are a common defense if they are broken. False: Ignorance of driving laws and regulations is no defense if they are broken.
What is the main purpose of the FD pumper? Providing water at an adequate pressure for fire streams
NFPA standards specify that the minimum pump capacity for pumpers is: 750 gpm (3000 lpm)
Which of the following is NOT required on a FD pumper? Gauges Pump and engine controls First aid/medical equipment Intake and Discharge pump connections First aid/ medical equipment
Industrial, airport, municipal, and wildland fire dept commonly have pumpers capable of discharging fire fighting foam on what class fires? Class A and class B fires
Class B foam systems allow firefighters to handle: Flammable/combustible liquids fires
A ___________ is designed to handle small fires that do not require the capacity or personnel needed for a larger pumper. Minipumper
A _______ is well suited for nuisance fires such as small grass and trash bin fires and for service calls that do not require the capacity and personnel of a full size pumper. Midipumper
What is another name for a mobile water supply apparatus? Water Tender
Mobile water supply apparatus have water tanks that are _______ than those generally found on standard pumpers. Larger
________ is NOT a variable affecting the size of water tank needed. Road weight limits; Terrain, Monetary constraints, and size of other apparatus in the area are variables affecting the size of the water tank needed.
An apparatus must carry at least _______ gallons (L) to be considered mobile water supply apparatus. 1,000 gallons (4,000 L)
For tank capacities greater than _________ gallons (L), tandem rear axles, tri-axles, or a tractor trailer design should be considered. 1,500 gallons (6,000 L)
Wildland fire apparatus are: lightweight, highly maneuverable vehicles that can go places inaccessible to larger apparatus
A correct method of extinguishing fire from a wildland fire apparatus is: Using short sections of attack hose while walking alongside the apparatus and extinguishing fire along the way.
_________ is NOT a type of fire hose carried on most wildland fire apparatus. LDH (Large Diameter Hose)
Aircraft rescue and firefighting (ARFF) apparatus were formerly referred to as: crash, fire, rescue vehicles.
Most heavy duty fire boats are powered by: marine-type diesel engines
Apparatus equipped with an aerial device, ground ladders, fire pump, water tank, and fire hose are commonly referred to as: quints
NFPA 1901 requires that the minimum pump capacity for an aerial apparatus shall be ____ gpm (Lpm) at ____ psi (kPa) 250 gpm (946 lpm)/ 150 psi (1,035 kPa)
Generally rescue apparatus equipped with fire pumps have a pump rated capacity of ____ gpm(Lpm) or less 500 gpm(2,000 LPM)
Rescue apparatus equipped with fire pumps usually carry ______ gallons (L) of water or less. 500 gallons( 2,000L)
Rescue apparatus equipped with a fire pump do NOT: have the capabilities of a full-sized pumper
What is used on pumpers when the local jurisdiction determines that it is not necessary for the pumper to be able to generate large amounts of power? Inverters
In addition to providing power for portable equipment, _________ is/are responsible for providing power for the floodlighting system on the vehicle. Vehicle-mounted generators
What is the most common power source used for emergency services? Generators
A(n) _______ is a step-up transformer that converts the vehicles 12 or 24 volt DC current into 110 or 220 volt AC current. Inverter
A advantage of inverters is that they: are fuel efficient
A disadvantage of inverters is that they: have limited mobility from the vehicle
Most portable generators are designed to be carried by: 1-2 people
________ can be powered by gasoline, diesel, propane engines or by hydraulic or PTO systems. Vehicle-mounted generators
What 2 categories is lighting equipment divided into? portable and fixed
The most common size electrical cable used on emergency scenes is: 12 gauge, 3 wire type
What may be used when multiple connections are needed? Junction boxes
What is NOT a requirement of extension cords used on fire scenes? At least 150 ft long Requirements: Waterproof, adequately insulated, no exposed wires.
In situations where mutual aid dept frequently work together and have different sizes or types of connectors, _______ should be carried so that equipment can be interchanged. Adapters
______ is not one of the four basic hydraulic tools used by the rescue service. Combination compactor/ram 3 of 4 that are: Shears, spreaders, extension ram
______ is NOT a reason why hydraulic rescue tools have become the primary tools used in most extrication situations. Mobility reasons for include: speed, superior power, and wide range of uses
What is one way hydraulic extrication tools receive their power? Hydraulic fluid supplied through special hoses from a pump. Not ways they receive power are: compressed air, vehicle mounted inverters, vehicle mounted generators
T or F: Hydraulic tool pumps must be electrically grounded. False; They may be mounted on the vehicle, they may be portable and carried with the tool, and they may supply the tool through long coiled hoses or a hose reel line.
Most hydraulic pumps are not capable of operating the tool at full speed when the hose length between the pump and tool exceeds _____ feet (m). 100 feet (30 m)
T or F: The main differences between midi and mini pumper are: size, pump capacity, and the amount of equipment carried True
T or F: Mobile water supply apparatus (water tenders) are used as support vehicles for pumpers that are attacking the fire. True
T or F: NFPA 1500 permits firefighters to ride on the outside of wildland apparatus and discharge water as the vehicle is driven. False: NFPA 1500 PROHIBITS firefighters from riding on the outside of wildland apparatus and discharging water as the vehicle is driven
T or F: The Incident Command System (ICS), as defined by NIMS, categorizes pumping apparatus by capability. True
T or F: ARFF apparatus are NOT allowed to leave airport property to assist municipal firefighters. False: ARFF apparatus may respond off airport property to assist municipal firefighters.
T or F: Fire boats are used in waterfront cities to protect docks, wharves, piers, and boats. True
T or F: Ladder tenders are used on incidents that do not require full size ladder trucks True
T or F: All rescue apparatus are equipped with foam proportioning systems and a foam concentrate tank. False: Some rescue apparatus are equipped with foam proportioning systems and a foam concentrate tank
T or F: Portable lights are used where fixed lights are not able to reach or when additional lighting is necessary. True
T or F: The most commonly used tools in todays fire service are pneumatic extrication tools. False: The most commonly used tools in todays fire service are powered hydraulic extrication tools.
Reasons for equipping aerial apparatus with pumps? Can be operated as a ladder or engine company or both providing the FD with more flexibility. It will be capable of supplying its own master stream. May put out small fires when an engine company is not present. can protect itself from radiant heat
Some FD have a designated apparatus maintenance officer who meets the requirements of an Emergency Vehicle Technician according to: NFPA 1071
Typically, career dept require D/O to perform apparatus inspections and maintenance checks: at the beginning of each tour of duty
What is NOT a function of apparatus maintenance and inspection records: They may be used to determine whether to hire new staff. Some fx of maintenance and inspection records are: decision on whether to buy new apparatus, accident investigators in the event of a accident, warranty claim proving req maint was performed
Overcleaning an apparatus can lead to: removal of lubrication from chassis
During the first 6 months after an apparatus is received, the vehicle should be washed frequently with _____ to harden the paint and keep it from spotting. cold water
Dust or grit should NEVER be removed from an apparatus by: dry rubbing
Wash a fire apparatus with: a good automotive shampoo
Do NOT wash a fire apparatus with: extremely hot water
Dry the fire apparatus: with a clean chamois
_______ should NOT be used to clean glass. dry towels by themselves
If apparatus requires waxes or polishes, they generally should not be applied until the apparatus is at least: six months old
One particular method of performing an apparatus/pretrip inspection is referred to as the: walk-around method
The walk around method involves starting at the: driver's door
Begin an apparatus inspection by approaching the vehicle, looking beneath the vehicle for spots that indicate: leaking vehicle fluids
What is another term for the left side of an apparatus? street side/ Driver's side
When performing an inspection, tires should be checked for: tire condition, proper tire inflation, valve stem condition lug nut condition is NOT to be checked
When inspecting cord reels, they should be: unreeled completely and inspected as the cord is wiped down with a damp cloth.
The left and right rear side inspections should include: everything from the rear of the cab to the tailboard on each side of the apparatus.
When performing a left and right rear side inspection, make sure that the dual tires: do not come into contact with eachother
When inspecting the rear of the vehicle, what is NOT required? Removing any equipment stored outside the vehicle.
When inspecting the rear of the vehicle, what IS required? Checking the rear bumper/tailboard for damage. checking any equipment contained in the rear compartment. making sure all warning and signal lights are working on the rear of the apparatus.
When performing an in-cab inspection, what should be done FIRST? Make sure that the seat and mirrors are adjusted in a suitable manor
If the speedometer is showing anything above 0 with the truck parked, what possibility exists? the gauge is defective
Define: Clutch free play The distance the pedal must be pushed before the throw out bearing actually contacts the clutch release fingers
What are some symptoms resulting from insufficient free play? Clutch slippage, clutch overheating, shortened life of clutch
What symptom is NOT a result of insufficient free play? Clutch not releasing
Any clutch that does not have the appropriate amount of free play should be checked ASAP by: a certified mechanic
In general, steering wheel play should be no more than about _____ degrees in either direction. 10
New apparatus should be able to come to a complete stop from a speed of ___ mph (km/h) in a distance not to exceed ____ feet (m). 20 mph (32 km/h); 35 feet (10.7 m)
The apparatus parking brake should hold the vehicle in place on grades up to ____ percent. 20
On apparatus equipped with air brakes, the air pressure should build to a sufficient level to allow vehicle operations within ____ seconds of starting. 60
Apparatus with air brakes are to be equipped with an air pressure protection valve that prevents the air horns from being operated when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below ____ psi (kPa). 80 psi (552 kPa)
When testing the parking brake, the apparatus should come to a complete stop within about: 25 feet (7.5 m)
Corrosion around battery terminal connections may be cleaned with: soap and water
Factors that should be considered when choosing an appropriate chassis lubricant: Characteristics of the lubricant, manufacturers recommendations, and requirements of the unit to be lubricated.
What is NOT a factor to be considered when choosing a chassis lubricant? Length of time between applications
Operate the _______ during a daily inspection. pump drive control
You should check the packing glands for excessive leaks during the: weekly inspection
T or F: Preventative maintenance ensures apparatus reliability, reduces the frequency and cost of repairs, and lessens OOS time. True
T or F: All preventative maintenance functions can be carried out by D/O. False: Some preventative maintenance functions may be carried out by the D/O, while others may be carried out by apparatus mechanics
T or F: The schedule for performing maintenance functions and checks should be the same for all depts, big or small False: The schedule for performing maintenance functions and checks vary from department to department
T or F: Keeping a fire apparatus clean helps promote a longer vehicle life. True
T or F: Do NOT use acetone to clean the interior surfaces of fire apparatus. True
T or F: On many newer apparatus, the application of wax or similar polishes is no longer necessary. True
T or F: In the walk around method, the first portion of the vehicle specifically checked should be the right (officers/ curb) side of the front of the vehicle. False: The first portion of the vehicle specifically checked should be the left (driver's/street) side of the front of the vehicle.
T or F: During an inspection check each lug nut by hand to feel if any are loose. True
T or F: Test the operation of audible warning devices inside of a building. False: Do NOT test the operation of audible warning devices inside of the building.
T or F: The front inspection should include the condition of the windshield and wiper blades. True
T or F: During a front inspection, air hose reels should be unreeled and inspected for cuts or other damage. True
T or F: Hose loads should be checked when performing the front inspection. False: Hose loads should be checked when performing the REAR inspection
T or F: To test the road brakes, allow the the apparatus to move forward at about 5 mph (10 km/h) True
T or F: All belts in the engine compartment should be checked for tightness and excessive wear. True
T or F: When charging an apparatus battery, the red (+) charger cable should be connected to the black (-)battery post. False: Red (+) to red (+), black (-) to black (-)
Define: Maintenance Keeping apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness
Define: Repair To restore or replace that which has become inoperable
Define: Load Sequencer Turns various lights on at specified intervals so that the start up electrical load for all of the devices does not occur at the same time.
Define: Load Monitor "Watches" the system for added electrical loads that threaten to overload the system.
Define: Load Shedding Shuts down less important electrical equipment to prevent an overload
Statistics compiled by the NFPA historically show that ______ of all firefighter injuries and deaths in the US are caused by vehicle collisions while responding/returning to/from emergency calls. 20-25 percent
Improper backing: seldom causes serious injuries or deaths but accounts for a significant portion of overall damage costs.
Excessive speed by the D/O can result in: Inability of the D/O to stop in time to avoid a collision with another vehicle.
NOT a factor that contributes to collisions that involve D/O error as the cause Insecurity in ones driving ability
Factors that contribute to collisions that involve D/O error as the cause: Misunderstanding of the apparatus' capabilities, inability to recognize a dangerous situation, lack of knowledge about how to operate the controls of an apparatus in an emergency.
T or F: If a D/O does not obey driving regulations and is involved in a collision, both the D/O and the FD may be held responsible. True
T or F: Driving regulations pertain to dry, clear roads during nighttime conditions. False: Driving regulations pertain to dry, clear roads during daylight conditions.
What is the first step in starting a vehicle? Disconnect all ground shore lines
When starting a vehicle, if the engine oil psi gauge does not indicate any reasonable amount of oil psi within _____ of starting the apparatus, stop the engine immediately. 5-10 seconds
When driving a manual transmission apparatus, depress the _____ with your left foot, depress the service brake pedal with your right foot, and release the parking brake. clutch pedal
When driving a manual transmission apparatus, keep the apparatus in low gear until the ____ is reached for shifting into a higher gear. proper speed
When climbing a hill in a manual transmission apparatus, shift the transmission to: a lower gear
Once an automatic transmission apparatus is ready to move, depress the _____ and move it inot the appropriate gear selection. interlock on the shifter
On automatic transmission apparatus, be aware that the _____ influences automatic shifting. pressure placed on the accelerator
When cruising in an apparatus, do not try and reach the rated speed in the: low gears
When driving an apparatus, stay in the highest gear that allows the apparatus to ____ and still have some power in reserve for acceleration. keep up with traffic
What should be avoided in order to reduce lugging? Over throttling
Avoid overspeeding as a result of improper downshifting or hill descent. Choose a gear that allows the engine to operate at _____ lower than maximum recommended RPM. 200-300 RPM
______ is NOT a consideration when stopping an apparatus. length of apparatus; Considerations are as follows: Weight, condition of brakes and conditions or road surfaces.
_______ provide most of the necessary slowing action when stopping the apparatus. engine brakes
When the engine must be left to idle for an extended period of time, at what should the idle be set? 900-1100 RPM
If diesel engines are to be left idling, they should be set at: high idle
Except when in an atmosphere containing flammable gases or vapors, never shut down immediately after full-load operations; instead allow the engine temperature to stabilize by idling it ____ minutes before shutdown 3-5 minutes
The first element in learning to drive safely is to: develop a safety conscious attitude
What are the only exceptions to the NFPA 1500 seated and belted requirements? When loading hose back onto the apparatus, when delivering pt care in the back of an ambulance, when performing training for personnel learning to drive a tiller.
When loading LDH: the area in which the hose loading is performed must be closed to other vehicular traffic.
T or F: Whenever possible the D/O should avoid backing the apparatus. True
Some SOP's require the D/O to ____ before backing a vehicle that is not eqipped with an alarm system to warn others that the apparatus is backing. sound the horn twice
What should be done when approaching a visually obstructed intersection? Bring the apparatus to a complete stop before proceeding slowly.
If departmental SOP's allow, what should be done at a red signal light? Come to a complete stop and assure that all lanes of traffic are yielding to the apparatus before proceeding.
Define: Visual Lead Time The scanning by D/O's far enough ahead of the apparatus to ensure that evasive action can be taken if necessary
Define: Reaction Distance The distance a vehicle travels while a driver is transferring the foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal after perceiving the need for stopping
Whenever a vehicle undergoes a change in speed or direction, weight transfer takes place relative to: the rate and degree of change
_____ braking systems incorporate "dry road/slippery road" switches Front brake-limiting valve type
What braking system has a snow-and-mud switch? Antilock braking system with automatic traction control
Whenever possible, avoid passing vehicles that do not: pull over or yield right of way to the fire apparatus
Avoid passing vehicles on the: right
When driving in adverse weather, decrease speed gradually, slow down when approaching curves, keep off low or soft shoulders, and avoid: sudden turns
When driving in adverse weather, recognize the areas that become slippery first, such as bridges, ____ slopes of hills, shaded spots, and areas where snow is blowing across the roadway. Northern
When driving in adverse weather, _____ the brakes while in an area free of traffic to find out how slippery the road is and to determine your approximate stopping distance. Test
Remember that it takes ____ times more distance for a vehicle to come to a complete stop on snow and ice than it does on dry concrete. 3-15
When more than one emergency vehicles is responding along the same route, travel at least _____ feet apart. 300-500 (90m-150m)
Turn off some of the apparatus' warning lights once it is parked so as not to: Overpower the effectiveness of the reflective trim on the firefighter's clothing
What traffic control device stops the flow of traffic so that the apparatus can exit safely? Traffic signal in front of the fire station
What traffic control device provides green lights for the direction the apparatus is traveling and red signals in all other directions? Light-activated system
Written tests for D/O may include questions pertaining to? Hydraulic calculations
What is NOT a type of driving exercise required by NFPA 1002? Parallel parking
What are 3 types of driving exercises that are required by NFPA 1002? 1. Alley Dock 2. Serpentine course 3. Diminishing clearance
What driving exercise simulates maneuvering around parked and stopped vehicles in tight corners? Serpentine
What driving exercise measures a D/O's ability to steer the apparatus in a straight line, to judge distances from wheel to object, and to stop at a finish line? Diminishing clearance
T or F: Data show that fire apparatus collisions at intersections are the most frequent and most severe True
T or F: It may take longer to stop an apparatus equipped with hydraulic brakes than an apparatus equipped with air brakes. False: It may take longer to stop an apparatus equipped with air brakes than one with hydraulic brakes
T or F: Homebuilt water tenders have had a high incidence of serious collisions True
T or F: A fire apparatus should not be moved until all occupants are within the cab, in a seated position, and wearing seat belts. True
T or F: On an apparatus equipped with a manual shift transmission, the D/O should start the engine with the drive transmission in Park (P) False: On an apparatus equipped with a manual transmission the D/O should start the engine with the drive transmission in Neutral (N)
T or F: Excessive or abrupt brake application can cause a skid, injury to firefighters, and mechanical failure. True
T or F: D/O may demand the right of way, because legally they have it. D/O cannot demand right of way even though they may legally have it
T or F: At least one member, other than the D/O and the ones actually loading the hose, must be assigned as a safety observer when loading LDH. True
T or F: NFPA 1500 permits riding on the outside of a moving fire apparatus only if it is part of departmental SOP's False: NFPA 1500 prohibits riding on the outside of a moving fire apparatus for any reason except for LDH when the truck is driven no more than 5 mph and firefighters must sit or kneel in hose bed
T or F: A significant portion of fire apparatus collisions occur while the apparatus is in reverse True
T or F: When backing a fire apparatus, at least one firefighter- and preferably two- should be behind the apparatus to act as spotters True
T or F: Before driving into oncoming traffic, the D/O must be certain that oncoming traffic is able to see the approaching apparatus. True
Some departments train their D/O to practice looking 12 seconds ahead when driving on _____ streets and 20 seconds ahead when driving on _____. city streets; highways
T or F: In vehicles equipped with air brakes, there is an approximate delay of 0.4 seconds in the time from which the D/O pushes down on the brake pedal until sufficient air psi is sent to the brakes to operate. True
T or F: Always travel on the outermost lane on multilane roads False: Always travel on the innermost lane on multilane roads
T or F:Studies have shown that numerous visual warning devices are more effective once the apparatus is stopped on scene during night time operations. False: Studies have shown that numerous visual warning devices actually pose a hazard for firefighters during nighttime
T or F: Traffic control devices are not substitutes for using proper defensive driving techniques. True
T or F: The confined space turn around exercise tests the D/O's ability to turn the vehicle 180 degrees within a confined space. True
T or F: D/O should not exceed 10 mph when leavin the station True
T or F:D/O should remember that icy, wet, downgrades, or snow packed roads increase braking distance by as much as 10 times False: D/O should remember that it increases it by 15 times
When positioning for a fire attack, if the apparatus arrives at a location where no fire conditions are evident, where should the apparatus be positioned? Near the main entrance to the occupancy.
When positioning for a fire attack, with no fire conditions evident, what are the responsibilities of the D/O? Remain with the vehicle, prepare to pull attack lines if the need arises, prepare to make connections to the water supply and/or standpipe if needed.
What is the first tactical priority at any fire incident? life safety
When positioning an apparatus: Always leave yourself a way out, Position the apparatus uphill and upwind whenever possible.
What is the size of the collapse zone? One and one half the height of the building
What are 3 indicators of imminent building collapse? Bulging walls, large cracks in the exterior, falling bricks/blocks/mortar
When positioning pumpers to support aerials, who should have the optimum operating position? Aerial apparatus
Many departments use the "______" method to position pumpers when supporting aerial apparatus. inside/outside
If the building is less than 5 stories tall, ______ should position on the side of the street closest to the building. engine companies
If the building is five stories or higher, the _____ should position next to the building. Aerial apparatus
Pumpers providing water for elevated fire stream operations should position as close as possible to the: Aerial apparatus
When positioning to support the FDC's, pumpers will generally position as close as possible to the: Sprinkler or standpipe FDC
When are drafting operations required? When a pumper is going to be supplied from a static water supply
Drafting sites accessible from paved surfaces: should be given preference.
What is the first step in positioning for drafting operations? Connect the hard intake hose and strainer to the pumper
What type of jurisdiction usually installs dry hydrants at drafting sites? Rural
What is the only type of hard intake hose that should be connected to a fire hydrant? Hard intake hose that has been designed to withstand positive pressure
What is the preferred type of hose for connection to a fire hydrant? Large Diameter Intake Hose
When should connection to the 2 1/2-inch (65mm) hydrant outlets made? When the maximum flow from a hydrant is not needed.
A disadvantage to connecting to a 2 and half inch outlet is: It limits the amount of water that can be supplied
With dual pumping, _____ strong hydrant(s) may be used to supply 2 pumpers. One
What is the difference between dual pumping and tandem pumping? In tandem pumping, the pumpers are positioned closely together
After life safety, what is the highest priority for most wildland firefighting operations? structural protection
The boundary between the wildland and structural development is often refferred to as: wildland/urban interface
Most structures threatened by wildland fires are surrounded by: dry, flammable vegetation
When positioning wildland firefighting apparatus, what should be done to avoid positioning in flammable vegetation? scrape away the fuel
What is not a hazard when positioning for structural protection at a wildland/urban interface fire? Underground fuel tanks
To reduce the risk to engine crews as much as possible at a wildland fire, their attack must always begin from a(n): anchor point
What should the D/O do during a wildland fire attack when operating the apparatus under conditions of reduced visibility? drive at a reduced speed
What should the wildland fire apparatus D/O do to help locate and avoid obstacles such as logs, stumps or rocks? Assign a spotter to walk ahead of the vehicle
How should wildland fre apparatus be facing when positioned? facing the exit direction
When making a wildland fire attack, _______ is an acceptable practice. Driving on dirt and gravel roads
How does the wildland crew ensure complete extinguishment when progressing along the fires edge? By working engines in tandem or working a single engine with a hand crew
When driving wildland apparatus, if the fire is spreading rapidly _____, draw engine and crews back to the flanks rather than attempt a frontal attack. upslope
When attacking a wildland fire from ____, leave sufficient clearance distances from the fire line to allow for loss of water or mechanical failure. the unburned side
Do not drive a wildland apparatus into ____ where crews may be operating. smoke
What is a function of the rescue/squad apparatus? provide extra manpower on the fire scene
At fires, positioning of rescue apparatus is _____ as that of pumping and aerial apparatus. not as critical
The location of the incident command post should be: fairly conspicuous
Command vehicles should be placed in a position that is ____ other responders operating on the scene. easy to locate for
Command vehicles should display some type of _____ that readily identifies the vehicle as the command post. light or sign
Cascade systems: large breathing air cylinders that are connected together in banks
Breathing air compressors: engine-driven appliance that takes in atmospheric air, purifies it, and compresses it.
Mobile air supply apparatus should be positioned: Close enough to the scene so that firefighters do not have to carry SCBA cylinders an extraordinary distance.
T or F: D/O need to know the SOP's for their dept so that the apparatus is located appropriately. True
Where should the EMS vehicle position on incidents where there are victims requiring intervention? In the vicinity of the triage and tx area
Where should the EMS vehicle position when there are no immediate EMS situations? Where firefighter rehab is being conducted
Level I staging is: used for the initial response to a fire or other incident involving more than one responding company
Level II staging is: used when a large number of emergency vehicles are responding to the same incident
Companies in staging must be ready to respond within _____ of being called. 3 minutes
On limited access highways and turnpikes, apparatus should not be driven against the normal flow of traffic unless: the road has been closed by police units
When responding to highway operations: The use of warning lights and sirens may create traffic conditions that actually slow the fire units response
When working on highway operations, the apparatus should be positioned on an angle so that the operator is protected from traffic by the: tailboard of the apparatus
The first arriving apparatus to a hazmat incident should never be driven directly into the scene without: the material involved being identified first
What Hazmat control zone is also known as the support zone? Cold Zone
Which Hazmat control zone is an area abutting the hot zone and extending to the cold zone? Warm zone
Which Hazmat control zone is exposed to the gases, vapors, mists, dust, runoff of the material? Hot zone
T or F: Always treat a railroad track as a potentially active line? True
When positioning a fire apparatus at an EMS incident: Shut off all emergency lights, position the fire apparatus off the street, ensure that the surface is stable enough to support the weight of the fire apparatus
T or F: Parking at the corners of the building is considered the optimum position should a collapse occur. True
T or F: When positioning the apparatus, aerial apparatus must often be positioned closer to the building because they are fixed length. True
T or F: Turning the wheels at a 45 degree angle makes it easier to reposition an apparatus when positioning for hydrant operations. True
T or F: Twists should not be put into hose if either or both ends are equipped with sexless couplings. True
T or F: When making front and rear intake connections, the D/O must stop the apparatus a few feet (meters) short of the hydrant. True
T or F: The Incident Command post should be located to provide a clear view of 2 sides of the incident True
T or F: Incidents that require mutual aid require level I staging. False: It requires level II
T or F: Fire apparatus should never park over manholes when on Hazmat scenes True
T or F: The cold zone encompasses the warm zone and is used to carry out all other support functions of a hazmat incident. True
Created by: awray
 

 



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If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

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