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Immunology FinalExam
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Naive lymphocytes homing to lymphoid tissue use _____ to bind to CD34 and GlyCAM-1 on high endothelial venules. | L-selectin |
| The co-stimulatory molecule _____ on professional antigen-presenting cells binds _____ on the surface of naive T cells. | B7; CD28 |
| Activated T cells express _____, which binds to B7 with twentyfold higher affinity for B7 than CD28 and results in _____ of T cell activity and proliferation. | CTLA4; suppression |
| The area of contact between membranes of a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell where a clustering of protein–protein interactions occur is called a(n) | immunological synapse |
| Inositol triphosphate | is a second messenger in the T-cell signaling pathway leading to the activation of NFAT. |
| ZAP-70 | is a protein tyrosine kinase involved in T-cell activation culminating in T-cell proliferation and differentiation |
| Binding of _____ to _____ induces T-cell proliferation and differentiation of activated T cells. | IL-2; the high-affinity IL-2 receptor |
| Expression of IFN-<gamma> is induced in a CD4 TH1 cell under the direction of the transcription factor ______. | T-bet |
| Cytokine receptors are associated with cytoplasmic protein kinases called _____, which become activated when the cytokine receptors bind to their respective cytokines. | JAKs |
| Which Interleukin are produced by Th2? | interleukin-4, interleukin-5, interleukin-6, interleukin-10, interleukin-13 |
| The B-cell co-receptor is composed of | CR2 (CD21); CD19; CD81 |
| Lipopolysaccharide is an example of a _____ antigen that is recognized by TLR4 when bound to _____. | thymus-independent (TI)-1; LPS-binding protein |
| A primary focus forms after a circulating naive B cell forms a conjugate pair with _____ in the _____ of a lymph node. | TH2 cell; T-cell zone |
| Lymphoblasts upregulate a transcription factor called _____ when they terminally differentiate into plasma cells. | B-lymphocyte induced maturation protein 1 (BLIMP-1) |
| In secondary lymphoid tissues, what routes do B cells take during their activation, proliferation and differentiation? | HEV to T-cell zone to medullary cords to dark zone of germinal center to light zone of germinal center |
| Denatured toxin molecules called _____ are used to vaccinate individuals to stimulate the production of _____. | toxoids; neutralizing IgG antibodies |
| IgM is particularly efficient at fixing complement because _____. | it has five binding sites for C1q. |
| Complexes of IgG bound to soluble multivalent antigens can activate the classical pathway of complement, resulting in the deposition of _____ on the complex, targeting it for endocytic uptake by cells bearing _____. | C3b; CR1 and Fc receptors |
| Which antibodie exhibits monovalence as a result of the exchange of IgG half-molecules (one H plus one L chain) forming bispecific antibody molecules? | IgG4 |
| Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) is carried out by _____ after cross-linking of IgG1 or IgG3 antibodies on _____ receptors. | NK cells; Fc<gamma>RIII |
| _____ is the vascular addressin found on endothelial cells of intestinal mucosa that binds to integrins of gut-homing effector lymphocytes. | MAdCAM-1 |
| What would be the outcome if a naive B cell were to simultaneously bind to pathogen coated with specific antibody made by an effector B cell in a primary immune response using Fc<gamma>RIIB1, and bind to the same pathogen using its B-cell receptor? | a negative signal leading to inhibition of the production of low-affinity IgM antibodies |
| _____ is a molecule expressed on NK cells and V<gamma>:V<delta>1 T cells. | NKG2D |
| Individuals with an immunodeficiency affecting B-cell function are more susceptible to infections caused by what pathogens? | Haemophilus influenzae |
| Women who are heterozygous for a defective Bruton’s tyrosine kinase (Btk) gene...? | have non-random X inactivation in their B cells. |
| A genetic defect in _____ results in the accumulation of toxic levels of nucleotide metabolites and loss of T-cell function. | adenosine deaminase (ADA) |
| _____ vaccines are the most effective at evoking memory responses against a virus in an immunized host. | live-attenuated |
| A major attraction of immune stimulating complexes (ISCOMs) as an adjuvant is that they _____. | deliver antigen to the cytosol for presentation by MHC class I |
| The indirect protection of unvaccinated individuals as a consequence of sufficient prevalence of vaccination in the population in which they reside is known as _____. | herd immunity |
| A conjugate vaccine is one that couples _____ to _____ so as to stimulate T-dependent antibody responses. | polysaccharide; a protein carrier |
| An example of type III hypersensitivity is _____. | serum sickness |
| An allergic reaction to poison ivy is associated with _____. | cytotoxic T-cell activation |
| The wheal and flare inflammatory reaction is an example of | an immediate type I allergic response |
| During the course of a successful desensitization process, the patient’s antibodies will change from an _____isotype to an _____ isotype. | IgE: IgG4 |
| What type of hypersensitivity reaction would result from a mismatched blood transfusion? | type II |
| Another name for anti-immunoglobulin autoantibodies is _____. | rheumatoid factor |
| Regulatory T cells function by _____. | suppressing proliferation of naive self-reactive T cells |
| _____ is the term used to describe how pathogen antigens resemble host antigens and can sometimes trigger autoimmune disease. | molecular mimicry |
| The upregulation of _____ by IFN-<gamma> can contribute to antigen-specific T-cell activation on thyroid epithelium. | HLA class II |
| A(n) _____ is an epitope that is typically not accessible to the immune system but is revealed under inflammatory or infectious states. | cryptic epitope |
| Alloantibodies to blood-vessel endothelium on solid organ grafts _____. | cause hyperacute rejection |
| Acute rejection of a kidney graft involves the activation of recipient T cells by _____ of _____ origin. | dendritic cells; donor |
| The extent to which an individual’s T cells respond to allogeneic HLA expressed on irradiated donor cells can be measured in vitro using _____. | the mixed lymphocyte reaction |
| The risk of _____ is the primary complication in bone marrow transplants. | acute graft-versus-host disease |
| Leukapheresis is used in hematopoietic stem-cell transplantation where stem cells from a suitable donor are fractionated on the basis of their expression of _____. | CD34 |
| The efficacy of treating bladder cancer is increased by introducing the BCG vaccine. The vaccine component attributing this antitumor effect is _____, which induces a state of chronic inflammation. | unmethylated CpG-containing DNA |
| Proteins not expressed on normal cells but found on tumor cells are called _____. | tumor-specific antigens |
| A tumor-associated antigen normally expressed only in the testes is called a _____ antigen. | CT |
| A mechanism by which cancer cells can evade an immune response involves an alteration in the amount of MIC on the cell surface by | cleavage of MIC at the cell surface by a protease |
| One of the side effects of treating tumor patients with anti-CTLA4 monoclonal antibodies is _____. | the development of autoimmune disease |
| CD2 | is a T-cell-specific adhesion molecule expressed before the expression of a functional T-cell receptor while the thymocytes are still in their double-negative stage of development. |
| CD34 | cell-surface glycoprotein is characteristic of stem cells, but stops being expressed when a cell has committed to the T-cell developmental pathway |
| the first stage of T-cell receptor gene rearrangement in <alpha>:<beta> T cells? | D<beta> to J<beta> |
| the first T-cell receptor complex containing the <beta> chain to reach the cell surface during the development of T lymphocytes? | pT<alpha>:<beta>:CD3 |
| The function of negative selection of thymocytes in the thymus is to eliminate | Autoreactive thymocytes |
| _______ of thymocytes is necessary to produce a T-cell repertoire capable of interacting with self-MHC molecules. | Positive selection |
| Autoimmune polyendocrinopathy–candidiasis–ectodermal dystrophy (APECED) is caused by a defect in | a transcription factor called AIRE that regulates tissue-specific gene expression in the thymus |
| A feature of T-cell development that may contribute to tumor development is | DNA rearrangement |
| The human thymus begins to degenerate as early as one year after birth. This process is called ______ and is marked by the accumulation of ___ once occupied by thymocytes. | involution; fat |
Created by:
Lord Azith