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Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________.
A) sympathetic nervous system
B) cerebrum
C) parasympathetic nervous system
D) somatic nervous system
A) sympathetic nervous system
B) cerebrum
C) parasympathetic nervous system
D) somatic nervous system
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The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following except ________.
A) their effectors
B) their efferent pathways
C) to some degree in target responses to their neurotransmitters
D) all of the neurotransmitters
A) their effectors
B) their efferent pathways
C) to some degree in target responses to their neurotransmitters
D) all of the neurotransmitters
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A&P1 Final Exam Mod
| Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________. A) sympathetic nervous system B) cerebrum C) parasympathetic nervous system D) somatic nervous system | A) sympathetic nervous system |
| The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following except ________. A) their effectors B) their efferent pathways C) to some degree in target responses to their neurotransmitters D) all of the neurotransmitters | D) all of the neurotransmitters |
| A drug that might be used specifically to reduce heart rate in cardiac patients could be ________. A) anticholinesterase B) epinephrine C) norepinephrine D) a beta-blocker | D) a beta-blocker |
| The parasympathetic ganglion that serves the eye is the ________. A) ciliary ganglion B) pterygopalatine ganglion C) submandibular ganglion D) otic ganglion | A) ciliary ganglion |
| Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except ________. A) constriction of most blood vessels B) dilation of the vessels serving the skeletal muscles C) increase of heart rate and force D) dilation of the blood vessels serv | D) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera |
| Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ________. A) V B) VII C) X D) XII | C) X |
| The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________. A) parasympathetic division B) sympathetic division C) somatic division D) peripheral nervous system | A) parasympathetic division |
| Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________. A) medulla B) cerebellum C) hypothalamus D) thalamus | C) hypothalamus |
| Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system? A) smooth muscle B) cardiac muscle C) skeletal muscle D) most glands | C) skeletal muscle |
| Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation? A) salivation B) dilation of the pupils C) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera D) elimination of urine | B) dilation of the pupils |
| Which of the following statements is not true? A) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral, parasympathetic is thoracolumbar. B) Sympathetic ganglia are within a few centimeters of the CNS, parasympathetic are close to visceral organs served. C) Sympathet | A) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral, parasympathetic is thoracolumbar. |
| Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________. A) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow B) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response C) preganglionic fibers are short D) preganglionic fibers | B) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response |
| Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra? A) second cervical B) third lumbar C) first coccyx D) first thoracic | D) first thoracic |
| Autonomic ganglia contain ________. A) an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons B) synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors C) the cell bodies of motor neurons D) both somatic affer | C) the cell bodies of motor neurons |
| The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision. A) optic B) oculomotor C) trochlear D) abducens | B) oculomotor |
| Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic chain without synapsing form structures called ________. A) white rami communicantes B) gray rami communicantes C) spinal nerves D) splanchnic nerves | D) splanchnic nerves |
| Which of the following is not a plexus of the vagus nerve? A) cardiac B) pulmonary C) celiac D) esophageal | C) celiac |
| Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________. A) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons B) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons D) visceral arcs | C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons |
| The parasympathetic tone ________. A) prevents unnecessary heart deceleration B) accelerates activity of the digestive tract C) determines normal activity of the urinary tract D) causes blood pressure to rise | C) determines normal activity of the urinary tract |
| Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all but which one of the following? A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion B) synapase with a ganglionic neuron in the same trunk ganglion C) asce | A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion |
| The white rami communicantes ________. A) are found only in the - cord segments B) are unmyelinated C) carry preganglionic axons to the sympathetic chain D) carry postganglionic fibers to the periphery | C) carry preganglionic axons to the sympathetic chain |
| Beta-blockers ________. A) increase a dangerously low heart rate B) decrease heart rate and blood pressure C) have widespread sympathetic effects D) are potent antidepressants | B) decrease heart rate and blood pressure |
| Erection of the penis or clitoris ________. A) is primarily under sympathetic control B) is primarily under parasympathetic control C) is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input D) depends very little on | B) is primarily under parasympathetic control |
| Which is a uniquely sympathetic function? A) regulation of pupil size B) regulation of cardiac rate C) regulation of respiratory rate D) regulation of body temperature | D) regulation of body temperature |
| Raynaud's disease ________. A) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities B) is induced by heat stress C) occurs primarily in association with injury to the spinal cord D) is frequently life threatening | A) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities |
| Autonomic dysreflexia ________. A) is also known as autonomic areflexia B) involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons C) usually precedes spinal shock D) results from overexcitatory input from the cortex | B) involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons |
| Which sympathetic fibers form the splanchnic nerve? A) those that synapse with parasympathetic fibers B) those that synapse in the same trunk ganglion they entered C) those that synapse with somatic fibers D) those that pass through the trunk gang | D) those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia |
| In aging, autonomic inefficiency is often due to ________. A) clogging of preganglionic axon terminals with filaments B) cerebral hemorrhage C) major loss of axons D) peripheral vascular changes | A) clogging of preganglionic axon terminals with filaments |
| Where would you not find an autonomic ganglion? A) in the head B) in the cervical region C) close to the visceral effectors they serve D) in the armpit | D) in the armpit |
| Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________. A) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure B) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure C) | C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure |
| The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________. A) lumbar splanchnic nerves B) cephalic plexus C) pelvic nerves D) tenth cranial nerve | D) tenth cranial nerve |
| The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is via the ________. A) sympathetic trunk B) phrenic nerve C) vagus nerve D) sacral nerve | C) vagus nerve |
| Parasympathetic functions include ________. A) a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction B) allowing the body to cope with an external threat C) lens accommodation for close vision D) mobilizing storage energy sources | C) lens accommodation for close vision |
| Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________. A) lateral horn of the spinal cord B) hypothalamus C) lateral geniculate of the thalamus D) inferior colliculus | B) hypothalamus |
| The possibility of some control over autonomic responses is demonstrated by ________. A) split brain studies B) stress-induced hypertension C) biofeedback D) nightmares | C) biofeedback |
| The vagus nerve does not innervate the ________. A) pancreas B) kidneys C) parotid gland D) gallbladder | C) parotid gland |
| The patellar "knee jerk" reflex is an example of a(n) ________. A) extensor thrust reflex B) stress reflex C) crossed-extensor reflex D) stretch reflex | D) stretch reflex |
| The ________ nerve is not a branch of the trigeminal nerve. A) ophthalmic B) maxillary C) cervical D) mandibular | C) cervical |
| Which of the following nerves does not arise from the brachial plexus? A) median B) phrenic C) radial D) ulnar | B) phrenic |
| Which of the following is not an example of an exteroceptor? A) touch B) pressure C) pain D) temperature E) baroreceptor | E) baroreceptor |
| Which of the following is not a main level of neural integration in the somatosensory system? A) receptor B) circuit C) segmental D) perceptual | C) segmental |
| The posterior side of the thigh, leg, and foot is served by the ________ nerve. A) obturator B) common fibular C) tibial D) femoral | C) tibial |
| Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order): A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords B) roots, divisions, cords, and trunks C) divisions, roots, trunks, and cords D) trunks, divisions, cords, and roots | A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords |
| The cranial nerve with a dual origin (brain and spinal cord) is the ________. A) hypoglossal B) accessory C) vagus D) glossopharyngeal | B) accessory |
| Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the occurrence of a sensation? A) The stimulus energy must match the specificity of the receptor. B) The stimulus energy must occur within the receptor's receptive field. C) The stimulus ene | C) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential. |
| A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________. A) femoral B) iliohypogastric C) sciatic D) ilioinguinal | A) femoral |
| Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________. A) lumbar plexus B) femoral plexus C) sacral plexus D) thoracic plexus | C) sacral plexus |
| The abducens nerve ________. A) supplies innervation to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye B) relays sensory information from taste buds on the tongue C) exits from the medulla D) if paralyzed, exhibits Bell's palsy | A) supplies innervation to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye |
| Inborn or intristic reflexes are ________. A) rapid, predictable, learned responses B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior C) autonomic only D) always mediated by the brain | B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior |
| Which of the following is not an aspect of sensory perception? A) magnitude estimation B) spatial discrimination C) feature attraction D) quality estimation E) pattern recognition | D) quality estimation |
| Striking the "funny bone" is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the ________. A) radial nerve B) sciatic nerve C) ulnar nerve D) median nerve | C) ulnar nerve |
| A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ________. A) Golgi tendon reflex B) flexor reflex C) crossed-extensor reflex D) plantar reflex | A) Golgi tendon reflex |
| Pressure, pain, and temperature receptors in the skin are ________. A) interoceptors B) exteroceptors C) proprioceptors D) mechanoreceptors | B) exteroceptors |
| Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by ________. A) interoceptors B) photoreceptors C) nociceptors D) proprioceptors | C) nociceptors |
| Which receptors adapt most slowly? A) smell receptors B) pressure receptors C) nociceptors D) touch receptors | C) nociceptors |
| The trochlear nerve conveys proprioceptor impulses from the ________ to the brain. A) medial rectus muscle B) lateral rectus muscle C) superior rectus muscle D) inferior rectus muscle | C) superior rectus muscle |
| Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________. A) afferent nerves B) efferent nerves C) motor nerves D) mixed nerves | A) afferent nerves |
| After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________. A) Wallerian cells B) Schwann cells C) dendrites D) Golgi organs | B) Schwann cells |
| Regeneration within the CNS ________. A) is more successful than with the PNS B) typically allows axonal sprouting of 20 mm C) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes D) is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial scars | C) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes |
| In a crossed-extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would ________. A) also flex B) extend C) abduct D) adduct | B) extend |
| Select the correct definition. A) Magnitude estimation is the simplest level of sensation. B) Perceptual detection is the ability to detect how much stimulus is applied to the body. C) Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face. D) Spati | C) Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face |
| All processing at the circuit level going up to the perceptual level must synapse in the ________. A) pons B) thalamus C) reticular formation D) medulla | B) thalamus |
| The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves? A) pudendal and posterior femoral cutaneous B) posterior femoral cutaneous and tibial C) pudendal and common fibular D) common fibular and tibial | D) common fibular and tibial |
| Irritation of a major nerve of this plexus may cause hiccups. A) cervical plexus B) lumbar plexus C) sacral plexus D) thoracic plexus | A) cervical plexus |
| Bell's palsy is ________. A) characterized by partial paralysis of diaphragm muscles B) characterized by loss of vision C) often caused by inflammation of the trigeminal nerve D) characterized by paralysis of facial muscles | D) characterized by paralysis of facial muscles |
| Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc? A) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector C) effector, efferent neuron, int | B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector |
| Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following? A) oculomotor B) olfactory C) trigeminal D) facial | B) olfactory |
| Transduction refers to conversion of ________. A) presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses B) stimulus information to nerve impulses C) receptor energy to stimulus energy D) afferent impulses to efferent impulses | B) stimulus information to nerve impulses |
| The flexor muscles in the anterior arm (biceps brachii and brachialis) are innervated by what nerve? A) radial B) median C) ulnar D) musculocutaneous | D) musculocutaneous |
| The cranial nerves that have neural connections with the tongue include all except the ________. A) trigeminal B) facial C) glossopharyngeal D) trochlear | D) trochlear |
| Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve? A) abducens B) vestibulocochlear C) trigeminal D) accessory | B) vestibulocochlear |
| A fracture of the ethmoid bone could result in damage to which cranial nerve? A) glossopharyngeal B) vagus C) olfactory D) accessory | C) olfactory |
| Select the statement that is most correct. A) Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord that are associated with efferent fibers. B) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons. C) The | B) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons. |
| A fall or an improperly delivered gluteal injection could result in ________. A) neurofibromatosis B) postpoliomyelitis muscular atrophy C) paresthesia D) sciatica | D) sciatica |
| Feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the following except ________. A) Meissner's corpuscles B) tactile discs C) Pacinian corpuscles D) hair follicle receptors | C) Pacinian corpuscles |
| A patient who received a blow to the side of the skull exhibits the following signs and symptoms on that side of the face: he is unable to close his eye, and the corner of his mouth droops. Which cranial nerve has been damaged? A) facial B) glossophar | A) facial |
| If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies? A) complete loss of sensation B) a complete loss of voluntary movement C) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autono | B) a complete loss of voluntary movement |
| The anteriolateral pathways ________. A) are evolutionarily newer than the specific pathways B) receive inputs from a single type of sensory receptor C) are involved in the emotional aspects of perception D) are also called the lemniscal system | C) are involved in the emotional aspects of perception |
| The suprachiasmatic nucleus is found in the ________. A) pons B) thalamus C) hypothalamus D) medulla | C) hypothalamus |
| Nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, and VII are found in the ________. A) midbrain B) medulla C) pons D) cerebrum | C) pons |
| The arbor vitae refers to ________. A) cerebellar gray matter B) cerebellar white matter C) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum D) flocculonodular nodes | B) cerebellar white matter |
| The brain stem consists of the ________. A) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla B) midbrain, medulla, and pons C) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain D) midbrain only | B) midbrain, medulla, and pons |
| The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________. A) prefrontal lobe B) frontal lobe C) temporal lobe D) parietal lobe | C) temporal lobe |
| Spinocerebellar tracts ________. A) terminate in the spinal cord B) carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum C) give rise to conscious experience of perception D) are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord | B) carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum |
| What cells line the ventricles of the brain? A) ependymal cells B) neurons C) epithelial cells D) astrocytes | A) ependymal cells |
| The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges? A) arachnoid and epidura B) arachnoid and pia C) arachnoid and dura D) dura and epidura | B) arachnoid and pia |
| The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________. A) pons B) medulla C) midbrain D) cerebrum | B) medulla |
| Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in ________. A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord C) the thalamus D) sympathetic ganglia | A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord |
| Which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres? A) central fissure B) longitudinal fissure C) parieto-occipital fissure D) lateral fissure | B) longitudinal fissure |
| Which of the following best describes the cerebrum? A) motor command center B) visceral command center C) executive suite D) decussation center | C) executive suite |
| A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________. A) sulcus B) fissure C) gyrus D) furrow | A) sulcus |
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