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aviation cards
flashcards for private and commercial rotorcraft
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What information is on a constant pressure analysis chart? | winds & temperatures aloft, temp/dew point spread |
| Meaning of hatches on a constant pressure analysis chart? (not hatched within clear) | 70-110 kts |
| Meaning of clear within hatched on a constant pressure analysis chart? | 110-150 kts |
| Meaning of hatched within clear on a constant pressure analysis chart? | 150-190 kts |
| light signal: flashing green, on ground? in air? | Ground: cleared to taxi; Air: return for landing (to be followed by steady green at proper time) |
| What is the result of using antitorque pedals to assist a turn in an autorotation? | loss of airspeed, downward pitching of nose, increased sink rate, increase in rotor rpm. |
| Operations for compensation or hire are not authorized in what catagory of aircraft? | limited, experimental, restricted |
| (rumor) look for condensation to begin with a dewspread of | 5 degrees |
| MOA acronym depiction use restriction | Military Operations Area, red picket fence, military training including acrobatic or abrupt maneuvers at high speeds, extreme caution |
| convective sigmet are observations or a forecast of | tornados, significant thnderstrm actvty, or hail > 3/4" diamtr, "any convctiv situatn the forecaster considers hzrds to all catgries of aircrft.", lines of thndrstrms, widespread or embedded thndrstrms, wnd gusts of 50 kts or > |
| requirements to operate in A | IFR pilot rating, be on an IFR flight plan, 29.92, mode C |
| How many days after an accident is a report required to be filed witht the nearest NTSB field office? | 10 days |
| Airport Advisory Area | extends 10 SM from airports where there is a flight service station on the field and no operating tower |
| On a square turn into the wind, the bank starts out ___ and goes to ___. | medium, shallow |
| Lift is produced @ what angle of attack? | 8 degrees |
| V sub y of a 300c | best rate of climb, 41 kts, pilot's flight manual p 5-1 |
| Drag types | Profile (form drag & skin friction, increases slightly c airspeed), Induced (portion of lift acting rearward, major cause of drag @ low speeds), Parasite (created by nonlifting components, increases c the square of velocity) |
| How long is a Sec, TAC, or WAC valid and how often is it updated? | 6 mo, 56 days |
| Schweizer etl | effective translational lift, 16-24 kts |
| Alert Area: designation, depiction, use, restriction | "A" followed by a number; blue picket fence; unusual types of arial activities such as parachutes, gliders, students; use special caution |
| Stipulations for repeated solo cross-country flights by students with a single logbook endorsement. | 50 nm or less, flight instruction in both directions including t/o & landings at the airports to be used. |
| stability chart indices meaning of -top# | lifted index/k index; A negative lifted index means that the low level air if lifted to 500mb would be warmer than existing air @ 500mb. The air is unstable and there is a strong indication of severe thunderstorms. |
| In order to prepare a CFI applicant, a flight instructor must have | given 200 hours of flight training and been a CFI for 24 mo. |
| NDBs normally operate in the frequency range of | 190 to 535 Khz |
| MTR acronym designation depiction use | military training route; "IR" followed by 3 or 4 #'s IFR, speeds > 250 kts; "VR" followed by 3 or 4 #'s, VFR;, speeds > 250 kts; 4#'s - no segment over 1500 AGL; 3#'s - one or more segments over 1500 AGL; no restrictions, FSS has current info |
| VFR cruising altitudes | over 3000 AGL: for a magnetic course of 0-179, fly odd thousands + 500; 180-359, even thousands + 500; WEEO |
| What % coverage constitutes a moderate risk of severe thunderstorms? | 6-10 |
| What is the duration of a student pilot certificate? | 24 calendar months (end of the month) |
| Class B clearance requirements | must receive specific clearance into Bravo; mode C; private pilot's license or student with endorsement |
| A freezing level panel of the composite moisture stability chart is an analysis of | OBSERVED freezing level data from upper air observations. |
| memory aid for compass variation | east is least and west is best; 10 degrees east is Mag-10=True; 10 degrees west is Mag+10=True |
| Ground instructor certificate with a basic rating can teach | ground training for: sport, recreatinal and private (issuance of certificate, flight review, recommendation for knowledge test) |
| victor airway dimensions | 1200 AGL to FL 180 (17,999); 4+4=8 nm |
| instructor certification for practical test is good for how long? | 60 days |
| Class G dimensions | surface to 14,500 plus any airspace 1,500 AGL even if over 14,500 |
| Lycoming HIO-360-DIA aircraft and max continuous hp | Schweizer C300; 190 |
| Minimum altitude over National Parks land; Refuges & Ranges administered by US Fish & Wildlife; wilderness & primitive areas (USFS). AIM 7-4 | 2000 ft |
| dewpoint convergence rate | 2.44444 degrees C = 4.4 degrees F |
| On a 90 degree turn onto the downwind, the bank starts out _____ and goes to _____. | medium steep |
| Night Illusions include: | False Horizens - natural horizen is obscured Landing Illusions - obscuration, upslope or narrow runway leads to low approach Autokinesis - stare @ a point and it swims Night Myopia - w/o anything to focus on, eyes will focus 6 ft ahead of aircraf |
| Restricted Areas: depiction, activity, restrictions | blue picket fence; unusual, often invisible hazards such as artillery, arial gunnery, guided missles; permission must be granted by controlling agency |
| hour restriction for airline transport pilot instruction | 8 per day; 36 in 7 days |
| When airspeed increases and decreases during longitudinal phugoid oscillations, the aircraft is | demonstrating positive static stability and maintaining a nearly constant angle of attack. |
| Daytime gyroplane pic recency requirement. | 3 take offs & landings in the preceeding 90 days. |
| Definition of an accident requiring immediate notification of NTSB. | death, serious injury or substantial damage which adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of the aircraft. boarding to embarking. excludes engines and landing gear. |
| Class D dimensions: | 4 nm radius core surface to 2500 AGL. ceiling is displayed in a broken box. a - in the broken box means -1ft from the ceiling given. |
| A route forecast for a 50 nm wide corridor along a line connecting the end points of a route. | Transcribed Weather Broadcast TWEB (available on L/MF and VOR) There are also TWEB vicinity forecasts and a TWEB synopsis. |
| ADIZ: acronym, location, requirements | Air Defense Identification Zone; US-International airspace boundries; IFR or defense VFR (DVFR) flight plan required; check AIM for detailed info |
| Airspeed limitations | 250 kts below 10,000 MSL; 200 kts in C or D 2,500 AGL and below within 4 nm; under B including VFR corridors |
| TFR | Temporary Flight Restrictions provide a safe environment & avoid congestion; handled by ATC or NOTAM |
| Supplemental Oxygen requirements | Above 15,000: Flight crew must use; each occupant must be provided O2. 14,000-15,000: flight crew must use oxygen for flight's duration. 12,500-14,000: flight crew must use O2 after 30 minutes. |
| What is needed for dynamic rollover? | thrust, pivot point, rolling moment |
| C entry requirement | tail # from ATC; mode C in & above; student pilot's license |
| A dwi or dui conviction requires what, to whom, by when? | written report; FAA Civil Aviation Security Division; 60 days |
| minimum pic time for a multiengine cfi to give training for multiengine | 5 hrs in make and model |
| What are the hazardous attitudes and antidotes? | Macho-Taking chances is foolish. Anti-authority-Follow the rules. They are usually right. Invulnerability- It could happen to me. Impulsivity-Not so fast. Think first. Resignation-I'm not helpless. I can make a difference. |
| characteristics of symetrical airfoil | center of pressure does not move much same camber on top and bottom stable cheap less lift |
| amount of time before flight when an outlook briefing should be requested | +6 hrs |
| the proper designation on an IFR flight plan for only a transponder, encoding altimeter and DME is | /A |
| Class E dimensions | surface to 17,999; over class G starts at 14,500; starts again @ FL 600 and goes up; includes victor airways, start @ 1200 AGL, 8nm wide; various floors designated on sectional |
| Offsite Landing Checklist: CLEAR | CLEAR, CLEAR, CLEAR Perfromance Altitude 500' Wind Obstructions Terrain (sand, snow, ice, etc.) Forced landing options Entry (steep, shallow, normal) Exit (max perf or normal) Landing (go or no go) --------> CLEAR |
| critical angle of attack for stall | 12-16 degrees |
| symptoms of hypoxia | Fatique Improper decision making Sense of well being Headache Reduced vision Impaired judgement Blue extremities |
| The US high-level significant weather prognostic chart forecasts significant weather for what airspace? | FL 240 to 630 |
| What is an important limitation not color coded on airspeed indicators? | Vsuba design maneuvering speed |
| Weather advisory broadcasts, including severe weather forecast alerts (AWW), Convective sigmets, and Sigmets are provided by | ARTCC's when any part of the area described is within 150 miles of the airspace under their jurisdiction. |
| maneuverability is | the quality of an aircraft that permits it to be operated easily and to withstand the stress imposed on it. |
| nonconvective Sigmets (WS) are issued for | hazardous weather (other than convection) which is considered significant to all aircraft: severe icing severe and extreme turbulence volcanic eruptions, dust storms, sandstorms, or volcanic ash lowering visibility to < 3sm |
| Mode C transponder required in all airspace above | 10,000 ft, excluding airspace @ or below 2,500 AGL. |
| Airmets & Center Weather Advisories (CWA) are issued for what weather phenomena? | moderate icing; moderate turbulence; sustained surface winds >or= 30kts; widespread ceilings < 1000 ft; visibility < 3 miles; extensive mtn obscurement; |
| medium frequency vibrations indicate problems with | the tail rotor |
| Prohibited areas: designation; depiction; use; restriction | "P" followed by a number blue picket fence (looks like hatching in small areas) established for security or national welfare permission from controlling agency required |
| Warning Area: location; depiciton; activity | between 3 and 12 nautical miles from the coast blue picket fence unusual, often invisible hazards such as artillery, aerial gunnery, guided missles hazardous & should be avoided |
| controllability is | the capability of an aircraft to respond to the pilot's control, especially with regards to flight path and attitude. |
| In cold weather, crankcase breather lines are susceptible to | being clogged by ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed and subsequently frozen |
| no flight operations if barometer > | 31.00 |
| light signal: steady green | Air: cleared to land Ground: cleared for takeoff |
| Which is more unfavorable to rotorcraft performance: strong or low wind? | test says low wind. I say it depends on what you're doing. |
| A turbine powered or large airplane is required to enter an airport traffic pattern at an altitude of at least | 1500 AGL |
| Prior to entering any active MOA, contact | the controlling agency. (not mandatory) |
| The maximum elevation figures on a sectional give | the elevation needed to clear all known obstacles in that quadrangle. |
| TRACON | approach & departure (Terminal Radar Approach Control) |
| sectonal depiction of class E | dashed magenta - to surface faded magenta - floor 700 AGL faded blue - floor 1200 AGL alternating dashed - floor labled |
| transverse flow effect | more lift in front portion of disk; gyroscopic precession causes roll to right; slight left cyclic needed. |
| will the amount of water absorbed in aviation fuel increase or decrease as teperature increases? | increase; warm fuel can hold more dissolved water than cold fuel |
| proficiency requirements for pic IFR | actual or simulated 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting & tracking of courses through the use of navigations systems, in previous 6 mo. |
| On a 90 degree turn from upwind, the bank starts out _____ and goes to _____. | shallow medium |
| light gun: alternating red & green | air & ground: exercise extreme caution |
| NSA: acronym; depiction; use; restrictions | National Security Area; dashed magenta line, thicker and lighter than Echo airspace; increased security & safety of ground facilities; voluntarily avoid, may at times be prohibited |
| light gun: flashing white | ground: return to starting point on airport air: (no assigned meaning) |
| wind speeds over 99 kts e.g. 851065 | (85-50)X10=350; 10+100=110; -65 |
| Airport icons on a SAC with control towers are shown in _____. All others are _____. | blue magenta |
| Tornados are most likely to form in what type of thunderstorm? | steady state (cold front squall line) |
| Radiation fog | forms over low lying, fairly flat surfaces on clear, calm, humid nights. As the surface cools by radiation, the adjacent air is cooled to its dewpoint. |
| the prepware assumes that unshaded airspace in congested areas is | Echo from 1200 AGL |
| When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment have been accomplished to operate under IFR? | previous 30 days. |
| concerning taxi procedures in a gyroplane | keeping the rotor system level with lower rotor RPM creates less lift & more stability; level the rotor system by holding forward stick; it may be best to spin up for long or rough ground taxis. |
| flight test requires passing the knowledge test in the previous_____. | 24 mo. |
| mode C veil dimensions & sectional depiction: | 30nm from Bravo tower. thin line, can be blue or magenta. |
| emergency transponder codes | 7500 hijacked, (75 Osama's alive) 7600 radio failure (76 you got no licks) 7700 all other emergencies (77 goin' to heaven) |
| Class C dimensions | surface to 4000 AGL; 5nm radius core; 10nm radius shelf from 1200 to 4000 AGL; outer area another 10nm beyond shelf where communication with atc not required but recommended & ATC services normally provided. |
| Parachute Jump Aircraft Areas: depiction on SAC; information | little parachute symbol; info in AFD |
| The most desirable type of stability for an aircraft to possess is _____. | positive dynamic stability. |
| Cheaters can't test for: | 1 yr. |
| gyroplane flight time for a commercial certificate | 25 hrs. (150 total, including 100 powered) |
| What data must a pilot log for a VOR check for IFR operations? | date of check place of check amount of bearing error signature (not VOR name or indentification) |
| dimensions of required communications with an operating control tower in class E airspace: | 4nm radius, 2500 AGL |
| Personal checklist for flight fitness | Illness-decreased concentration, alertness; Medication-includes over the counter; Stess-decreased alertness & judgement; Alcohol-8 hrs dry mandated, 12-24 recommended; .04 blood alcohol; Fatigue-acute & chronic, coordination & alertness; Eating |
| Class C sectional depiction: | solid magenta line |
| sense clues for flying | vision, vestibular (inner ear), kinisthetic |
| Dry adiabatic lapse rate | 3 degrees C (5.4 F) per 1000 ft |
| For accurate real time info concerning a MOA hours of operation, contact | any FSS within 100 miles of the area |
| Removing the rotor force on a gyroplane can lead to | pilot induced oscillation |
| Class B dimensions | extends 15 to 30 nm from center surface to 10,000 MSL |
| depiction of B and C airspace segments | ceiling/floor in 100's of ft. MSL |
| night SVFR restricitons | from sunset to sunrise requires IFR pilot & aircraft |
| TRSA: acronym; depiction; requirements | Terminal Radar Service Area; solid gray lines, ceiling\floor in 100s of ft.; participation is not mandatory |
| relationship between relative bearing change, minutes, and distance to station | seconds/degrees = minutes to station |
| What type of commercial helicopter operation is not covered by 14 CFR part 119? | Helicopter flights with 2 passengers or less, withing 25sm radius of the departure heliport. |
| When a wave forms on a stationary front running east and west across the US, | the cold air circulates counterclockwise and forms a cold front to the west of the wave and a warm front to the east. |
| neutral static stability produces: positive " " " : negative " " " : | undampened oscillations dampened (convergent) oscillations increasing (divergent) oscillations |
| What action is required by regulations for an in-flight fire? | immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office. |
| expected duration of an individual microburst | seldom longer than 15 minutes |
| VFR fuel reserve requirements | Airplane day: to first landing @ cruise speed plus 30 min; Airplane night: to first landing @ cruise speed plus 45 min; rotorcraft: first landing + 20 min |
| applicant for commercial pilot with rotorcraft category rating and helicopter class rating must have how many of total 150 hours in a helicopter? | 50 |
| When establishing a level, standard rate turn, the primary bank instrument for the beginning of the turn is _____, and after the turn is established, the primary bank instrument is _____. | attitude indicator turn coordinator |
| Is an alternate airport with confirmation of performance required on an IFR flight plan it the destination weather is VFR? | No |
| minimun visibility and ceiling for LAHSO clearance | 3sm and 1000ft (basic VFR) |
| A coordinated, level 60 degree banked turn subjects an airplane to load factor of | 2 Gs |
| Poor test question: What minimum pilot certificate will permit a pilot to enter ALL Class B airspace? | test answer: Student with proper endorsement. correct answer: Private |
| How long after eta does search and rescue begin? | 30 min |
| light gun: steady red | ground: stop air: give way to other aircraft and continue circling |
| On a 90 degree turn from a downwind run, the bank starts out _____ and goes to _____. | steep medium |
| A transponder must be tested in the preceeding | 24 calendar months 91.413 |
| EFAS: acronym; call sign; freq; first call | Enroute Flight Advisory Service Flight Watch 122.0 Flight Watch, helicopter 55WM, VOR |
| compass errors | Variation Deviation Magnetic Dip Oscillation N-S turning errors Acceleraton-deceleration errors |
| correction for N-S turning errors | Undershoot North 25 degrees Overshoot South 15 degrees |
| G visibility & cloud clearance 1200 AGL to 10,000 MSL | day 1sm night 3sm 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal |
| visibility & cloud clearance G@night C D & E down to 1200, all below 10,000 | 3sm 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal |
| B sectional depiction | solid blue |
| Hypoxia | Hypoxic: decrease in oxy @ altitude Hypemic: reduced capability of blood to carry Stagnant: reduced circulation of blood Histotoxic: inability of cells to use Oxygen |
| Pilotage | Navigation by visual landmarks |
| What's on the FA? | comm & product header section; precautionary statement section; weather synopsis section; VFR clouds/WX section |
| multicom freq | 122.9 |
| class C visibility & cloud clearance | 3 sm; 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal |
| class D ATC services | IFR/IFR separation VFR traffic advisories (workload permitting) |
| Flight fundamentals of maneuvering an aircraft | Straight & level turns climbs descents |
| If an aircraft is not equipped for night flight, how late may it be flown? | sunset - 1 min |
| cause of hypoxic hypoxia | reduced oxygen pressure @ altitude |
| class D visibiltiy & cloud clearance | 3 sm; 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal |
| visibility & cloud clearance: G 1200 to 10,000 day | 1 sm; 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal |
| minimum time for a flight review | 1 hr ground; 1 hr flight |
| E ATC services | IFR/IFR separation VFR traffic advisories on request (workload permitting) |
| class C ATC services | IFR/IFR separation IFR/VFR separation VFR traffic advisories (workload permitting) |
| low speed blade flap on a gyroplane is caused by | taxiing to fast |
| autorotative rotor regions | Outer 30% driven, more drag than lift; 70% to 25% driving; inner 25% stalled |
| IGE | In Ground Effect: less induced flow due to resistance from ground. larger angle of attack |
| detonation occurs when fuel grade is | lower than recommended |
| pilot license requirement for entrance to E | student |
| flotation gear for each occupant required when? | flying for hire beyond gliding distance to shore |
| If lost, keep in mind - | Climb for better radio reception Communicate with any available facility Confess that you are lost Comply with assistance instructions Conserve fuel |
| steepness of slope landing is most limited by | available lateral cyclic |
| 2 conditions necessary for the formation of structural icing | visisble water such as rain or cloud droplets; 0 degrees C |
| SVFR minimums for helicopters | clear of clouds (fixed wing need 1sm visibility) |
| Dead Reckoning | Navigation based on calculations of time, speed, distance and direction. |
| Advection fog | caused when a low layer of warm, moist air moves over a cooler surface. Common along coastlines. Winds up to 15 kts can intensify it. Above 15 kts, turbulence lifts and mixes it. |
| Maximum gliding distance is obtained when induced drag and parasitic drag are _____. | equal. |
| VSI | vertical speed indicator |
| LTE in confined area | autorotate |
| settling with power: what is happening? what is required to enter? what is recovery? | helicopter is settling into own downwash; requires 1. 20-100% power, 2. >or= 300fpm descent rate, 3. airspeed < etl; recovery: gain airspeed; lower collective; worst case - enter autorotation |
| ASA Q# 6183: ". . .process by which ice can form on a surface directly from water vapor on a cold clear night." Prepware answer is "sublimation." Correct answer is _____. | deposition |
| airline route altitudes | FL 180-450 |
| As gross weight decreases, the airspeed for maximum L/O _____? | decreases |
| steam fog | produced when cold dry air moves over warmer water. The water evaporates and rises. Sometimes it freezes and falls back. Icing hazard. Turbulent unstable air. |
| How should a helicopter relate to the flow of fixed wing traffic at an uncontrolled airport in Class G airspace? | avoid it |
| minimum altitude for IFR flight is | 2000 ft above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1000 ft above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere |
| Controlled Firing Area: depiction, use | not depicted; activities are discontinued immediately when spotter aircraft, radar, or ground lookout personnel determine an aircraft might be approaching. |
| airmet alpha(numeric) designators | sierra - mtn obscurement tango - turbulence zulu - icing |
| How long are unopend flight plans retained? | 1 hr |
| to stop dynamic rollover - | lower collective |
| reference plane is perpendicular to what? | axis of rotation |
| autorotative descent and landing requires additional right pedal after collective is applied because of | reduced tail rotor effectiveness |
| barimetric standard lapse rate | 1" Hg per 1000' |
| class D entrance requirements | student pilot tail # from ATC |
| ATC services for A | all aircraft separation |
| G ATC services | VFR traffic advisories on request (workload permitting) |
| light gun: flashing red | ground: taxi clear of landing area (runway) in use air: airport unsafe - do not land |
| 2 way radio requirements in G & E | none |
| Visibility & cloud clearance E & G > 10,000 | 5sm, 1000 above, 1000 below, 1sm horizontal |
| Wac Sectional TAC | World Aeronautical chart Sectional Aeronautical chart Terminal area chart |
| What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR Part 91. | upon request, send a written report of that deviation to the administrator. |
| Nighttime equipment | Daytime + Fuses, 3 of each, or breakers Landing light (if for hire) Anticollision lights (strobe) Position lights Source of power for all equipment |
| Is turbulence most severe above or below rotor clouds? | below |
| stability is | the tendency of an aircraft to correct for conditions that may disturb its equilibrium |
| visibility & cloud clearance for E above 10,000 | 5sm; 1000 above, 1000 below, 1sm horizontel |
| visibility & cloud clearance for G < 1200 | see & avoid obstacles, clear of clouds; day or night |
| G visibility & cloud clearance at or over 10,000 MSL | 5sm; 1000 above, 1000 below, 1 sm horizontal |
| fixed wing G visibility and cloud clearance below 1200 AGL | Day 1sm, clear of clouds; Night 3 sm, 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal |
| basic VFR minimums for D,C,D or E airspace which extends to the surface | 3sm visibility, 1000ft ceiling |
| Visibility & cloud clearance B | 3sm; clear of clouds |
| Metar RMK FZDZ B42 | freezing drizzle began 42 minutes after the hour |
| Visibility & cloud clearance for E below 10,000 | 3sm; 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal |
| Schweizer battery alternator specs | battery 24V; alternator 28V, 100 amps |
| sectional depiction of class D | dashed blue line |
| When should an incident written report be filed with the NTSB? | only when requested |
| A safety pilot must be at least | a private pilot |
| A way to detect a broken magneto primary grounding wire is to | idle the engine and momentarily turn the engine off. If the engine continues to run, the problem is confirmed. |
| What conditions are favorable for a surface based temperature inversion? | cool clear nights with calm or light wind |
| minimum altitude required to avoid class D airspace marked with X in a broken box | X+1; remember your transponder rounds to the nearest 100 |
| What is a standard rate turn? | 3 degrees per second |
| In a negative g manueuver, a gyroplane's rotor RPM will | decrease rapidly |
| If you have a transponder, when must you have it on? | in all controlled airspace |
| Advantage of an electric turn coordinator with vacuum system for other gyroscopic equipment | backup |
| What kind of transmission? | Spiral bevel gear |
| Class B ATC services | separation of all aircraft |
| G entrance requirements | student pilot license |
| reason not to use medical oxygen | contains too much moisture, which can collect in valves and lines and freeze. |
| What is the correct departure procedure at a noncontrolled airport? | The FAA departure procedure for that airport. |
| Student pilot solo flight requires and endorsement in the last _____ days. | 90 |
| SVFR needed when? where? | visibility < 3sm or ceiling < 1000ft; B,C,D, or E airspace surface areas |
| Daytime equipment | Compass, Airspeed indicator, Manifold pressure guage, Altimeter, Lights (anticollision strobe), Seat belts (harness in front seats), Fuel gauge, Oil pressure guage, Oil temperature guage, Tachometer (engine) |
Created by:
stevemillar