renal function and urinalysis
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| The primary pigment responsible for normal urine color is | urochrome
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| Which of the following specific gravity readings correlates with a pale yellow urine? | 1.005
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| The presence of a white precipitate in freshly voided urine can be caused by: | amorphous phosphates in alkaline urine
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| The addition of dilute acetic acid to a cloudy urine specimen will dissolve: | amorphous phosphate
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| The specific gravity of urine is directly proportional to its: | dissolved solids
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| Diabetes mellitus produces a urine with: | increased volume and increased specific gravity
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| The refractive index compares: | light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions
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| Methemoglobin | Black
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| Clorets | Green
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| Polydipsia | pale yellow
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| Porphobilinogen | red
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| Pseudomonas infection | green
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| beets | red
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| Bilirubin | dark yellow
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| normal urine | aromatic
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| Bacterial infection | Ammonia
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| Diabetes mellitus | Fruity
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| Quality control on reagent strips must be performed whenever a/an: | new bottle of strips is opened
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| The reagent strip reaction that should be read last is the: | leukocyte esterase
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| Failure to blot the edge of the reagent strip may result in errors in color interpretation caused by: | runover
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| The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is: | a double indicator reaction
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| The normal range of urine pH is | 4.5 to 8.0
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| Which of the following is a cause of prerenal proteinuria? | Multiple myeloma
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| The protein section of the reagent strip is most sensitive to: | albumin
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| To detect the presence of early renal disease, diabetic patients are tested for: | microalbuminuria
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| The principle of the reagent strip test for protein is the: | protein error of indicators
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| The SSA test should be performed on: | urine that has been centrifuged
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| The test on the Multistix Pro reagent strip that uses a dye-binding principle is: | creatinine
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| A first morning specimen is frequently requested to confirm: | a negative urine pregnancy test
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| Pediatric urine specimens are additionally tested for the presence of: | galactose using Clinitest
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| Reagent strip tests for glucose use: | double sequential enzyme reactions
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| A 1+ reagent strip reaction and a 4+ Clinitest reaction could indicate the presence of: | glucose and other reducing substances
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| The primary purpose of the Acetest tablets is to: | test serum for increased ketones
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| A spotted reaction on the reagent strip reaction for blood indicates: | hematuria
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| Which of the following is not true about the Ictotest? | It is less sensitive than the reagent strip test.
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| A positive nitrite test suggests the presence of a minimum of: | 105 organisms/mL
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| The reagent strip test for nitrite is based on the: | reduction of nitrate in urine to nitrite by bacteria
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| Which of the following can produce a negative nitrite test in the presence of significant bacteriuria | Production of nitrogen from the presence of many bacteria
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| The cells most frequently associated with urinary tract infection are: | neutrophils
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| The number of fields that should be examined when quantitating urinary sediment constituents is: | 10
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| Identification of oval fat bodies can be verified using: | polarized light
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| To detect the presence of casts, the sediment is examined using | reduced light under low power
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| The presence of crenated RBCs in the urine sediment is associated with: | hypersthenuria
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| A patient with severe back pain and 15 to 20 RBCs/hpf in the urine sediment may have: | renal calculi
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| Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except: | lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
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| Ghost RBCs most frequently occur with | high pH, low specific gravity
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| The presence of hypochromic, irregularly shaped RBCs in the urine sediment indicates: | glomerular bleeding
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| Glitter cell is a term used to describe a specific type of: | neutrophil
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| An increase in urinary WBCs is called: | pyuria
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| Oval fat bodies are: | renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids
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| The type of cells that line the bladder and ureters are: | transitional
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| The location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract in ascending order is: | squamous, transitional, renal tubular
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| Clue cells are derived from: | squamous epithelial cells
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| The organisms attached to a clue cell are: | Gardnerella vaginalis
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| Collection of a midstream clean-catch specimen will alleviate contamination by: | squamous epithelial cells
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| Spherical transitional epithelial cells can be differentiated from renal tubular epithelial cells by observing the: | centrally located nucleus in transitional cells
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| The primary factor that favors the formation of casts is: | urinary stasis
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| The major constituent of casts is: | Tamm-Horsfall protein
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| Waxy casts are most easily differentiated from hyaline casts by their: | refractivity
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| Hyaline casts are found in the urine sediment: | following strenuous exercise
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| Identification of crystals is based on shape and: | urine pH and crystal solubility
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| Normal crystals found in acidic urine include: | calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous urates
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| All of the following crystals are found in acid urine except: | ammonium biurate
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| Abnormal crystals are most frequently seen in urine that is: | acid
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| Which of the following crystals occurs in two very distinct forms? | Calcium oxalate
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| Normal crystals found in alkaline urine include: | triple phosphate, calcium carbonate, ammonium biurate
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| Crystals found in the urine that are associated with disease include: | leucine and tyrosine
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| Which of the following is most likely to be found in the urine of a diabetic patient? | Candida albicans
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| Ammonium biurate | Thorny apple
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| Calcium carbonate | Dumbbell
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| Triple phosphate | Coffin lid
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| Cystine | Hexagonal
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| Cholesterol | Notched corners
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