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CLS 412 unit 2

renal function and urinalysis

QuestionAnswer
The primary pigment responsible for normal urine color is urochrome
Which of the following specific gravity readings correlates with a pale yellow urine? 1.005
The presence of a white precipitate in freshly voided urine can be caused by: amorphous phosphates in alkaline urine
The addition of dilute acetic acid to a cloudy urine specimen will dissolve: amorphous phosphate
The specific gravity of urine is directly proportional to its: dissolved solids
Diabetes mellitus produces a urine with: increased volume and increased specific gravity
The refractive index compares: light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions
Methemoglobin Black
Clorets Green
Polydipsia pale yellow
Porphobilinogen red
Pseudomonas infection green
beets red
Bilirubin dark yellow
normal urine aromatic
Bacterial infection Ammonia
Diabetes mellitus Fruity
Quality control on reagent strips must be performed whenever a/an: new bottle of strips is opened
The reagent strip reaction that should be read last is the: leukocyte esterase
Failure to blot the edge of the reagent strip may result in errors in color interpretation caused by: runover
The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is: a double indicator reaction
The normal range of urine pH is 4.5 to 8.0
Which of the following is a cause of prerenal proteinuria? Multiple myeloma
The protein section of the reagent strip is most sensitive to: albumin
To detect the presence of early renal disease, diabetic patients are tested for: microalbuminuria
The principle of the reagent strip test for protein is the: protein error of indicators
The SSA test should be performed on: urine that has been centrifuged
The test on the Multistix Pro reagent strip that uses a dye-binding principle is: creatinine
A first morning specimen is frequently requested to confirm: a negative urine pregnancy test
Pediatric urine specimens are additionally tested for the presence of: galactose using Clinitest
Reagent strip tests for glucose use: double sequential enzyme reactions
A 1+ reagent strip reaction and a 4+ Clinitest reaction could indicate the presence of: glucose and other reducing substances
The primary purpose of the Acetest tablets is to: test serum for increased ketones
A spotted reaction on the reagent strip reaction for blood indicates: hematuria
Which of the following is not true about the Ictotest? It is less sensitive than the reagent strip test.
A positive nitrite test suggests the presence of a minimum of: 105 organisms/mL
The reagent strip test for nitrite is based on the: reduction of nitrate in urine to nitrite by bacteria
Which of the following can produce a negative nitrite test in the presence of significant bacteriuria Production of nitrogen from the presence of many bacteria
The cells most frequently associated with urinary tract infection are: neutrophils
The number of fields that should be examined when quantitating urinary sediment constituents is: 10
Identification of oval fat bodies can be verified using: polarized light
To detect the presence of casts, the sediment is examined using reduced light under low power
The presence of crenated RBCs in the urine sediment is associated with: hypersthenuria
A patient with severe back pain and 15 to 20 RBCs/hpf in the urine sediment may have: renal calculi
Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except: lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
Ghost RBCs most frequently occur with high pH, low specific gravity
The presence of hypochromic, irregularly shaped RBCs in the urine sediment indicates: glomerular bleeding
Glitter cell is a term used to describe a specific type of: neutrophil
An increase in urinary WBCs is called: pyuria
Oval fat bodies are: renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids
The type of cells that line the bladder and ureters are: transitional
The location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract in ascending order is: squamous, transitional, renal tubular
Clue cells are derived from: squamous epithelial cells
The organisms attached to a clue cell are: Gardnerella vaginalis
Collection of a midstream clean-catch specimen will alleviate contamination by: squamous epithelial cells
Spherical transitional epithelial cells can be differentiated from renal tubular epithelial cells by observing the: centrally located nucleus in transitional cells
The primary factor that favors the formation of casts is: urinary stasis
The major constituent of casts is: Tamm-Horsfall protein
Waxy casts are most easily differentiated from hyaline casts by their: refractivity
Hyaline casts are found in the urine sediment: following strenuous exercise
Identification of crystals is based on shape and: urine pH and crystal solubility
Normal crystals found in acidic urine include: calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous urates
All of the following crystals are found in acid urine except: ammonium biurate
Abnormal crystals are most frequently seen in urine that is: acid
Which of the following crystals occurs in two very distinct forms? Calcium oxalate
Normal crystals found in alkaline urine include: triple phosphate, calcium carbonate, ammonium biurate
Crystals found in the urine that are associated with disease include: leucine and tyrosine
Which of the following is most likely to be found in the urine of a diabetic patient? Candida albicans
Ammonium biurate Thorny apple
Calcium carbonate Dumbbell
Triple phosphate Coffin lid
Cystine Hexagonal
Cholesterol Notched corners
Created by: kashe220 on 2010-06-11



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