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CLS 412 unit 2
renal function and urinalysis
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The primary pigment responsible for normal urine color is | urochrome |
| Which of the following specific gravity readings correlates with a pale yellow urine? | 1.005 |
| The presence of a white precipitate in freshly voided urine can be caused by: | amorphous phosphates in alkaline urine |
| The addition of dilute acetic acid to a cloudy urine specimen will dissolve: | amorphous phosphate |
| The specific gravity of urine is directly proportional to its: | dissolved solids |
| Diabetes mellitus produces a urine with: | increased volume and increased specific gravity |
| The refractive index compares: | light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions |
| Methemoglobin | Black |
| Clorets | Green |
| Polydipsia | pale yellow |
| Porphobilinogen | red |
| Pseudomonas infection | green |
| beets | red |
| Bilirubin | dark yellow |
| normal urine | aromatic |
| Bacterial infection | Ammonia |
| Diabetes mellitus | Fruity |
| Quality control on reagent strips must be performed whenever a/an: | new bottle of strips is opened |
| The reagent strip reaction that should be read last is the: | leukocyte esterase |
| Failure to blot the edge of the reagent strip may result in errors in color interpretation caused by: | runover |
| The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is: | a double indicator reaction |
| The normal range of urine pH is | 4.5 to 8.0 |
| Which of the following is a cause of prerenal proteinuria? | Multiple myeloma |
| The protein section of the reagent strip is most sensitive to: | albumin |
| To detect the presence of early renal disease, diabetic patients are tested for: | microalbuminuria |
| The principle of the reagent strip test for protein is the: | protein error of indicators |
| The SSA test should be performed on: | urine that has been centrifuged |
| The test on the Multistix Pro reagent strip that uses a dye-binding principle is: | creatinine |
| A first morning specimen is frequently requested to confirm: | a negative urine pregnancy test |
| Pediatric urine specimens are additionally tested for the presence of: | galactose using Clinitest |
| Reagent strip tests for glucose use: | double sequential enzyme reactions |
| A 1+ reagent strip reaction and a 4+ Clinitest reaction could indicate the presence of: | glucose and other reducing substances |
| The primary purpose of the Acetest tablets is to: | test serum for increased ketones |
| A spotted reaction on the reagent strip reaction for blood indicates: | hematuria |
| Which of the following is not true about the Ictotest? | It is less sensitive than the reagent strip test. |
| A positive nitrite test suggests the presence of a minimum of: | 105 organisms/mL |
| The reagent strip test for nitrite is based on the: | reduction of nitrate in urine to nitrite by bacteria |
| Which of the following can produce a negative nitrite test in the presence of significant bacteriuria | Production of nitrogen from the presence of many bacteria |
| The cells most frequently associated with urinary tract infection are: | neutrophils |
| The number of fields that should be examined when quantitating urinary sediment constituents is: | 10 |
| Identification of oval fat bodies can be verified using: | polarized light |
| To detect the presence of casts, the sediment is examined using | reduced light under low power |
| The presence of crenated RBCs in the urine sediment is associated with: | hypersthenuria |
| A patient with severe back pain and 15 to 20 RBCs/hpf in the urine sediment may have: | renal calculi |
| Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except: | lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid |
| Ghost RBCs most frequently occur with | high pH, low specific gravity |
| The presence of hypochromic, irregularly shaped RBCs in the urine sediment indicates: | glomerular bleeding |
| Glitter cell is a term used to describe a specific type of: | neutrophil |
| An increase in urinary WBCs is called: | pyuria |
| Oval fat bodies are: | renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids |
| The type of cells that line the bladder and ureters are: | transitional |
| The location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract in ascending order is: | squamous, transitional, renal tubular |
| Clue cells are derived from: | squamous epithelial cells |
| The organisms attached to a clue cell are: | Gardnerella vaginalis |
| Collection of a midstream clean-catch specimen will alleviate contamination by: | squamous epithelial cells |
| Spherical transitional epithelial cells can be differentiated from renal tubular epithelial cells by observing the: | centrally located nucleus in transitional cells |
| The primary factor that favors the formation of casts is: | urinary stasis |
| The major constituent of casts is: | Tamm-Horsfall protein |
| Waxy casts are most easily differentiated from hyaline casts by their: | refractivity |
| Hyaline casts are found in the urine sediment: | following strenuous exercise |
| Identification of crystals is based on shape and: | urine pH and crystal solubility |
| Normal crystals found in acidic urine include: | calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous urates |
| All of the following crystals are found in acid urine except: | ammonium biurate |
| Abnormal crystals are most frequently seen in urine that is: | acid |
| Which of the following crystals occurs in two very distinct forms? | Calcium oxalate |
| Normal crystals found in alkaline urine include: | triple phosphate, calcium carbonate, ammonium biurate |
| Crystals found in the urine that are associated with disease include: | leucine and tyrosine |
| Which of the following is most likely to be found in the urine of a diabetic patient? | Candida albicans |
| Ammonium biurate | Thorny apple |
| Calcium carbonate | Dumbbell |
| Triple phosphate | Coffin lid |
| Cystine | Hexagonal |
| Cholesterol | Notched corners |
Created by:
kashe220
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