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Board review physio

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Question
Answer
Chemoreceptors in the _______ function as part of the inspiratory and expiratory control center   Medulla Oblongata  
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The medulla oblongata is sensitive to ___ and ____, while the peripheral chemoreceptors, ____ and _____ are primarily sensitive to PCO2.   CO2 and H+, carotid and aortic bodies  
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Respiration is stimulated by ______   increased PCO2, increased H+, and low PO2  
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The apneustic and pneumotaxic center lie in the ______, and function to _______.   Pons, limit the duration of inspiration and increase respiration rate  
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In diabetes mellitus, the body is in which state?   metabolic acidosis (inc in ketone bodies)  
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During vomiting the body is in metabolic alkalosis, what is happening to the H+ cencentration, PCO2 and respiration?   decrease in H+ and inhibited respiration causes an inc in PCO2 and inc in H+  
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In metabolic acidosis, what is happening?   Respiration is stimulated causing you to blow off CO2, thus lowering the H+ concentration  
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Hyperventilation causes respiratory _______, low ___ and ____.   alkalosis, H+ and PCO2  
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With hyperventilation, why breath into a bag?   Re-breathing expired air inc PCO2 and returns pH to normal  
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With hypoventilation you are experiencing respiratory ____.   acidosis (low pH)  
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The neurohypophysis is connected to the brain via what?   Supraoptic Hypophyseal Tract  
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What hormones are released from the posterior pituitary?   ADH/vasopressin and Oxytocin  
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This hormone, _____, creates aquaporins in the ______ of the kidney to reabsorb H2O and inc BP   ADH, collecting duct  
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_______ causes milk let down and causes uterine contractions during labor   Oxytocin  
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What hormone stimulates milk production post partum?   Prolactin  
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The anterior pituitary is influenced in two ways, what are they?   1. Negative feedback 2. Releasing factors from the hypothalamus  
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GH Releasing Factor is responsible for releasing what two hormones from the Anterior Pituitary?   1. GH 2. Somatostatin  
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An increase in GH produces ____, while a decrease produces _____   gigantism, dwarfism  
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What hormone stimulates the adrenal gland?   ACTH (Corticotropin)  
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What stimulates sperm production in males?   FSH  
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The hormone, _____, stimulates ______ to produce Testosterone   LH, interstitial cells of Leydig in the testes  
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What is responsible for ovulation in females?   LH  
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______ hormone takes calcium out of the ____ and puts it into ______   Calcitonin, blood, bone  
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Where is the melanocyte stimulating hormone produced?   Pars Intermedia  
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The ______ cells of the thyroid produce its major hormone ______, that functions to regulate metabolism   parafollicular, calcitonin  
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The major horm from the thyroid is ______, but the active form in the body is _____   Thyroxine (T4), Triiodothyronine (T3)  
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Decreased TH in children produces ____, while in adults it produces _____   cretin, myedema  
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Graves disease is related to an ______ in TH   increased  
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Parathyroid hormone ______ blood calcium, _____ reabsorption of phosphate   increases, decreases  
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What hormone takes Ca out of bone and puts it in blood?   PTH/Parathyroid hormone/Parathorome  
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A decrease in PTH causes ____ while an increase causes ______   muscle twitching/tetany, BP  
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From the capsule to the medulla, name the layers of the adrenal cortex and the major hormone that they produce.   capsule 1. Zona Glomerulosa: Aldosterone 2. Zona Fasciculata: Cortisol 3. Zona Reticularis: Androgens medulla  
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What hormone is increased with osteitis fibrosa cystica?   PTH  
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Aldosterone _____ Na excretion and ____ K+ excretion in the distal tubule of the kidneys   reduces, increases (aka reabsorbs Na and H2O, excrete K+)  
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Low calcium would affect the ___ gland while high calcium affects the ____ gland   parathyroid, thyroid  
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What energy sources is cortisol involved in the metabolism of? This causes your blood sugar to ___ and your WBC count to ____   carbohydrate, fats, proteins stay up/raise, drop  
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The paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus produces   Oxytocin  
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The adrenal medulla is derived from ______ and secretes _______   neural crest cells, norepinephrine (NE) and epinephrine (Epi)  
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NE and Epi are secreted in response to _____ and function to _______   sympathetic stimulation, raise blood sugar from the liver  
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Somatostatin is a horm that is produced in two places, ___ and ____, causing the inhibition of separate hormones   1. hypothalamus (inh GH) 2. delta cells of the pancreas (inh insulin, glucagon, gastrin, secretin, renin)  
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A peptide hormone, ______, is formed in the liver to mediate the affects of GH on _______   Somatomedin, cartilage  
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FSH stimulates the ______ to produce what hormone?   ovarian follicle, Estrogen  
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Progesterone is produced by the _____ functioning to _____   corpus luteum, 1.inc uterine lining 2. inc body temp  
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Estrogen is high during the ___ stage of the menstrual cycle while progesterone is high during ______ stage.   Proliferative phase (1st stage) Secretory/ 2nd stage (after ovulation)  
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The pancreas produces what three hormones and from what cells?   1. Insulin from beta cells 2. Glucagon from alpha cells 3. Somatostatin from delta cells  
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Which hormone is also called the thermogenic hormone?   Progesterone (for its ability to inc body temp)  
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The ______ plexus is in the muscular layer of the GI tract while the _____ plexus is in the sumucosa.   Myenteric/Auerbach Meissner  
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Digestion of starch begins in the mouth with this form of amylase   Ptyalin  
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______ cells produce HCL which then stimulates ____ cells to produce pepsinogen   Parietal cells, Chief cells (the chief drinks pepsi)  
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This substance is involved with the absorption of vit B12 and is produced by parietal cells in the stomach   Intrinsic factor  
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Gastrin, which increases _______ secretions, is released from what cells?   gastric, mucosa cells of the stomach  
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How does secretin influences the pancreas, duodenum and the stomach?   1. Stimulates the flow of pancreatic juices (amylase & lipase) 2. buffers acid chyme 3. decreases gastric motility  
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These hormone is released from the small intestine in response to fat in the diet.   CCK Cholecystokinin and enterogastrone  
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What are two hormones that close the pyloric sphincter?   enterogastrone and CCK  
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What two hormones break down proteins that are activated by Enterokinase?   Trypsin and chymotrypsin  
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What hormone causes the contraction of the gall bladder and stops the action of gastrin?   CCK (to digest fats!)  
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What structure in the kidney filters blood?   Glomerulus  
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What is the fate of proteins and glucose in the blood when it is filtered?   Proteins don't pass through (ALL amino acids are reabsorbed in the proximal tubule) Glucose can pass through  
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The Loop of Henle has two separate affects on water, what are they?   Descending limb: Osmotic P moves water into interstitial ts Ascending limb: impermeable to water  
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Sodium is normally reabsorbed in three areas, what are they and what is the main one?   Prox tubule (most) Ascending limb Distal tubule  
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What promotes reabsorption at the peritubular capillaries?   1. Colloid osmotic pressure 2. Hydrostatic pressure  
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Where is the most Cl- absorbed?   Prox tubule  
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K+ and H+ are normally secreted at the ______   distal tubule  
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Where is the most water and glucose reabsorbed?   Prox tubule  
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Interlobar artery flows into the ______, that detects a decrease in blood ___ and ____   Afferent arteriole, pressure and volume  
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Aldosterone has the most affect at which part of the kidney?   distal tubule  
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Renin is released in response to ____, by ______ into the blood   decreased BP and blood volume, JG cells  
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The liver produces ______ that is cleaved by renin into angiotensin I   Angiotensionogen  
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The enzyme ____ in the _____ cleaves Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II   ACE/Angiotensin converting enzyme, lung  
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What is the function of Angiotensin II?   1. Stim thirst 2. VC vessels 3. Stim ADH 4. St adrenal cortex to secrete Aldosterone from the zona glomerulosa  
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Where does the substance urine officially start?   collecting ducts  
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The major caylx flows into _____, which flows into the renal pelvis   renal sinus (minor caylx -> major caylx -> renal sinus -> renal pelvis -> ureter)  
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Blood flows from the glomerulus into what?   Efferent arteriole  
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This is a law that states that anterior spinal roots are motor and dorsal are sensory   Bell Mangendie  
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In Boyles law, for a volume of gas one variable remains constant while two others vary inversely   at constant temp, a volume of gas varies inversely with pressure  
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The majority of carbon dioxide is found in what form?   HCO3 bicarbonate ion (70%)  
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Charles law states what?   at constant pressure, a volume of gas varies directly with absolute pressure  
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the solubility of gas in a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas is what law?   Henry  
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23% of carbon dioxide is found in what form?   in combination with hemoglobin  
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What does ventricular pressure depend on?   muscular tension, size and shape of the heart - this is LaPlace law  
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Frank Starlings law states what?   Cardiac output is directly proportional to diastolic filling, or CO = Venous Return  
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What percentage of carbon dioxide is dissolved in the blood?   7%  
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What is it called when you can not pump all of the blood out of your heart?   congestive heart failure  
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What is the most common cause of left sided heart failure?   hypertension  
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What two arteries carry de-oxygenated blood?   Pulmonary artery and Umbilical artery  
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Which vessel has the highest concentration of blood in the body?   Pulmonary vein  
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What percentage of oxygen is carried by hemoglobin?   97%  
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How is the pacemaker of the heart stimulated to contract?   it is self excitatory (SA node is the pacemaker)  
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The pacemaker is excitatory to ________, then to the _____ which delays the impulse   internodal pathways, AV node  
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What sends an impulse to the ventricles?   Purkinje system  
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Where is the pacemaker of the heart located?   crista terminalis of the RA  
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What does the P wave represent in an EKG?   atrial depolarization (atrial contraction to get the last 30% of the blood out of the atria) Also called End diastolic filling time  
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Isovolumetric contraction is represented by what?   PR interval - impulse delayed so the ventricles can build tension  
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What represents atrial repolarization in an EKG?   nothing, it is covered up by the QRS complex  
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What represents repolarization of the papillary muscles?   U wave  
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What would it mean if your patient had an altered ST segment?   myocardial infarction/acute cardiac failure (could also cause an inverted T wave)  
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Right sided heart failure is causing backup in the IVC, where would it backup from there?   liver and legs  
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What is the most common cause of isolated right sided heart failure?   lung condition/corpulmonaly  
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How would a primary heart block show up on an EKG?   elongated PR interval  
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What is heard during the 1st heart sound?   closure of AV valves during isometric contraction  
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In an EKG, what signifies the end of systole?   Dicrotic notch  
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Tricuspid stenosis would occur in diastole or systole?   Diastole  
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What two variables would give you a persons Inspiratory Capacity?   IRV + TV (inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume)  
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Inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume all together would represent what?   vital capacity  
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What is your tidal volume controlled by?   pneumotaxic center  
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To take a deep breath you must shut off _____ with ______.   pneumotaxic center, apneustic center (represents TV + IRV)  
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All respiration is controlled by what?   Dorsal motor nucleus of the Vagus nerve  
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Would an aortic stenosis be diastolic or systolic?   systolic  
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Under what conditions will hemoglobin give up oxygen?   1. inc Temp 2. inc DPG/Diphosphoglycerate 3. inc H+ 4. inc CO2  
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In the red blood cell, water and carbon dioxide combine using what enzyme?   carbonic anhydrase  
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What should be the normal pH range of the blood?   7.35-7.45  
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The Bohr Effect is a property of what molecule?   hemoglobin  
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A decrease in pH would cause the dissociation curve for the Bohr effect to shift in what direction?   right it shifts right when you 1. inc Temp 2. inc DPG/Diphosphoglycerate 3. inc H+ 4. inc CO2  
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What mineral sets the threshold for nerve firing?   Calcium Ca++ controls the Na+ gates  
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The ascending phase of an action potential represents what?   Depolarization, receptors leaking Na+ into the cell  
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A receptor is in the hyperpolarized period, could it fire an action potential?   yes, but it would need an extremely large stimulus and to activate the Na/K pumps  
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What does the dorsum sellae cover?   the infundibulum/stalk from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary  
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In a relaxed muscle, what prevents actin and myosin from combining?   ATP attached to the myosin crossbridges tropomyosin-troponin attached to actin (actin and myosin combining = contraction)  
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Ca is released from the _____ at the ___ junction causing the release of _____ to the T tubules   sarcoplasmic reticulum, myoneural junction, acetylcholine  
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What is the resting membrane potential of muscle? of a neuron?   muscle -90mV neuron -70mV  
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What is the minimum current strength needed for an action potential to occur?   Rheobase  
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What are the effector cells of the parasympathetic nervous system?   muscarine (activated by ACh)  
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What brain waves would be normal in a child but abnormal in an adult?   theta  
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What brain waves do you experience during REM sleep?   beta (also during specific mental activity)  
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What brain waves are never seen during sleep in a normal adult?   alpha, only seen in quiet awake periods  
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What 4 areas are only stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system?   1. adrenal medulla 2. erector pili muscle (hair) 3. sweat glands 4. smooth muscle of arterioles that supply periph blood vessels for VC  
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Which band within the sarcomere remains the same with contraction?   A band  
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Which band within the sarcomere disappears with contraction?   H band  
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Define a motor unit   the functional unit of muscle, consists of the alpha motor neuron and all the fibers it innervates  
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Shortening of a muscle belly is considered what type of contraction?   concentric  
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What type of contraction produced the most strength?   Eccentric contraction, lengthening of the muscle belly  
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What color are slow twitch muscle fibers and why?   red because of a higher abundance of myoglobin  
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What is the energy source for fast twitch muscle fibers?   anaerobic glycolysis  
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Name the two exceptions to the smooth muscle is a "multiunit muscle" rule?   1. iris of eye 2. pili erector tissue they are single unit smooth muscle  
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In smooth muscle, what is the analogous to troponin?   calmodulin  
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In a smooth muscle contraction, what enzyme binds calcium to calmodulin   myosin kinase  
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