MCAT Biology (VL)
Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in
each of the black spaces below before clicking
on it to display the answer.
Help!
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How many protons needed per ATP? | 4H
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Hexokinase allosteric regulation | Feedback inhibition by G6P
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Phosphofructokinase allosteric regulation | Feedback inhibition by ATP
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Pyruvate dehydrogenase allosteric regulation | Stimulated by AMP
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Prosthetic group | Nonprotein molecule covalently bonded to active site
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Co-Factor | Organic or inorganic substance that aids in enzyme function without interacting with the enzyme
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How many carbons in acetyl CoA and OAA | Acetyl CoA (2) + OAA (4) = Citrate (6)
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Location for gluconeogenesis | Primarily in the liver and slightly in the kidneys
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AA catabolism | Ammino group --> Urea
Carbon skeleton --> H2O and CO2, glucose, acetyl CoA
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What order is DNA written? | 5' to 3'
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Helix repeats every (# bp, and angstroms) | 10 bp, 34 angstroms
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Distance between stacked bases | 3.4 angstroms
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Transition vs. transversion | transVERSION changes the version Pu to Py
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Prokaryote polymerase that lays down primers | Primase
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DNA pol I | Everything DNA pol III plus 5' to 3' exonuclease activity (removes primer)
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DNA pol II | DNA repair, both exonucleases activity but mostly unknown
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DNA pol III | Main polymerase. Fast and accurate. 5 to 3 elongation and 3 to 5 exonuclease.
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Names for non-transcribed strand | Coding or sense strand
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Prokaryote promoter | Pribnow box (-10) and -35 sequence
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RNA polymerase closed vs. open complex | Closed complex on the promoter and open complex when bound to a single strand
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Steps in translation that require GTP | Initiation at P site, entrance of tRNA to A site, and translocation to E
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Phosphate bonds required for translation based on AA # | 4N
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Another word of attachment of a virus and penetration | Adsorption and eclipse
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Lytic cycle in animal viruses | Productive cycle. It doesn't destroy cells
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Three classifications of prokaryotes | Bacteria, archaebacteria and cyanobacteria
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Type of peptidoglycan not found in humans | D, we use L
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Flagella in prokaryotes vs eukaryotes | Similar to ATP synthase for prokaryotes and 9+2 structure for eukaryotes
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Facultative anaerobes | Use oxygen if it's around but don't need it
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Two parts of the fungi thallus and their role | Vegetative (collects nutrients) and fruiting (asexual reproduction)
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Roles of smooth ER | Detoxification, glycogen breakdown, some glycosylation, disulfide bond formation
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Roles of Golgi body | Glycosylation, macromolecule synthesis (polysaccharides to be secreted)
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Proteins from free ribosomes go to | Peroxisome, mitochondria, nucleus and cytoplasm
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Localization sequence | for proteins going to nucleus, mitochondria or peroxisomes (free ribosomes)
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Roles of peroxisome | Metabolize lipids, metabolize toxins using H2O2. Contain catalase.
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Target signal | For RER proteins going places besides plasma membrane or ECM
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Where are the proteins for lysosomes made? | In the RER
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Crinophagy | Digestion of uneeded or excess products
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Factors that affect fluidity of membrane | Unsaturated increases fluidity. Cholesterol prevents extremes. Longer chains decrease fluidity.
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Alternative cAMP | Phospholipase C. It results in increased cytoplasmic Ca
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Microtubules | a and B tubulin. Centrioles (9 triplets). Flagella and cilia (9+ 2 arrangement). Mediate transport of substances (microtubule rod across axon terminus). Less permanent.
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Microfilaments | Actin. Gross movements. Cytokinesis and amoeboid movement. Smallest.
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Epistasis | Expression of one gene depends on another
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Size limit for nuclear envelop | 60 kDa
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Three AA that kinases work on | Serine, Threonine and tyrosine
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What type of kinase is the insuline receptor | Tyrosine
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Contents of desmosome | Int. filaments and keratin
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Anagenesis | One species changes so much that even if it could go back it can't mate with its old self
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Age of the earth | 4.5 billion years old
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When did life on planet start? | Older than 3.5 billion years old
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Old gasses | H2O, CO, CO2, N2
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Energy for spontaneous (abiotic) synthesis of monomers | Lighting, radioactive decay, volcanic decay, and sun radiation. Metal ions on rocks (especially clay) were catalysts
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Proteinoids | Polypeptides made by abiotic synthesis
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Coacervate | Complex particles with polypeptides, nucleic acids and polyssacharides
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What does protobionts include | Microspheres, liposomes, coecervates
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Myelination | Schawn cells for PNS and oligodendrocytes for CNS
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Neuron refractory period | Absolute (inactivation of Na channel, won't fire at all) and relative (hyperpolarization)
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Summations for neurotransmitters | Temporal summation (rapid firing from one neuron keeps adding up to the threshold) and spatial (all postsynaptic potentials are summed up and add to the treshold)
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PNS and urinary system | Induces urination
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Nuclei vs ganglia | Nuclei are somas in CNS, ganglias are somas in PNS
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Three parts of the brain | Hind/rhomboencephalon, fore/prosencephalon, and mid/mesencenphalon
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What does the spinal cord control | Walking, urination, sex organs
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Medulla | Respiration, BP, digestion (vomiting)
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Pons | Balance and antigravity posture. Received info from vestibular apparatus. Acceleration and position relative to gravity.
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Midbrain | Relay visual and auditory information
Reticular activating system (wakefulness and arousal).
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Diencephalon | Thalamus and hypothalamus.
Thalamus relay and process sensory information
Hypothalamus controls emotions and autonomic function (homeostasis)
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Telencephalon | Left - speech
Right - visual, spatial reasoning and music
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Cerebrum white and grey matter | Oreo. Grey outside and white inside.
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Frontal lobe | Voluntary movement, complex reasoning skills and problem solving
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Temporal | Hearing and smell. Short term memory.
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Parietal | General sensation. Touch, temp, pressure, vibration and gustation.
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Basal nuclei (cerebral nuclei) | Grey matter soma. Broadly functions in regulating body movement.
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Limbic system | Between cerebrum and diencephalon. Amygdala, cingulate gyrus and hippocampis
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How many cranial and spinal nerves? | 12 and 31
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All somatic motor neurons.... | Release ACh
Innervate skeletal muscle cells
Soma in brain stem or ventral portion of spinal cord
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Somatic sensory system | The somatic sensory system includes the sensations of touch, pressure, vibration, limb position, heat, cold, and pain.
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All somatic sensory neurons... | Long dendrites
Soma in dorsal root ganglion
First synapse always in CNS (brain or spinal cord)
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Dorsal root ganglion | Somas from somatic/autonomic sensory neurons. Outside meningers but within vertebra
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All autonomic pre-gangliotic neurons release | ACh
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All sympathetic pregangliotic efferent neurons have cell body in | Thoracic or lumbar (sympathetic system is thoracolumbar system)
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All parasympathetic pregangliotic efferent neurons have cell body in | Brain stem or spinal cord (parasympathetic = craniosacral)
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All parasympathetic post ganglionic neurons release | ACh
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Post ganglionic short axon to ganglion near effector |
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How many neurons does the sympathetic/paraympathetic efferent system has | 2
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Autonomic PNS efferent pre-ganlionic soma is | in brainstem or spinal cord
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All autonomic pre-gangliotic neurons release | ACh
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Preganglionic axon length of sypathetic vs parasympathetic | long for para (ganglia far from cord), short for symp (ganglia close to cord)
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Hormones from adrenal cortex | Glucocorticoids (main one is cortisol) and mineralcorticoid (main one is aldosterone)
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Embryological origin of adrenal medulla | Sympathetic NS. Post ganglionic neurons
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What does adrenal medulla produce | Epinephrine. Modified NE.
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Pacinian corpuscles | Pressure sensors in skin
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Vestibular hair cells | In semicircular canals and inner ear. Detect acceleration and position relative to gravity.
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What causes bitter and sour taste | Bitter is base, sour is acid
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Pitch vs. loudness | Pitch is frequency of sound (region of basilar membrane that vibrates). Loudness is amplitude of vibration (large vibrations cause more frequent AP)
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Linear and saccule are involved in | Linear accelration and static equilibrium
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Order of layers of the eye | Cornea is continuous with sclera. Outer to inner is sclera --> choroid --> retina
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Chambers of the eye | Anterior (between cornea and iris), posterior (after iris/pupil and before lense) it's small, and vitreous (after lense)
A and P chamber have aquaous humor and vitrous has vitrous humor
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Rod and cons connection to optic nerve | Rods and cones ---> bipolar cells --> ganglionic cells with axons forming the optic nerve.
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Optic disk | Where ganglion cells converge to form optic nerve that leaves the eye. Blind spot.
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Photoreceptors | Vitamin A derivative. Trans + 1 cis --> all trans
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Myopia | Nearsightedness. Focuses in front of retina. Corrected by concave (diverging lens) )(
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Concave are ___ lenses | Diverging. )(.
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Hyperopia | Farnightedness. Focuses after retina. Corrected by convex (converging) lense ()
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Convex are ____ lenses | Converging. (). V
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Ischemia vs. hypoxia | Ischemia is inadequate flow (waste buildup and no nutrient). Hypoxia is just no oxygen (waste is removed and other nutrients come in)
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Mitral valve | left side. Malfunction can leave to pulmonary edema.
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Distole | Dub-lub. Ventricle is relazed. Atrium contract.
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Systole | Lub-dub. Tricuspid and mitral close, ventricle contract, semilunars close
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Tricuspid | Right side
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Stroke Volume | Amount of blood pumped each systole
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Cardiac output | Total blood pumped per minute. CO=SV*HR
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Two ways to increase cardiac output | Increase HR. Frank-Starling mechanism
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Frank Starling mechanism | Stretching heart makes stronger contractions. Increase venous return. Automatic regulation (More blood received from tissues, more blood pumped out)
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How to increase venous return for Frank Starling mechanism | Increase total volume of blood (Water retention) or contract large veins to propel towards heart.
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Two results from plateu in heart muscle cells | Longer absolute refraction, and depolarization lasts longer (longer contraction)
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Where is the SA node located | Right atrium
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How does the SA node reach threshold first? | Has the most Na leak channels
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Why does AP need to be delayed through AV node (bundle of His) | Because AP goes more slowly through atrium than the internodal path, so ventricle would've contracted first
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SA node depolarization | Ca channel instead of Na. Has automatic slow depolarization (spintaneous).
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Ohm's law for hemodynamic, and how to increase blood flow | deltaPressure = Q(bloodflow)*R
Pressure increased by increasing force of contraction. Peripheral resistance determined by contraction of precapillary sphincters
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Control of peripheral resistance | Controlled by sympathetic system. Andrenergic (sympathetic) tone from constant level of NE of neurons innervating pericapillary sphincter.
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Sphygmomanometer | First beat is when arterial pressure is greater than cuff pressure. Last beat is because now cuff is loose enough to allow smooth blood flow.
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Metabolic wastes causes ____ of arteriolar smooth muscle | Relaxation. Basis for coronary blood vessles, overides nervous input.
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Electroclytes in blood | Na, K, Cl, Ca and Mg
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CO2 buffering. Reaction. | CO2 + H2O --> H2CO3 --> H+ and HCO3-
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Normal hematocrit | 40-45% in males
35-40% in females
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Embryology of hemopoiesis | Liver --> spleen --> bone marrow
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Inheritance pattern of Rh | Dominant
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NLMEB is in order of | Most abundant to least abundant
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Formation of fibrin | Fibrinogen --> fibrin by thrombin
Ca and vitamin K accessory proteins involved
Fibrin is threadline mesh
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Thrombolus | Clot circulating in the blood
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Tense and relaxed conformation of hemoglobin | Tense is not O bound, relaxed is O bound
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Bohr effect | Tense - low pH, high pCO2, high temp
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CO2 transportation | 75% as buffer, 20% hemglobin (allosteric binding) and 7% dissolved in blood
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Does the liver store AA? | Yep
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Do lymphatic vessles have valves? which have thick smooth muscle? | Yes. Larger lymphatic ducts.
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Lymphatic vessles circuit | Capillaries --> lymphatic vessels --> lymphatic ducts (filter through lymph nodes) --> large veins
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Role of lymphatic system | Retrieve water, proteins and WBC. Dump dietary fats.
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Humoral response involves protection by ____ | antibodies
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One role of antibodies that I always forget | Activation of complement system
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T helper cells (CD and MHC) | CD4, and MHCII. Central controllers. Activate B cells, T killer cells, and others through interleukins. Respond to exogenous antigen.
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T killer cells (CD and MHC) | CD8. Cytotoxic T cells. MCH I. Destroy abnormal host cells (virus infected, foreign, tumor). Respond to endogenous antigens.
Perforin and grazyme. Induce apoptosis also.
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What cells have MHCII | Macrophages, B cells, dendritic cells
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Spleen and immune system | Site of immune cell interaction like lymph node
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Colon role | Reabsorb water and ions. Processes waste. Excretes these ions (Na, Cl, Ca...) through active transport.
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Two roles of liver in excretion) | Old heme --> bilirubin --> bile
Synthesis of urea which is less tooxic than ammonia
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What do the kidneys excrete | Small hydrophillic wastes (Urea, Na, HCO3- and water)
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Anatory of kidney (gross) | Medullary pyramids (many collecting ducts) --> papilla (tip of pyramid) --> calyx ---> renal pelvis
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Glomerular basement membrane | Lines capilaries of the glomerulus
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Anatory of kidney (gross) | Medullary pyramids (many collecting ducts) --> papilla (tip of pyramid) --> calyx ---> renal pelvis
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Glomerular basement membrane | Lines capilaries of the glomerulus.
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Filtration | Renal artery --> afferent arteriole --> glomerulus capillaries --> efferent arterioles (constrict for leaking to occur). Peritubular capillaries pick up the reabsorption by active transport.
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Regulation of reabsorption at the level of the PCT | It's not regulated there, it just absorbs as much as it can =]
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Where does secretion occur (kidneys) | Along the DCT and collecting duct. Active transport usually. Back up method to make sure everything is removed (this is now drugs and toxins are removed)
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Another name of ADH | vASOPRESSIN
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ADH | Response to low blood volume, high blood osmolarity, and low BP. Released by posterior pituitary. Makes DCT and CT permeable to water.
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Aldosterone | Released by adrenal cortex in response to low BP, low blood volume, low osmolarity, AND ANGIOTENSIN II. Increase Na reabsorption by distal nephron.
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Diuresis | Water loss in urine.
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Loop of Helen | Descending (thin), permeable to water but not ions. Ascending (thin then thick). This is impermeable to water, ions passively leave, Thick actively transports ions out and is impermeable to water.
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Vasa recta countercurrent | Ascending vasa recta near descending limb ready to reabsorb the water it lost
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Juxtaglomerular apparatus | Contact point between afferent arterioles and distal tubule. JG cells in afferent arteriole monitor systemic pressure, secrette renin when BP drops.
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How is angiotensin II made and what does it do? | Renin converts angiotensinogen (made by liver) --> angiotensin I
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) in lungs turns Angiotensin I --> angiotensin II
Angiotensin is a vasoconstrictor, raises BP and stimulates aldosterone production.
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Macula densa | Cells in distal tube. monitor osmolarity of filtrate, stimulate JG cells to release renin if osmolarity is low. Also cause direct dilatation of afferent arteries to increase filtration (since low osmolarity in filtrate means poor filtration)
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pH renal regulation | pH high, HCO3- excreted. pH low, H + excreted.
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What cells have carbonic anhydrase | RBC and epithelial cells of nephron. Convert CO2 into H2CO3
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All hormones that affect the kidney are ____ except for ____ which is a _____ | peptides. Aldosterone. Steroid.
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Calcitonin | Made by C cells in the thyroid gland. Remove Ca from blood by depositing it in bone, reducing absorption in the gut and inducing excretion in urine.
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Parathyroid hormone | Released by parathyroid glands (theres 4), increase Ca by inducing reabsorption, mobilizing it from bone and induce retention from urine.
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EPO is produced in response ? and its role? | Low O2 levels. Increases RBC synthesis in bone marrow. Its produced by kidney and liver.
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Ptyalin | Salivary amylase
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What releases trypsinogen and chymotrypsinogen | Pancreas
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Purpose of the two layers of muscle in GI | Longitudinal (propel forward) and circular (prevent back movement)
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What determines GI motility | Smooth muscle automaticity! They have functional syncytium. Enteric NS and hormones also.
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Two principal cells in pancreas | Exocrine cells (pancreatic acinar cells) and endocrine cells (islets of Langerhans)
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Where does fat digestion begin? | In mouth, lingual lipase.
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pH of stomach | 2
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Parietal cells | Secrete HCl and things that combine with vitamin B12 for absorption in ileum
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Chief cells | Pepsinogen (activated by acidic autoclevage)
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Control of the pyloric sphincter | Inhibited by large chyme ball in small intestine, stretching of duodenum, excess acidicity in duodenum. Mediated by NS and cholecystokinin.
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G cells | Secrete gastrin. They Stimulate parietal cells to release
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Control of the pyloric sphincter | Inhibited by large chyme ball in small intestine, stretching of duodenum, excess acidicity in duodenum. Mediated by NS and cholecystokinin.
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G cells | Secrete gastrin. Stimulate chief and parietal cells. Stimulates production of histamine
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Histamine | Response to gastrin and stomach stretching. Binds parital cells and stimulates HCl release. Ulcer healing drugs block histamine.
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Peyer's patches. What are they? where are they found? | Collections of lymphocytes dotting villi, monitor GI contants. Found in ileum.
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What are the two ducts that empty in duodenum | Pancreatic and common bile duct. Sphincter of OOdi is where they meet and empty.
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Besides digestive enzymes, what else does the pancreas excrete into the duodenum? | HCO3-
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Duodenal enzymes | Duodenal enterokinase. Activates trypsinogen.
Brush border enzyme for disaccharides and peptides.
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Duodenal hormones | Cholecystokinin (CCK)
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Cholecystokinin | Released by duodenum in response to chyme in duodeunm. Induces release of pancreatic digestive enzymes, gall bradder contraction, decreased gastric motility and relazed pyrolic sphincter
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Secretin | Response to acid in duodenum. Induces pancreas to release HCO3-. Released by duodenum.
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Enterogastrone | Decreases stomach emptying, released by duodenum.
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Ileum particular absorption | Vitamin B12, when combined with stuff from stomach by parietal cells. Ileocecal valve separates cecum from ileum.
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Bacteria in colon particularly important for this vitamin | vitamin K
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Pancreatic proteases | Trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarbozypeptidase and procollagenase.
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Three cell types in the islets of langerhans | A cells (glucagon), B cells (insulin) and G cells (somatostatin, inhibits digestion)
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Three hormones that raise blood glucose and type | Glucagon(peptide, pancreas), epinephrine (AA derivative, adrenal medulla), and cortisol (steroid, adrenal cortex)
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Contents of bile | Bile acids, cholesterol, and bilirubin (RBC heme breakdown)
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Plasma proteins | Albumin, globulin, fibrinogen, clotting factors
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Take up of monosaccharides by intestinal epithelium | Secondary transport, into capillaries by facilitated diffusion
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Take up of AA by intestinal epithelium | Secondary active transport, specific for each AA. Into capillaries by facilitated diffusion. In liver it is catabolized or used for synthesis (no storing I guess)
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Fat take up by intestinal epithelium | Simple diffusion!
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Fat vs water soluble vitamins | Fat soluble - require bile to solubilize ad be absorbed, excess is stored in adipose tissue
Water soluble - excreted in urine
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Abducting | Moving away from the midline
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Epimyum, perimyum and endomyum | Epimyum is outside muscle, perimyum is outside fascille, endomyum is within the fascille surrounding each myofiber (muscle cell)
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What are myofibils | What gives striated appearance to skeletal muscle cells
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Sarcolemma | Membrane that covers myofibers (muscle cells). Contains plasma membrane, polysaccharide layer and collagen. Help fuse with tendon.
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Thick filaments are made of | myosin, and thin filaments are actin.
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Contractile cycle | Cross bridge - myosin bound to ADP binds actin
Power stroke - Myosin moves to lower E state, oulling actin, ADP released.
Release of actin - ATP binds, actin is released
Cocking head - ATP hydrolyzes, myosin back to high E
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What is needed for contractile cycle to occur in vitro | Actin, myosin, ATP and Mg2+
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What is the motor end plate | The myofiber cell membrane
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Miniature end plate potential | Smallest measurable EPP (end plate potential) caused by single ACh vesicle
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Sarcoplasmic reticulum | Enfolds each myofibril, stores/releases Ca.
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Do inhibitory neurons innervate neuromuscular junction | Nope
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How to increse force of contraction | Increase motor unit recruitment (motor unit is a group of myofibers innervated by a single neuron), and frequency of summation (two contractions happen so radpily they add onto one another). This is how tetanus happens.
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Optimum length of sarcomere | 2.2 microns
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Creatine phosphate | Intermediate-term energy storagge molecule because ATP may not be produced fast enough.
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Cardiac muscle vs skeletal muscle | Both - striaed, t tubules, troponin and tropomyosin, length-tension (although more important fro cardiac since skeletal is fixed)
Difference - cardiac is FUNCTIONAL syncytial, has intercalated disks, branching, ACh is inhibitory, Ca channels
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Smooth vs skeletal | Both - Actin and myosin filaments, no branching
Smooth - Narrower/shorter, no T-tubule, FUNCTIONAL syncytia, filaments dispered, calmodulin and MLCK, poor SR, slow waves of AP
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Calmodulin and Myosin light-chain kinase | Calmodulin binds Ca and activates MLCK, which phosphorylates/activates myosin
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As a result of a poorly developed SR in smooth muscl cells | SR stores some Ca but relies on extracytoplasmic Ca
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How is the AP of smooth muscle cells that sustain prolonged contraction | AP is similar to the ones of cardiac muscle cells with less sharp spike since they have less fast channels
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Smooth muscle AP | Don't have sodium fast channels to they rely on slow ones. Slow waves help coordinate AP because parasympathetic NS primes the smooth muscle bringing it closer to threshold and waves push it over
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Amplitude of slow wave is increased by ___ and decreased by ___ | ACh from the parasympathetic system and decreased by NE from sympathetic.
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Hematopoeisis occurs mainly in ____ bones | Flat bones!
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Axial skeleton consists of | Skul, vertebral column and rib cage
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Loose connective tissue | Adipose, ECM and basement membrane
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Dense connective tissue | Large amount of collagen, Bones, tendons, and ligaments
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Where is red bone marrow found | Spongy bone in flat bones
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Where is yellow bone marrow found | In shafts of long bones
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What are spicules or trabeculae | Spikes of bone that surround marrow cavities in spongy bone
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Harvestian system | Osteon, basic unit of bone structure.
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Central (Harvesian) canal | In the center of each osteon. Lymph, blood vessles and nerves. Connected to lacunae by canaliculi extentions
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Perforating (volkmann's canals) | Channel that rubs perpendicular to central canals, and connect osteons
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Where does cartilage tissue get nutrition from? | Perichondrium. Hence the slow repair time
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Three types of cartilage | Hyalin (larynx, trachea, articular cartilage, epiphyseal plate and skull cartilage), elastic cartilage contains elastin (outer ear and epiglottis), and fibrous (pubic symphysis and intervertebral disks)
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Dense regular connective tissue | Ligaments, tendons.
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Dense irregular connective tissue | Periosteum and perichondrium, dermis
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Three types of joints | Synarthroses - immovable
Amphyarthroses - slightly moveable. ex vertebral joints
Diarthrosis - Ball and socket, hinge (elbow)
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All diathrosis joints | Are supposed by ligaments, lubricated by synovial fluid from the synovial capsule, have surface covered by articular cartilage (hyaline)
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Articular cartilage | Joints that are diathrosis.
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Two types of ossification | Endochondral ossification and intramembranous ossification (flat bones)
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Larynx if made entirely of | Cartilage! Contains epiglottis and vocal cords
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Which parts of the repspiratory trees have smooth muscle | Bronchioles and terminal bronchioles
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Does the resp system do thermoregulation | Yep
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Respiratory epithelium of bronchioles | Tall columnar with goblet cells
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Type I alveolar cells | squamous cells in gas exchanging surfaces
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Type II alveolar cells | Surfactant
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Inspiration a passive or active process? Experiation? | aCTIVE. Experiation is passive because of elastic recoil of the lungs
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Pleuras that surround the lungs | Parietal and visceral. Pleural space between with thin layer of fluid to keep things together by tension.
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External intercoastal muscle | Muslce between ribs, they contract during inspiration to pull the rubs upwards and expand chest
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Exertion | Forced exhalation. Contraction of abdominal muscle push diaphragm upwards
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Pleural pressure becomes more negative when.... | Diaphragm contracts and lungs expands, thereby pulling lungs with it
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When is alveolar pressure 0 | End of expiration, when air neither enters or exits and after inspiration before expiration begins
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Tidal volume (TV) | Amount of air in normal breathing. 10% of total volume of the lungs
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Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) | Volume of air that could be expelled after passive expiration
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Inspiratory residual volume | Amount of air taht could be inhaled after passive inhalation
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Functional residual capacity | Volume of air that can be inhaled after resting experiation
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Inpiratory capacity (IC) | Maximum volume of air that can be inhaled after resting expiration
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Residual volume | Amount of air that remains in the lungs after strongest possible expiration
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Vital capacity | Maximum amount of air that can be expired after deepest possible breath
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Total lung capacity | Vital capacity + residual volume
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How do pulmonary arteries/vein adjust to small increase in arterial pressure? | The pulmonary veins dialate to accomodate pressure and prevent edema. If too much pressure, lymphatic vessles in the lungs also help prevent edema.
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Air composition | N2 - 80%
O2 - 20%
H2O - 0.5%
CO2 - 0.04 %
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Three barriers to gas diffusion in the lungs | Alveolar epithelium, interstitial liquid, capillary endothelium. But still diffusion occurs pretty fast.
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What chemical stimuli primarly and secondarily regulate ventilation rate | Primarily are increased co2 and decresed pH, secondarily is decreased O2
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Is CO2 and pH regulated in the CSF | Yes. By the medullary respiratory control center?
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Physical stretching of the lungs and respiratory control center | Stretch receptors sense stretching and inhibit further excitation signals from the respiratory control center
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Stratum basale | The cells there undergo mitosis to replace the epidermis cells that were sloughed off.
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Where are the touch, pressure, pain and temp receptors of the skin found | In the dermis. They signal the parietal lobe =]
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Leydig cells | Interstitial cells. In testicular interstitium. Androgen synthesis.
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Seminiferous tubules to urethra (path) | S. tubules --> epididymis --> ductus deferens --> urethra
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Semen includes fluids from these glands... | Seminal vesicle (behind bladder, contributes 60% total volume)
Prostate
Bolbourethral glands
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Erectile tissue in penis (three compartments) | (2X) corpora cavernosa (top)
1 corpus sponginosum
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Two stages of arousal in male | Depends on parasympathetic NS.
1. Erection (dilatation of arteries, swelling, obstruction of venous outflow)
2. Lubrication (bulbourethral glands
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Two stages of orgasm in male | Controlled by sympathetic NS.
1. Emission: Propoulsion of sperm from ductus deferens to urethra (smooth muscle contraction)
2. Ejaculation: Rhythmic contraction of muscle around base. Reflect to semen in urethra.
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Syngamy | Fusion of egg and sperm
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Sertoli cells (sustentacular cells) | Protect andnurture the sperm. They are in the walls of the sminiferous tubules
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Where does the sperm become mobile | In the ductus deferens
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What type of cells help spermatid-->sperm transformation | Sustentacular cells like steroli
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Bindin on the surface of sperm is for.... | Binding to zona pellucida
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Anterior pituitary hormone mneumonics | FLAGTOP
FSH
LH
ACTH
GH
TSH (Thyroid stimulating)
O - melanOcyte stimulating hormone
Prolactin
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What male cells does FSH stimulate | Sustentacular cells. Sustentacular cells release inhibin, which inhibits FSH
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What male cells does LH stimulate | Interstitial (leydig) cells to secrete testosterone
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Wolffian ducts would give rise to... | Epididymis, seminal vesicle, ductus deferens
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Mullerian ducts would give rise to... | Uterine tubes, uterus, inner vagina
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Presence of Y and wolffian and mullerian ducts | Y --> testes develop and produce mullerian inhibitin factor and testosterone
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Female counterpart of bulbourethral glands | Greater vestibular gland. Lubrication
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Two primary estrogens | Estrogen and estradiol. Both produced in ovaries.
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Sex steroid control through hypothalamus | Hypothalamus makes GnRH --> anterior pituitary releases gonadotropins (LH and FSH) --> stimulate testosterone/CL and sustentacular/granulosa cells. Feedback because inhibin (from granulosa and sustentacular) inhibit FSH. Steroids inhibit GnRH
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Can dominant autosomal traits skip generations | No
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