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MCAT Biology (VL)

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
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Question
Answer
How many protons needed per ATP?   4H  
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Hexokinase allosteric regulation   Feedback inhibition by G6P  
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Phosphofructokinase allosteric regulation   Feedback inhibition by ATP  
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Pyruvate dehydrogenase allosteric regulation   Stimulated by AMP  
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Prosthetic group   Nonprotein molecule covalently bonded to active site  
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Co-Factor   Organic or inorganic substance that aids in enzyme function without interacting with the enzyme  
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How many carbons in acetyl CoA and OAA   Acetyl CoA (2) + OAA (4) = Citrate (6)  
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Location for gluconeogenesis   Primarily in the liver and slightly in the kidneys  
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AA catabolism   Ammino group --> Urea Carbon skeleton --> H2O and CO2, glucose, acetyl CoA  
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What order is DNA written?   5' to 3'  
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Helix repeats every (# bp, and angstroms)   10 bp, 34 angstroms  
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Distance between stacked bases   3.4 angstroms  
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Transition vs. transversion   transVERSION changes the version Pu to Py  
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Prokaryote polymerase that lays down primers   Primase  
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DNA pol I   Everything DNA pol III plus 5' to 3' exonuclease activity (removes primer)  
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DNA pol II   DNA repair, both exonucleases activity but mostly unknown  
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DNA pol III   Main polymerase. Fast and accurate. 5 to 3 elongation and 3 to 5 exonuclease.  
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Names for non-transcribed strand   Coding or sense strand  
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Prokaryote promoter   Pribnow box (-10) and -35 sequence  
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RNA polymerase closed vs. open complex   Closed complex on the promoter and open complex when bound to a single strand  
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Steps in translation that require GTP   Initiation at P site, entrance of tRNA to A site, and translocation to E  
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Phosphate bonds required for translation based on AA #   4N  
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Another word of attachment of a virus and penetration   Adsorption and eclipse  
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Lytic cycle in animal viruses   Productive cycle. It doesn't destroy cells  
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Three classifications of prokaryotes   Bacteria, archaebacteria and cyanobacteria  
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Type of peptidoglycan not found in humans   D, we use L  
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Flagella in prokaryotes vs eukaryotes   Similar to ATP synthase for prokaryotes and 9+2 structure for eukaryotes  
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Facultative anaerobes   Use oxygen if it's around but don't need it  
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Two parts of the fungi thallus and their role   Vegetative (collects nutrients) and fruiting (asexual reproduction)  
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Roles of smooth ER   Detoxification, glycogen breakdown, some glycosylation, disulfide bond formation  
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Roles of Golgi body   Glycosylation, macromolecule synthesis (polysaccharides to be secreted)  
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Proteins from free ribosomes go to   Peroxisome, mitochondria, nucleus and cytoplasm  
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Localization sequence   for proteins going to nucleus, mitochondria or peroxisomes (free ribosomes)  
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Roles of peroxisome   Metabolize lipids, metabolize toxins using H2O2. Contain catalase.  
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Target signal   For RER proteins going places besides plasma membrane or ECM  
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Where are the proteins for lysosomes made?   In the RER  
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Crinophagy   Digestion of uneeded or excess products  
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Factors that affect fluidity of membrane   Unsaturated increases fluidity. Cholesterol prevents extremes. Longer chains decrease fluidity.  
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Alternative cAMP   Phospholipase C. It results in increased cytoplasmic Ca  
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Microtubules   a and B tubulin. Centrioles (9 triplets). Flagella and cilia (9+ 2 arrangement). Mediate transport of substances (microtubule rod across axon terminus). Less permanent.  
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Microfilaments   Actin. Gross movements. Cytokinesis and amoeboid movement. Smallest.  
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Epistasis   Expression of one gene depends on another  
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Size limit for nuclear envelop   60 kDa  
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Three AA that kinases work on   Serine, Threonine and tyrosine  
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What type of kinase is the insuline receptor   Tyrosine  
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Contents of desmosome   Int. filaments and keratin  
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Anagenesis   One species changes so much that even if it could go back it can't mate with its old self  
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Age of the earth   4.5 billion years old  
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When did life on planet start?   Older than 3.5 billion years old  
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Old gasses   H2O, CO, CO2, N2  
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Energy for spontaneous (abiotic) synthesis of monomers   Lighting, radioactive decay, volcanic decay, and sun radiation. Metal ions on rocks (especially clay) were catalysts  
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Proteinoids   Polypeptides made by abiotic synthesis  
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Coacervate   Complex particles with polypeptides, nucleic acids and polyssacharides  
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What does protobionts include   Microspheres, liposomes, coecervates  
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Myelination   Schawn cells for PNS and oligodendrocytes for CNS  
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Neuron refractory period   Absolute (inactivation of Na channel, won't fire at all) and relative (hyperpolarization)  
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Summations for neurotransmitters   Temporal summation (rapid firing from one neuron keeps adding up to the threshold) and spatial (all postsynaptic potentials are summed up and add to the treshold)  
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PNS and urinary system   Induces urination  
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Nuclei vs ganglia   Nuclei are somas in CNS, ganglias are somas in PNS  
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Three parts of the brain   Hind/rhomboencephalon, fore/prosencephalon, and mid/mesencenphalon  
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What does the spinal cord control   Walking, urination, sex organs  
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Medulla   Respiration, BP, digestion (vomiting)  
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Pons   Balance and antigravity posture. Received info from vestibular apparatus. Acceleration and position relative to gravity.  
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Midbrain   Relay visual and auditory information Reticular activating system (wakefulness and arousal).  
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Diencephalon   Thalamus and hypothalamus. Thalamus relay and process sensory information Hypothalamus controls emotions and autonomic function (homeostasis)  
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Telencephalon   Left - speech Right - visual, spatial reasoning and music  
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Cerebrum white and grey matter   Oreo. Grey outside and white inside.  
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Frontal lobe   Voluntary movement, complex reasoning skills and problem solving  
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Temporal   Hearing and smell. Short term memory.  
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Parietal   General sensation. Touch, temp, pressure, vibration and gustation.  
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Basal nuclei (cerebral nuclei)   Grey matter soma. Broadly functions in regulating body movement.  
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Limbic system   Between cerebrum and diencephalon. Amygdala, cingulate gyrus and hippocampis  
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How many cranial and spinal nerves?   12 and 31  
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All somatic motor neurons....   Release ACh Innervate skeletal muscle cells Soma in brain stem or ventral portion of spinal cord  
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Somatic sensory system   The somatic sensory system includes the sensations of touch, pressure, vibration, limb position, heat, cold, and pain.  
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All somatic sensory neurons...   Long dendrites Soma in dorsal root ganglion First synapse always in CNS (brain or spinal cord)  
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Dorsal root ganglion   Somas from somatic/autonomic sensory neurons. Outside meningers but within vertebra  
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All autonomic pre-gangliotic neurons release   ACh  
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All sympathetic pregangliotic efferent neurons have cell body in   Thoracic or lumbar (sympathetic system is thoracolumbar system)  
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All parasympathetic pregangliotic efferent neurons have cell body in   Brain stem or spinal cord (parasympathetic = craniosacral)  
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All parasympathetic post ganglionic neurons release   ACh  
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Post ganglionic short axon to ganglion near effector    
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How many neurons does the sympathetic/paraympathetic efferent system has   2  
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Autonomic PNS efferent pre-ganlionic soma is   in brainstem or spinal cord  
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All autonomic pre-gangliotic neurons release   ACh  
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Preganglionic axon length of sypathetic vs parasympathetic   long for para (ganglia far from cord), short for symp (ganglia close to cord)  
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Hormones from adrenal cortex   Glucocorticoids (main one is cortisol) and mineralcorticoid (main one is aldosterone)  
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Embryological origin of adrenal medulla   Sympathetic NS. Post ganglionic neurons  
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What does adrenal medulla produce   Epinephrine. Modified NE.  
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Pacinian corpuscles   Pressure sensors in skin  
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Vestibular hair cells   In semicircular canals and inner ear. Detect acceleration and position relative to gravity.  
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What causes bitter and sour taste   Bitter is base, sour is acid  
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Pitch vs. loudness   Pitch is frequency of sound (region of basilar membrane that vibrates). Loudness is amplitude of vibration (large vibrations cause more frequent AP)  
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Linear and saccule are involved in   Linear accelration and static equilibrium  
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Order of layers of the eye   Cornea is continuous with sclera. Outer to inner is sclera --> choroid --> retina  
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Chambers of the eye   Anterior (between cornea and iris), posterior (after iris/pupil and before lense) it's small, and vitreous (after lense) A and P chamber have aquaous humor and vitrous has vitrous humor  
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Rod and cons connection to optic nerve   Rods and cones ---> bipolar cells --> ganglionic cells with axons forming the optic nerve.  
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Optic disk   Where ganglion cells converge to form optic nerve that leaves the eye. Blind spot.  
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Photoreceptors   Vitamin A derivative. Trans + 1 cis --> all trans  
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Myopia   Nearsightedness. Focuses in front of retina. Corrected by concave (diverging lens) )(  
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Concave are ___ lenses   Diverging. )(.  
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Hyperopia   Farnightedness. Focuses after retina. Corrected by convex (converging) lense ()  
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Convex are ____ lenses   Converging. (). V  
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Ischemia vs. hypoxia   Ischemia is inadequate flow (waste buildup and no nutrient). Hypoxia is just no oxygen (waste is removed and other nutrients come in)  
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Mitral valve   left side. Malfunction can leave to pulmonary edema.  
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Distole   Dub-lub. Ventricle is relazed. Atrium contract.  
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Systole   Lub-dub. Tricuspid and mitral close, ventricle contract, semilunars close  
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Tricuspid   Right side  
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Stroke Volume   Amount of blood pumped each systole  
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Cardiac output   Total blood pumped per minute. CO=SV*HR  
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Two ways to increase cardiac output   Increase HR. Frank-Starling mechanism  
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Frank Starling mechanism   Stretching heart makes stronger contractions. Increase venous return. Automatic regulation (More blood received from tissues, more blood pumped out)  
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How to increase venous return for Frank Starling mechanism   Increase total volume of blood (Water retention) or contract large veins to propel towards heart.  
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Two results from plateu in heart muscle cells   Longer absolute refraction, and depolarization lasts longer (longer contraction)  
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Where is the SA node located   Right atrium  
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How does the SA node reach threshold first?   Has the most Na leak channels  
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Why does AP need to be delayed through AV node (bundle of His)   Because AP goes more slowly through atrium than the internodal path, so ventricle would've contracted first  
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SA node depolarization   Ca channel instead of Na. Has automatic slow depolarization (spintaneous).  
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Ohm's law for hemodynamic, and how to increase blood flow   deltaPressure = Q(bloodflow)*R Pressure increased by increasing force of contraction. Peripheral resistance determined by contraction of precapillary sphincters  
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Control of peripheral resistance   Controlled by sympathetic system. Andrenergic (sympathetic) tone from constant level of NE of neurons innervating pericapillary sphincter.  
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Sphygmomanometer   First beat is when arterial pressure is greater than cuff pressure. Last beat is because now cuff is loose enough to allow smooth blood flow.  
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Metabolic wastes causes ____ of arteriolar smooth muscle   Relaxation. Basis for coronary blood vessles, overides nervous input.  
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Electroclytes in blood   Na, K, Cl, Ca and Mg  
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CO2 buffering. Reaction.   CO2 + H2O --> H2CO3 --> H+ and HCO3-  
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Normal hematocrit   40-45% in males 35-40% in females  
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Embryology of hemopoiesis   Liver --> spleen --> bone marrow  
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Inheritance pattern of Rh   Dominant  
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NLMEB is in order of   Most abundant to least abundant  
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Formation of fibrin   Fibrinogen --> fibrin by thrombin Ca and vitamin K accessory proteins involved Fibrin is threadline mesh  
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Thrombolus   Clot circulating in the blood  
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Tense and relaxed conformation of hemoglobin   Tense is not O bound, relaxed is O bound  
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Bohr effect   Tense - low pH, high pCO2, high temp  
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CO2 transportation   75% as buffer, 20% hemglobin (allosteric binding) and 7% dissolved in blood  
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Does the liver store AA?   Yep  
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Do lymphatic vessles have valves? which have thick smooth muscle?   Yes. Larger lymphatic ducts.  
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Lymphatic vessles circuit   Capillaries --> lymphatic vessels --> lymphatic ducts (filter through lymph nodes) --> large veins  
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Role of lymphatic system   Retrieve water, proteins and WBC. Dump dietary fats.  
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Humoral response involves protection by ____   antibodies  
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One role of antibodies that I always forget   Activation of complement system  
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T helper cells (CD and MHC)   CD4, and MHCII. Central controllers. Activate B cells, T killer cells, and others through interleukins. Respond to exogenous antigen.  
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T killer cells (CD and MHC)   CD8. Cytotoxic T cells. MCH I. Destroy abnormal host cells (virus infected, foreign, tumor). Respond to endogenous antigens. Perforin and grazyme. Induce apoptosis also.  
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What cells have MHCII   Macrophages, B cells, dendritic cells  
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Spleen and immune system   Site of immune cell interaction like lymph node  
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Colon role   Reabsorb water and ions. Processes waste. Excretes these ions (Na, Cl, Ca...) through active transport.  
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Two roles of liver in excretion)   Old heme --> bilirubin --> bile Synthesis of urea which is less tooxic than ammonia  
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What do the kidneys excrete   Small hydrophillic wastes (Urea, Na, HCO3- and water)  
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Anatory of kidney (gross)   Medullary pyramids (many collecting ducts) --> papilla (tip of pyramid) --> calyx ---> renal pelvis  
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Glomerular basement membrane   Lines capilaries of the glomerulus  
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Anatory of kidney (gross)   Medullary pyramids (many collecting ducts) --> papilla (tip of pyramid) --> calyx ---> renal pelvis  
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Glomerular basement membrane   Lines capilaries of the glomerulus.  
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Filtration   Renal artery --> afferent arteriole --> glomerulus capillaries --> efferent arterioles (constrict for leaking to occur). Peritubular capillaries pick up the reabsorption by active transport.  
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Regulation of reabsorption at the level of the PCT   It's not regulated there, it just absorbs as much as it can =]  
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Where does secretion occur (kidneys)   Along the DCT and collecting duct. Active transport usually. Back up method to make sure everything is removed (this is now drugs and toxins are removed)  
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Another name of ADH   vASOPRESSIN  
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ADH   Response to low blood volume, high blood osmolarity, and low BP. Released by posterior pituitary. Makes DCT and CT permeable to water.  
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Aldosterone   Released by adrenal cortex in response to low BP, low blood volume, low osmolarity, AND ANGIOTENSIN II. Increase Na reabsorption by distal nephron.  
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Diuresis   Water loss in urine.  
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Loop of Helen   Descending (thin), permeable to water but not ions. Ascending (thin then thick). This is impermeable to water, ions passively leave, Thick actively transports ions out and is impermeable to water.  
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Vasa recta countercurrent   Ascending vasa recta near descending limb ready to reabsorb the water it lost  
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Juxtaglomerular apparatus   Contact point between afferent arterioles and distal tubule. JG cells in afferent arteriole monitor systemic pressure, secrette renin when BP drops.  
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How is angiotensin II made and what does it do?   Renin converts angiotensinogen (made by liver) --> angiotensin I Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) in lungs turns Angiotensin I --> angiotensin II Angiotensin is a vasoconstrictor, raises BP and stimulates aldosterone production.  
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Macula densa   Cells in distal tube. monitor osmolarity of filtrate, stimulate JG cells to release renin if osmolarity is low. Also cause direct dilatation of afferent arteries to increase filtration (since low osmolarity in filtrate means poor filtration)  
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pH renal regulation   pH high, HCO3- excreted. pH low, H + excreted.  
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What cells have carbonic anhydrase   RBC and epithelial cells of nephron. Convert CO2 into H2CO3  
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All hormones that affect the kidney are ____ except for ____ which is a _____   peptides. Aldosterone. Steroid.  
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Calcitonin   Made by C cells in the thyroid gland. Remove Ca from blood by depositing it in bone, reducing absorption in the gut and inducing excretion in urine.  
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Parathyroid hormone   Released by parathyroid glands (theres 4), increase Ca by inducing reabsorption, mobilizing it from bone and induce retention from urine.  
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EPO is produced in response ? and its role?   Low O2 levels. Increases RBC synthesis in bone marrow. Its produced by kidney and liver.  
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Ptyalin   Salivary amylase  
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What releases trypsinogen and chymotrypsinogen   Pancreas  
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Purpose of the two layers of muscle in GI   Longitudinal (propel forward) and circular (prevent back movement)  
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What determines GI motility   Smooth muscle automaticity! They have functional syncytium. Enteric NS and hormones also.  
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Two principal cells in pancreas   Exocrine cells (pancreatic acinar cells) and endocrine cells (islets of Langerhans)  
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Where does fat digestion begin?   In mouth, lingual lipase.  
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pH of stomach   2  
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Parietal cells   Secrete HCl and things that combine with vitamin B12 for absorption in ileum  
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Chief cells   Pepsinogen (activated by acidic autoclevage)  
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Control of the pyloric sphincter   Inhibited by large chyme ball in small intestine, stretching of duodenum, excess acidicity in duodenum. Mediated by NS and cholecystokinin.  
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G cells   Secrete gastrin. They Stimulate parietal cells to release  
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Control of the pyloric sphincter   Inhibited by large chyme ball in small intestine, stretching of duodenum, excess acidicity in duodenum. Mediated by NS and cholecystokinin.  
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G cells   Secrete gastrin. Stimulate chief and parietal cells. Stimulates production of histamine  
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Histamine   Response to gastrin and stomach stretching. Binds parital cells and stimulates HCl release. Ulcer healing drugs block histamine.  
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Peyer's patches. What are they? where are they found?   Collections of lymphocytes dotting villi, monitor GI contants. Found in ileum.  
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What are the two ducts that empty in duodenum   Pancreatic and common bile duct. Sphincter of OOdi is where they meet and empty.  
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Besides digestive enzymes, what else does the pancreas excrete into the duodenum?   HCO3-  
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Duodenal enzymes   Duodenal enterokinase. Activates trypsinogen. Brush border enzyme for disaccharides and peptides.  
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Duodenal hormones   Cholecystokinin (CCK)  
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Cholecystokinin   Released by duodenum in response to chyme in duodeunm. Induces release of pancreatic digestive enzymes, gall bradder contraction, decreased gastric motility and relazed pyrolic sphincter  
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Secretin   Response to acid in duodenum. Induces pancreas to release HCO3-. Released by duodenum.  
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Enterogastrone   Decreases stomach emptying, released by duodenum.  
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Ileum particular absorption   Vitamin B12, when combined with stuff from stomach by parietal cells. Ileocecal valve separates cecum from ileum.  
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Bacteria in colon particularly important for this vitamin   vitamin K  
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Pancreatic proteases   Trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarbozypeptidase and procollagenase.  
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Three cell types in the islets of langerhans   A cells (glucagon), B cells (insulin) and G cells (somatostatin, inhibits digestion)  
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Three hormones that raise blood glucose and type   Glucagon(peptide, pancreas), epinephrine (AA derivative, adrenal medulla), and cortisol (steroid, adrenal cortex)  
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Contents of bile   Bile acids, cholesterol, and bilirubin (RBC heme breakdown)  
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Plasma proteins   Albumin, globulin, fibrinogen, clotting factors  
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Take up of monosaccharides by intestinal epithelium   Secondary transport, into capillaries by facilitated diffusion  
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Take up of AA by intestinal epithelium   Secondary active transport, specific for each AA. Into capillaries by facilitated diffusion. In liver it is catabolized or used for synthesis (no storing I guess)  
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Fat take up by intestinal epithelium   Simple diffusion!  
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Fat vs water soluble vitamins   Fat soluble - require bile to solubilize ad be absorbed, excess is stored in adipose tissue Water soluble - excreted in urine  
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Abducting   Moving away from the midline  
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Epimyum, perimyum and endomyum   Epimyum is outside muscle, perimyum is outside fascille, endomyum is within the fascille surrounding each myofiber (muscle cell)  
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What are myofibils   What gives striated appearance to skeletal muscle cells  
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Sarcolemma   Membrane that covers myofibers (muscle cells). Contains plasma membrane, polysaccharide layer and collagen. Help fuse with tendon.  
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Thick filaments are made of   myosin, and thin filaments are actin.  
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Contractile cycle   Cross bridge - myosin bound to ADP binds actin Power stroke - Myosin moves to lower E state, oulling actin, ADP released. Release of actin - ATP binds, actin is released Cocking head - ATP hydrolyzes, myosin back to high E  
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What is needed for contractile cycle to occur in vitro   Actin, myosin, ATP and Mg2+  
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What is the motor end plate   The myofiber cell membrane  
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Miniature end plate potential   Smallest measurable EPP (end plate potential) caused by single ACh vesicle  
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Sarcoplasmic reticulum   Enfolds each myofibril, stores/releases Ca.  
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Do inhibitory neurons innervate neuromuscular junction   Nope  
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How to increse force of contraction   Increase motor unit recruitment (motor unit is a group of myofibers innervated by a single neuron), and frequency of summation (two contractions happen so radpily they add onto one another). This is how tetanus happens.  
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Optimum length of sarcomere   2.2 microns  
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Creatine phosphate   Intermediate-term energy storagge molecule because ATP may not be produced fast enough.  
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Cardiac muscle vs skeletal muscle   Both - striaed, t tubules, troponin and tropomyosin, length-tension (although more important fro cardiac since skeletal is fixed) Difference - cardiac is FUNCTIONAL syncytial, has intercalated disks, branching, ACh is inhibitory, Ca channels  
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Smooth vs skeletal   Both - Actin and myosin filaments, no branching Smooth - Narrower/shorter, no T-tubule, FUNCTIONAL syncytia, filaments dispered, calmodulin and MLCK, poor SR, slow waves of AP  
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Calmodulin and Myosin light-chain kinase   Calmodulin binds Ca and activates MLCK, which phosphorylates/activates myosin  
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As a result of a poorly developed SR in smooth muscl cells   SR stores some Ca but relies on extracytoplasmic Ca  
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How is the AP of smooth muscle cells that sustain prolonged contraction   AP is similar to the ones of cardiac muscle cells with less sharp spike since they have less fast channels  
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Smooth muscle AP   Don't have sodium fast channels to they rely on slow ones. Slow waves help coordinate AP because parasympathetic NS primes the smooth muscle bringing it closer to threshold and waves push it over  
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Amplitude of slow wave is increased by ___ and decreased by ___   ACh from the parasympathetic system and decreased by NE from sympathetic.  
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Hematopoeisis occurs mainly in ____ bones   Flat bones!  
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Axial skeleton consists of   Skul, vertebral column and rib cage  
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Loose connective tissue   Adipose, ECM and basement membrane  
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Dense connective tissue   Large amount of collagen, Bones, tendons, and ligaments  
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Where is red bone marrow found   Spongy bone in flat bones  
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Where is yellow bone marrow found   In shafts of long bones  
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What are spicules or trabeculae   Spikes of bone that surround marrow cavities in spongy bone  
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Harvestian system   Osteon, basic unit of bone structure.  
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Central (Harvesian) canal   In the center of each osteon. Lymph, blood vessles and nerves. Connected to lacunae by canaliculi extentions  
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Perforating (volkmann's canals)   Channel that rubs perpendicular to central canals, and connect osteons  
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Where does cartilage tissue get nutrition from?   Perichondrium. Hence the slow repair time  
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Three types of cartilage   Hyalin (larynx, trachea, articular cartilage, epiphyseal plate and skull cartilage), elastic cartilage contains elastin (outer ear and epiglottis), and fibrous (pubic symphysis and intervertebral disks)  
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Dense regular connective tissue   Ligaments, tendons.  
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Dense irregular connective tissue   Periosteum and perichondrium, dermis  
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Three types of joints   Synarthroses - immovable Amphyarthroses - slightly moveable. ex vertebral joints Diarthrosis - Ball and socket, hinge (elbow)  
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All diathrosis joints   Are supposed by ligaments, lubricated by synovial fluid from the synovial capsule, have surface covered by articular cartilage (hyaline)  
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Articular cartilage   Joints that are diathrosis.  
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Two types of ossification   Endochondral ossification and intramembranous ossification (flat bones)  
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Larynx if made entirely of   Cartilage! Contains epiglottis and vocal cords  
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Which parts of the repspiratory trees have smooth muscle   Bronchioles and terminal bronchioles  
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Does the resp system do thermoregulation   Yep  
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Respiratory epithelium of bronchioles   Tall columnar with goblet cells  
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Type I alveolar cells   squamous cells in gas exchanging surfaces  
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Type II alveolar cells   Surfactant  
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Inspiration a passive or active process? Experiation?   aCTIVE. Experiation is passive because of elastic recoil of the lungs  
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Pleuras that surround the lungs   Parietal and visceral. Pleural space between with thin layer of fluid to keep things together by tension.  
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External intercoastal muscle   Muslce between ribs, they contract during inspiration to pull the rubs upwards and expand chest  
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Exertion   Forced exhalation. Contraction of abdominal muscle push diaphragm upwards  
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Pleural pressure becomes more negative when....   Diaphragm contracts and lungs expands, thereby pulling lungs with it  
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When is alveolar pressure 0   End of expiration, when air neither enters or exits and after inspiration before expiration begins  
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Tidal volume (TV)   Amount of air in normal breathing. 10% of total volume of the lungs  
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Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)   Volume of air that could be expelled after passive expiration  
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Inspiratory residual volume   Amount of air taht could be inhaled after passive inhalation  
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Functional residual capacity   Volume of air that can be inhaled after resting experiation  
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Inpiratory capacity (IC)   Maximum volume of air that can be inhaled after resting expiration  
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Residual volume   Amount of air that remains in the lungs after strongest possible expiration  
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Vital capacity   Maximum amount of air that can be expired after deepest possible breath  
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Total lung capacity   Vital capacity + residual volume  
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How do pulmonary arteries/vein adjust to small increase in arterial pressure?   The pulmonary veins dialate to accomodate pressure and prevent edema. If too much pressure, lymphatic vessles in the lungs also help prevent edema.  
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Air composition   N2 - 80% O2 - 20% H2O - 0.5% CO2 - 0.04 %  
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Three barriers to gas diffusion in the lungs   Alveolar epithelium, interstitial liquid, capillary endothelium. But still diffusion occurs pretty fast.  
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What chemical stimuli primarly and secondarily regulate ventilation rate   Primarily are increased co2 and decresed pH, secondarily is decreased O2  
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Is CO2 and pH regulated in the CSF   Yes. By the medullary respiratory control center?  
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Physical stretching of the lungs and respiratory control center   Stretch receptors sense stretching and inhibit further excitation signals from the respiratory control center  
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Stratum basale   The cells there undergo mitosis to replace the epidermis cells that were sloughed off.  
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Where are the touch, pressure, pain and temp receptors of the skin found   In the dermis. They signal the parietal lobe =]  
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Leydig cells   Interstitial cells. In testicular interstitium. Androgen synthesis.  
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Seminiferous tubules to urethra (path)   S. tubules --> epididymis --> ductus deferens --> urethra  
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Semen includes fluids from these glands...   Seminal vesicle (behind bladder, contributes 60% total volume) Prostate Bolbourethral glands  
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Erectile tissue in penis (three compartments)   (2X) corpora cavernosa (top) 1 corpus sponginosum  
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Two stages of arousal in male   Depends on parasympathetic NS. 1. Erection (dilatation of arteries, swelling, obstruction of venous outflow) 2. Lubrication (bulbourethral glands  
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Two stages of orgasm in male   Controlled by sympathetic NS. 1. Emission: Propoulsion of sperm from ductus deferens to urethra (smooth muscle contraction) 2. Ejaculation: Rhythmic contraction of muscle around base. Reflect to semen in urethra.  
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Syngamy   Fusion of egg and sperm  
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Sertoli cells (sustentacular cells)   Protect andnurture the sperm. They are in the walls of the sminiferous tubules  
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Where does the sperm become mobile   In the ductus deferens  
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What type of cells help spermatid-->sperm transformation   Sustentacular cells like steroli  
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Bindin on the surface of sperm is for....   Binding to zona pellucida  
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Anterior pituitary hormone mneumonics   FLAGTOP FSH LH ACTH GH TSH (Thyroid stimulating) O - melanOcyte stimulating hormone Prolactin  
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What male cells does FSH stimulate   Sustentacular cells. Sustentacular cells release inhibin, which inhibits FSH  
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What male cells does LH stimulate   Interstitial (leydig) cells to secrete testosterone  
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Wolffian ducts would give rise to...   Epididymis, seminal vesicle, ductus deferens  
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Mullerian ducts would give rise to...   Uterine tubes, uterus, inner vagina  
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Presence of Y and wolffian and mullerian ducts   Y --> testes develop and produce mullerian inhibitin factor and testosterone  
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Female counterpart of bulbourethral glands   Greater vestibular gland. Lubrication  
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Two primary estrogens   Estrogen and estradiol. Both produced in ovaries.  
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Sex steroid control through hypothalamus   Hypothalamus makes GnRH --> anterior pituitary releases gonadotropins (LH and FSH) --> stimulate testosterone/CL and sustentacular/granulosa cells. Feedback because inhibin (from granulosa and sustentacular) inhibit FSH. Steroids inhibit GnRH  
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Can dominant autosomal traits skip generations   No  
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