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Bacterial Diseases of the Skin

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
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Question
Answer
What are the most common causes of impetigo?   Staph aureus (most common) and Strep pyogenes  
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What is the cause of bullous impetigo?   Staph aureus - the phage group II production locally  
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What protein is cleaved in bullous impetigo that causes the blister?   desmoglein 1  
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What is the clinical presentation of non-bullous impetigo?   -single erythematous macule that rapidly evolves into a vesicle or pustule and rapidly spreads into a "honey-colored" crust  
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What is the potential side effect of 5% of causes of nonbullous impetigo caused by strep pyogenes?   post-strep glomerulonephritis (risk is not changed by giving antibiotics)  
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What patient population does bullous impetigo occur in?   usually neonates  
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What is the histology of impetigo?   -small neutrophilic vesiculopustules in the epidermis -spongiosis -intense infiltrate of neutrophils and lymphs in the upper dermis  
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What is the treatment of non-complicated impetigo?   mupirocin retapamulin  
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What is the most common cause of bacterial folliculitis?   Staph aureus  
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What is sycosis barbae?   a type deep of folliculitis with large erythematous papules with a central pustule, sometimes coalescing to form pustules and crusts  
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How can you eradicate staph aureus nasal carriage?   mupirocin ointment BID to the nares x 5-10 days  
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What is the most common presentation of MRSA?   furuncolosis  
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What is the cause of methiciliin resistance in staph?   altered penicillin-binding protein (PBP2a) with decreased affinity for beta-lactams  
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What is the D test (double-disk diffusion)?   Tests for inducible resistance to clindamycin; if the "erm" gene is present, and the bug is resistant to erythromycin, then resistance to clindamycin will develop  
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What are the most common causes of blistering distal dactylitis?   group A strep and staph aureus  
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Where is the location of blistering distal dactylitis?   volar fat pad of the finger or toe with occasional involvement of the nail fold  
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What is the treatment of blistering distal dactylitis?   10 day course of antibiotics and drainage  
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What patient population typically gets blistering distal dactylitis?   children aged 2-16 years (from nose-picking)  
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What is the cause of ecthyma?   strep pyogenes  
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What are the clinical features of ecthyma?   initial vesiculopustule that enlarges and develops a hemorrhagi crust with a "punched-out" appearance and necrotic base  
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What is the most common location of ecthyma?   lower extremity  
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What is the cause of staph scalded skin syndrome?   phage group II strains 55 and 71  
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What protein is cleaved in SSSS?   desmoglein 1  
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What host factors contribute to the development of SSSS?   -decreased renal clearance of the toxin -lack of toxin-neutralizing antibodies  
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Where is the epidermal split in SSSS?   within or below the stratum granulosum  
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What is the prodrome of SSSS?   malaise, fever, irritability, tenderness of the skin, rhinorrhea, conjunctivitis -erythema of the head with variable facial edema that occurs 48 hours before the onset  
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What are the differences between staph and strep toxic shock syndromes?   patients with strep typically have a localized soft tissue infection with lacerations, bites, etc -strep often has positive blood cultures (staph does not) -mortality is much higher for strep (50-60%)  
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What are the clinical features of toxic shock syndrome?   -fever -rash (diffuse macular erythema) -desquamation -hypotension -involvement of: GI, CNS, renal, hepatic, mucous membranes  
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What antibiotic actually suppresses protein and toxin production from staph?   clindamycin  
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What bacteria is the cause of scarlet fever?   group A beta hemolytic strep, specifically strep pyrogenic exotoxins A,B,C  
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What is the typical patient population for scarlet fever?   children younger than 10 (after 10 most of the population has developed anti-strep pyrogenic toxin antibodies)  
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What type of illness does scarlet fever usually follow?   tonsillitis or pharyngitis  
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What are the clinical features of scarlet fever?   -sore throat, headache, malaise, chills, anorexia, nausea, and high fever, abdominal pain, vomiting -cutaneous eruption begins 12-48 hours later as blanchable erythema on the neck, chest, and axillae with small papules that feel like sandpaper  
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What are the cutaneous features of scarlet fever?   -"sunburn with goose pimples" that develops 12-48 hours after the onset of the illness -Pastia's lines (linear petechial streaks) in the axillae, antecubital, and inguinal areas -flushed cheeks -circumoral pallor -strawberry tongue -desquamation  
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What are Pastia's lines?   linear petechial streaks that occur in the axillae, antecubital fossae, and inguinal area with scarlet fever  
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Where does the desquamation in scarlet fever classically occur?   palms and soles  
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What is the treatment of scarlet fever?   amoxicillin  
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What types of strep cause strep toxic shock syndrome?   M types 1 and 3 of group A strep  
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What molecules do superantigens bind to?   MHC class II on APCs and VB region of the T cell receptor  
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What is the typical source for strep toxic shock syndrome?   soft tissue infection with sudden onset of pain in an extremity  
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What is the treatment of choice for strep toxic shock syndrome?   clindamycin  
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Erysipelas is also known as?   St. Anthony's fire  
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What is erysipelas?   superficial variant of cellulitis caused by group A strep  
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What is the most common cause of erysipelas?   group A strep  
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What is the typical patient population that is affected by erysipelas?   -very young -elderly -the debilitated (esp lymphedema or chronic cutaneous ulcers)  
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What is the classic location for erysipelas?   face  
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What is the clinical appearance of erysipelas?   sharply marginated, erythematous plaque that is slightly tender  
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What is the treatment of choice of erysipelas?   penicillin  
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What patient population often has recurrent erysipelas?   patients with lymphedema  
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What are the clinical features of perianal strep?   -sharply demarcated bright red erythema -perianal pruritus -painful defectation -blood-streaked stools -anal leakage  
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What clinical infection often precedes perianal strep?   strep pharyngitis  
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What organism can cause positive blood cultures in cellulitis?   H. influenzae  
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What is the most common organism involved in pyomyositis?   staph aureus  
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What is the diagnostic method of choice of pyomyositis?   MRI  
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What is the most common cause of botryomycosis?   staph aureus  
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What are the cutaneous features of botryomycosis?   cutaneous and subcutaneous nodules, ulcers, and verrucous plaques that discharge purulent yellow granules  
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What are the histologic features of botryomycosis?   chronic inflammatory reaction with fibrosis and foreign body giant cells -granular bodies (grains) that are bacteria, cells, and debris. -have basophilic centers and eosinophilic periphery  
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What is the Splendore-Hoeppli phenomenon?   -intensely eosinophilic material that radiates around organisms -caused by a local antigen-antibody reaction  
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What is the treatment of botryomycosis?   excision or surgical debridement  
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What are Osler's nodes?   TENDER, erythematous papules and noules on the finger pads and thenar/hypothenar eminences -caused by immune complex deposition and small vessel vasculitis  
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What are Janeway lesions?   PAINLESS, small hemorrhagic macules on the palms and soles -caused by septic emboli with microabscesses  
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What is the most common organism implicated in gas gangrene?   Clostridium perfringens (>80%)  
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How is the exudate in anaerobic cellulitis and gas gangrene described?   thin, dark gray-brown, (dirty dishwater)  
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What toxins are responsible for gas gangrene?   alpha toxin and perfringolysin  
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Corynebacterium are gram positive or negative?   gram positive rods  
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What organism causes erythrasma?   Corynebacterium minutissimum  
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Where are the common locations for erythrasma?   groin, axillae, intergluteal fold, inframammary areas (warm, moist environments)  
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What are the clinical features of erythrasma?   pink to red, well-defined patches that are covered with fine scales and have associated wrinkling. with time, the color fades to brown -asymptomatic  
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How does erythrasma appear under the Wood's lamp?   bright coral red  
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What causes the fluorescent color of erythrasma?   porphyrin produced by the bacteria  
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What culture medium is used to grow Corynebactrium?   Tissue Culture Medium 199  
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What are topical therapies for erythrasma?   20% aluminum chloride, clindamycin, erythromycin, azoles, Whitfield ointment  
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What is the most common bacterial infection of the foot?   Interdigital erythrasma (chronic macerated fissuring)  
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What organism causes pitted keratolysis?   Kytococcus sedentarius  
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What enzymes are produced by Kytococcus sedentarius to cause pitted keratolysis?   serine proteases (K1 and K2) that degrade keratin  
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What are the clinical features of pitted keratolysis?   1-7mm crater like depressions within the stratum corneum of the weight-bearing regions of the soles -no associated erythema -often unnoticed by the patient  
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How does fluorescence of pitted keratolysis appear?   it doesn't fluoresce  
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What are treatment options for pitted keratolysis?   topical erythromycin, clindamycin, mupirocin, tetracycline, or azoles  
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What organism causes trichomycosis axillaris?   corynebacterium tenuis  
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What is the clinical appearance of trichomycosis axillaris?   yellow, red or black adherent concretions on the axillary or pubic hair -characteristic odor -sweat can turn red and stain clothing  
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How does trichomycosis axillaris fluoresce with a Wood's lamp?   pale yellow  
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What is the treatment for trichomycosis axillaris?   shave the hair and topical erythromycin or clindamycin  
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How does cutaneous diphtheria present?   punched out ulcer with a gray pseudomembrane "eschar"  
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What is the most common site of cutaneous diphtheria?   acral locations  
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What positive impact does cutaneous diptheria have for unvaccinated children?   -can be a form of immunization as the toxin is very slowly absorbed from skin lesions and induces high levels of antibodies  
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What 3 ways is anthrax transmitted?   1) inhalation 2) ingestion 3) cutaneous inoculation  
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How is anthrax typically acquired?   occupational exposure with infected animal carcasses (woolsorter's disease)  
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Is anthrax gram positive or negative?   gram positive sporulating rod  
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What is the function of "edema toxin"   impairs neutrophil function and affects water homeostasis, leading to edema  
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What is the function of "lethal toxin"?   causes release of TNF-alpha and IL-1B  
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What 3 toxin components does anthrax require for virulence?   protective antigen, lethal factor, and edema factor (combine to form lethal toxin and edema toxin)  
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Is cutaneous anthrax painful or painless?   PAINLESS  
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What are the clinical features of cutaneous anthrax?   -pupuric macule or papule that looks like an insect bite and then vesiculates and forms non-pitting edema -the vesicle ulcerates and becomes hemorrhagic and depressed with a painless black eschar -the eschar dries over 1-2 weeks - no scar  
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How do anthrax spores appear in culture?   "jointed bamboo rod" cells with "curled hair" appearing colonies  
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Do systemic symptoms commonly occur with cutaneous anthrax?   NO  
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What is the antibiotic of choice for cutaneous anthrax?   ciprofloxacin 500mg bid  
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How is cutaneous anthrax treated?   ciprofloxacin- the antibiotic does not alter the evolution of the skin lesions but prevents systemic infection  
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What bacterial infection should be suspected in a neutropenic patient with a single necrotic bulla?   bacillus cereus  
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What is the causative organism of erysipeloid?   Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae  
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What occupation is most likely to get erysipeloid?   fishermen or people who prepare meat, poultry or fish  
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What is the classic clinical presentation of erysipeloid?   localized erythema/cellulitis that can be pruritic or painful and spares the terminal phalanges  
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What is the drug of choice for treatment of erysipeloid?   Penicillin  
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What body parts are involved/ not involved in erysipeloid?   commonly on the hands with involvement of the finger/web spaces and sparing of the distal phalanx  
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What types of infections does listeria cause?   - GI illness (in elderly, pregnant women, and immunocompromised) -meningitis in immunocompromised -neonatal meningitis or septicemia -primary cutaneous disease (usually in vets)  
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What is the antibiotic of choice for listeria?   Ampicillin  
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What are risk factors for meningococcemia infections?   asplenia and terminal complement deficiency (C5-9)  
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What is the source of N meningitidis virulence?   polysaccharide capsule  
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Infection with what organism classically causes purpura with irregular outline and central gunmetal gray color?   Neisseria  
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What percent of patients with acute meningococcemia develop a petechial eruption?   30-50%  
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What is the histologic appearance of skin biopsies in patient's with disseminated meningococcemia?   LCV and thrombosis with organisms within the vessels  
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What are the cutaneous features of disseminated meningococcemia?   -petechial eruption -retiform purpura and ischemic necrosis -purpura with a gunmetal gray appearance  
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What are Rocha-Lima inclusions?   masses of intracytoplasmic Bartonella organisms  
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What 3 Bartonella species cause human infection?`   1) B. henselae 2) B. quintana 3) B. bacilliformis  
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What two organisms can cause bacillary angiomatosis?   B. henselae and B. quintana  
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Bartonellosis is also known as ?   Carrion's disease  
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What is the vector of bartonellosis?   Phlebotomine sandfly  
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Where does bartonellosis occur?   Peru, Ecuador, southwestern Colombia  
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What are the two phases of Bartonellosis?   1) Oroya fever 2) verruga peruana  
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What are the clinical manifestations of Oroya fever?   sudden onset of dyspnea, weakness, pallor, tachycardia, fever, thirst, anorexia, arthralgias, headache  
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What are the lab abnormalities seen in Oroya fever?   drop in RBC count with massive hemolysis and variable immunodeficiency  
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What secondary infection are patients with Oroya fever particularly susceptible to?   Salmonella enterica  
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What is verruga peruana?   cutaneous nodules that develop on the head and extremities of patients who have recovered from Oroya fever  
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What is the clinical appearance of verruga peruana?   bright red papulesa nd nodules that appear within erythematous patches -found on the head and extremities -heals without scarring  
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What is the histologic appearance of a verruga peruana?   may look like a pyogenic granuloma or Kaposi sarcoma  
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What organism is the causative agent of Cat Scratch Disease?   Bartonella henselae  
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What are the clinical manifestations of Cat Scratch Disease?   -red papule or crusted pustule develops at the site of inoculation -single, large, tender, lymph node with erythema and swelling usually in the axilla  
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What is the treatment of Cat Scratch Disease?   typically no treatment required; complicated cases may require azithromycin or doxycycline  
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What are the systemic symptoms associated with Cat Scratch Disease?   -usually no systemic symptoms -may occasionally have fever, malaise, fatigue  
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What patient population is typically affected by bacillary angiomatosis?   HIV patients  
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What are the clinical features of bacillary angiomatosis?   superficial angiomatous papules and nodules that can look like a pyogenic granuloma  
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What is bacillary peliosis hepatis?   bacillary angiomatosis of the liver caused by B henselae (not quintana)  
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What is bacillary peliosis splenis?   bacillary angiomatosis of the spleen  
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What are the histologic features of bacillary angiomatosis?   lobular proliferations of capillaries and venules with plump, endothelial cells -lots of neutrophils and leukocytoclasia -interstitial clumps of bacteria  
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What is the antibiotic of choice to treat bacillary angiomatosis?   erythromycin  
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What organism is the causative agent of trench fever?   B. quintana  
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What is the vector of trench fever?   human body louse (Pediculosis humanus)  
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How is Brucellosis transmitted?   consumption of unpasteurized milk products or direct contact with animal parts  
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What are the cutaneous manifestations of Brucellosis?   (occur in <10% of patients) disseminated eruption of violaceous papulonodules or morbilliform eruptions, E nodosum  
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What are the typical clinical manifestations of Brucellosis?   nonspecific signs and symptoms of fever, chills, malaise, headache, arthralgias, etc  
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What is the first-line treatment of Brucellosis?   doxycycline  
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What is the causative organism of Glanders?   Burkholderia mallei  
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What animals does Glanders primarily affect?   donkeys, mules, and horses  
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What are the 4 clinical forms of Glanders?   1) septicemia 2) localized 3) pulmonary 4) chronic  
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What are the clinical features of localized Glanders?   nodule, pustule or vesicle surrounded by hemorrhagic edema at the inoculation site that sloughs and forms a gray-brown base  
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What are the cutaneous features of chronic Glanders infection?   painful subcutaneous and intramuscular abscesses  
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What is the causative organism of Melioides?   Burkholderia pseudomallei  
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What types of infections can Melioidosis cause?   -localized cutaneous -pulmonary disease -acute septicemia -abscesses and granulomas -cellulitis, echthyma, purpura, pustulese  
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What is the most common organism involved in malakoplakia?   E. coli  
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What is the most common location on the skin for malakoplakia?   perianal area  
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What is the most common location overall for malakoplakia?   GU tract  
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What are Michaelis-Gutmann bodies   intracytoplasmic laminated concretions that are accumulations of calcified, iron-containing phagolysosomes in Malakoplakia  
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What are von Hansemann cells?   Large macrophages that contain Michaelis-Gutmann bodies in Malakoplakia  
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What is malakoplakia?   chronic granulomatous inflammation with macrophages that are unable to appropriately phagocytose and kill bacteria in immunocompromised hosts  
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What is the treatment of malakoplakia?   surgical excision or long-term antibiotics  
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What is the causative organism involved in Tularemia?   Francisella tularensis  
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What are the reservoirs for F. tularensis?   rabbits, deer flies, and ticks  
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What is the most common form of Tularemia?   ulceroglandular  
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What are the clinical features of ulceroglandular tularemia?   lymphadenopathy that may suppurate and an erythematous, indurated, punched-out ulcer that may last for several weeks  
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What is the antibiotic of choice for Tularemia?   streptomycin  
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Infection with what organism can cause facial cellulitis with a violaceous hue in young children following an upper respiratory tract infection?   Haemophilus influenze  
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What is the causative organism of Rhinoscleroma?   Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis  
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What are Mikulicz cell?   large, vacuolated non-lipidized histiocytes with intracellular bacteria seen in Rhinoscerloma  
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What two types of cells are commonly seen in Rhinoscleroma?   Mikulicz cells (large histiocytes with intracellular bacteria) and Russell bodies (plasma cells with lots of Igs)  
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What are the 3 stages of Rhinoscleroma?   1) rhinitic 2) granulomatous/infiltrative 3) sclerotic  
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What are the features of the rhinitic phase of Rhinoscleroma?   -rhinitis with purulent rhinorrhea and nasal obstruction  
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What are the clinical features of the granulomatous phase of rhinoscleroma?   granulomatous nodules the form in the nose, pharynx, and larynx -epistaxis -destruction of the nasal cartilage  
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What are the clinical features of the sclerotic phase of Rhinoscleroma?   nodules replaced by fibrous tissue and resultant scarring and stenosis of the airway  
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What is the causative organism of typhoid fever?   Salmonella typhi  
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What are the cutaneous manifestations of typhoid fever?   "rose spots"- pink, blanching, slightly elevated papules on the anterior trunk in groups of 5-15 lesions and come in crops during the 2nd to 4th weeks of the illness  
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What is the drug of choice to treat typhoid fever?   quinolones  
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What is the causative organism of Rat-Bite Fever?   Streptobacillus moniliformis  
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What is the classic triad of Rat Bite Fever?   1) fever 2) migratory polyarthritis 3) rash  
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What are the cutaneous manifestations of Rat Bite Fever?   acrally distributed morbilliform eruption on the palms and soles with papules, petecthia, vesicles, pustules 2-4 days following the onset of the fever  
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What is the drug of choice to treat Rat Bite Fever?   Penicillin  
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What is the causative organism involved in the plague?   Yersinia pestis  
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What are the 3 types of plague?   1)bubonic 2)septicemic 3)pulmonic  
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What is the causative organism of typhoid fever?   Salmonella typhi  
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What are the cutaneous manifestations of typhoid fever?   "rose spots"- pink, blanching, slightly elevated papules on the anterior trunk in groups of 5-15 lesions and come in crops during the 2nd to 4th weeks of the illness  
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What is the drug of choice to treat typhoid fever?   quinolones  
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What is the causative organism of Rat-Bite Fever?   Streptobacillus moniliformis  
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What is the classic triad of Rat Bite Fever?   1) fever 2) migratory polyarthritis 3) rash  
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What are the cutaneous manifestations of Rat Bite Fever?   acrally distributed morbilliform eruption on the palms and soles with papules, petecthia, vesicles, pustules 2-4 days following the onset of the fever  
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What is the drug of choice to treat Rat Bite Fever?   Penicillin  
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What is the causative organism involved in the plague?   Yersinia pestis  
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What are the 3 types of plague?   1)bubonic 2)septicemic 3)pulmonic  
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What are the clinical features of the bubonic plague?   the site of inoculation may develop a pustule or ulcer followed by painful LAD and suppuration  
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What is the treatment of choice for plague?   streptomycin  
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What organism should be suspected in a fisherman with a painful erythematous, edematous cellulitis that rapidly progresses to hemorrhagic bullae?   Vibrio vulnificus  
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What are the risk factors for Vibrio vulnifus infections?   chronic liver disease, diabetes, or exposure to raw seafood or seawater  
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What are the clinical features of Vibrio septicemia?   -fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, hypotension -erythematous to pupuric macules and vesicles with hemorrhagic bullae and necrotic ulcers  
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What is the first-line treatment of Vibrio vulnificus?   doxycycline + Rocephin  
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What is the vector of Lyme disease?   Ixodes tick  
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What organisms are the most common cause of Lyme disease in Europe?   Borrelia garinii and Borrelia afzelii  
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How long does a tick have to be attached to transmit Lyme disease?   usually over 24 hours  
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What is the classic cutaneous manifestation of Lyme disease?   erythema migrans  
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What organisms cause Borrelia lymphocytomas?   B. garinii and B afzelii (not found in the US)  
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Where are the classic locations for Borellia lymphocytomas?   earlobes of children and nipple/areola of adults  
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What percent of patients with Lyme disease in Europe develop acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans?   10%  
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What is thought to be the cause of acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans?   long-term persistence of the spirochete in the skin  
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What are the clinical features of the early stage of acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans?   erythematous to violaceous plaques and nodules develop on acral extremities -follows a waxing and waning course over years  
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What are the clinical features of the late stage of acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans?   -glistening "cigarette paper" appearance with prominent blood vessels -hypo or hyper pigmentation, pain, pruritus, hyperesthesia, paresthesia  
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What are the treponemal tests that are specific for treponemal infection?   TPHA, FTA-ABS, MHA-TP  
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What are the non-treponemal tests?   RPR, VDRL  
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What antibiotic should be used to treat patients with treponemal infection who are allergic to penicillin?   doxycycline  
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What is the causative organism of Yaws?   T pallidum, subspecies pertenue  
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What is the primary stage of yaws?   "mother yaw"- erythematous, infiltrated painless papule that occurs at the site of inoculation and heals spontaneously -the lesion is rich in treponemes  
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What is the secondary stage of yaws?   "daughter yaws"- smaller more widespread papules that usually occur at body orifices, such as the nose and mouth  
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Where is yaws endemic?   tropical climates- Africa, Asia, South and Central America  
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What is the final stage of yaws?   abscesses form that become necrotic and ulcerate, forming sinus tracts that heal with scarring and may form crippling deformities -also may have periostitis, dactylitis, osteitis (saber shins)  
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What is the causative organism of pinta?   Treponema carateum  
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Where is pinta endemic?   Central and South America  
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What is the primary lesion in pinta?   tiny macules or papules surrounded by an erythematous halo that develop into poorly defined erythematous plaques over months  
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What are the secondary lesions in pinta?   "pintids"- small scaly papules that coalesce to form psoriasiform plaques that are initially red but then become slate-blue, brown or black (highly infectious)  
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What are the tertiary lesions in pinta?   symmetric de-pigmented vitiligo-like lesions (not infectious)  
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What stages of pinta are considered infectious?   primary and secondary (tertiary not considered infectious)  
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Endemic syphilis is also known as?   Bejel  
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What is the causative organism involved in endemic syphilis?   T. pallidum, subspecies endemicum  
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Where is endemic syphilis found?   North Africa and Southeast Asia (warm climates)  
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What is the primary lesion of endemic syphilis?   small inconspicuous papule or ulcer in the oropharynx or nipple of breastfeeding women (usually goes unnoticed)  
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What is the secondary lesion of endemic syphilis?   -patches on mucous membranes -split papules -angular stomatitis -condyloma lata -osteoperiostitis which causes nocturnal bone pain  
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What are the cutaneous manifestations of the tertiary stage of endemic syphilis?   gumma formation with gross mutilation of the skin, mucous membranes, muscle and cartilage  
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How is leptospirosis transmitted?   contact of non-intact skin or mucous membranes with urine of infected animals (rodents)  
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What are the two forms of leptospirosis?   1) anticteric (>90%) 2) icteric (<10%)- more severe  
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What are the cutaneous manifestations of leptospirosis?   variable- erythematous macules, papules, patches, or plaques and petechiae or purpura from vascular involvement  
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What is the most common presentation of actinomycosis?   cervicofacial (lumpy jaw) caused by poor dental hygiene or a recent dental infection  
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Where is actinomyces normal flora?   the human mouth, GI tract, and female genital tract  
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What are the 3 forms of actinomycosis?   1) cervicofacial (most common) 2) pulmonary (caused by aspiration) 3) GI  
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What is the drug of choice for treatment of actinomycosis?   penicillin  
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