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MTIC Test 3

Lymphatic tissue is a specialized form of A) loose connective tissue B) reticular connective tissue C) elastic connective tissue D) epithelial tissue E) glandular tissue B) reticular connective tissue
All of the following are components of the lymphatic system EXCEPT A) lymph B) lymphatic vessels C) red bone marrow D) yellow bone marrow E) lymph nodes D) yellow bone marrow
Which of the following blood cells are capable of producing antibodies? A) T-lymphocytes B) B-lymphocytes C) monocytes D) phagocytes E) eryhrocytes B) B-lymphocytes
Which of the following usually carry out the functions of the spleen after splenectomy? A) thymus B) lymph nodes C) liver D) red bone marrow E) liver and red bone marrow E) liver and red bone marrow
The lymphatic system A) transports lipids from the gastrointestinal tract to the blood B) returns filtered plasma proteins to the cardiovascular system. C) returns excess interstitial fluid to the cardiovascular system D) carries out immune response A) transports lipids from the gastrointestinal tract to the blood
Which of the following is the largest single mass of lyphatic tissue? A) tonsils B) spleen C) lymph nodes D) bone marrow E) lymphatic nodules B) spleen
Lymph nodes A) are bean shaped organs B) are located along lymphatic vessels C) filter the lymph D) are scattered throughout the body E) All of the above E) All of the above
Macrophages develop from A) lymphocytes B) monocytes C) neutrophils D) basophils E) eosinophils B) monocytes
Afferent lymphatic vessels carry lymph into A) tonsils B) the spleen C) lymphatic nodules D) lymph nodes E) the thymus gland D) lymph nodes
The first line of innate defenses against pathogens is A) phagocytosis B) production of antibodies C) inflammation D) intact skin and mucous membranes E) complement D) intact skin and mucous membranes
Lymph nodes are important because they: A) filter the blood B) program T cells to recognize antigens C) filter lymph and store lymphocytes D) pump lymph through the vessels back to the heart E) All of the above B) program T cells to recognize antigens
Which of the following would lead to the fastest rate of lymph circulation? A) high blood pressure B) increased cardiac output C) dehyration D) increased physical activity E) elevating your feet above the heart C) dehydration
Phogocytosis is the ingestion of microbes or other particles like cell debris by phagocytes. A) True B) False A) True
Immunity is the ability to use our body's defenses to ward off disease. A) True B) False A) True
The main difference between antibody-mediated immunity and cell-mediated immunity is that the first one attacks the pathogens directly (B-cells) and the latter produces chemicals to attack them (T-cells). A) True B) False B) False
Lymph leaves a lymph node through the ______ lymphatic vessel. afferent
The "milking action" of skeletal muscle contractions on lymphatic vessels is referred to as the ____________. skeletal muscle pump
Disease-producing microbes such as bacteria and viruses are called __________. antigens
What eventually happens to cleaned and filtered lymph? A) Rejoins the circulatory system as plasma B) Is routed to the kidneys for expulsion C) Is used by the liver o manufacture clotting factors D) Crosses into the CNS as cerebrospinal fluid. A) Rejoins the circulatory system as plasma lymph is carried to larger lymphatic vessels. lymph passes through lymph nodes -at some point, lymph passes from lymphatic vessels to one of two main channels. either thoracic duct or the right lymphatic d
What are antibodies? A) The product of monocytes that communicate with other immune system cells B) A class of medications C) Immune system cells specifically for allergic reactions D) Y-shaped proteins that disable pathogens or other substances. D) Y-shaped proteins that disable pathogens or other substances.
In this condition the body launches an immune system attack against an antigen that is not inherently dangerous. A) An autoimmune disease B) An allergic reaction C) Chronic fatigue syndrome D) Systemic edema B) An allergic reaction
Which are examples of autoimmune diseases? A) Lupus, ulcerative colitis, scleroderma B) Osteoarthritis, gout, kidney stones C) HIV/AIDS, Kaposi sarcoma, fibromyalgia, pernicous anemia D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, fibromyalgia, pernicious anemi A) Lupus, ulcerative colitis, scleroderma
Most edema is due to what factors? A) Mechanical obstruction B) Chemical imbalance C) Musculoskeletal injury D) A combination of mechanical and chemical problems D) A combination of mechanical and chemical problems
What condition is an infection of lymph capillaries? A) lymphangitis B) lymphadenitis C) lymphoma D) lymphitis A) lymphangitis
What condition involves a cancer of white blood cells in lymph nodes? A) lymphangitis B) leukemia C) multiple myeloma D) lymphoma D) lymphoma
best description of mononucleosis A) A bacterial infection of the throat B) A viral infection of epithelium which then spreads to B-cells C) A protozoan infection that is an indicator for AIDS D) A fungal infection of the throat and lungs. D) A fungal infection of the throat and lungs.
This condition involves an acute, severe, systemic allergic reaction leading to the release of massive amounts of histamine from previously sensitized mast cells. A) angioedema B) anaphylaxis C) multiple chemical sensitivity syndrome D) asthma D) asthma
A client reports that she has poor memory and concentration, debilitating fatigue,a nd no tolerance for exercise: A) mononucleosis B) lupus C) chronic fatigue syndrome D) multiple chemical sensitivity syndrome C) chronic fatigue syndrome
What condition is a controlled increase in core temperature in response to pathogenic invasion? A) Fever B) Malignant hyperthermia C) chronic fatigue syndrome D) lupus A) Fever
What do the shivering and chills that accompany the early stages of fever accomplish? A) they help the body cool off B) they increase core temperature C) they increase metabolism thru mechanical shaking of the body D) they spread interleukin-1 B) they increase core temperature
What are the fluids that can spread HIV? A) Blood, sweat, saliva, semen B) Blood, breast milk, semen, vaginal secretions C) Breast milk, semen, sweat, tears D) Vaginal secretions, semen, feces, urine B) Blood, breast milk, semen, vaginal secretions
AIDS is diagnosed when T-cell counts drop to what level? A) Below 1000 per cubic milliliter of blood B) Below 800 per cubic milliliter of blood C) Below 500 per cubic milliliter of blood D) Below 200 per cubic milliliter of blood D) Below 200 per cubic milliliter of blood
In this condition, antibody attacks are launched against a variety of tissues throughout the body. A) Systemic lupus erythematosus B) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Multiple sclerosis D) fibromyalgia A) Systemic lupus erythematosus
What helps move the "mucous blanket" up the respiratory tract toward the throat? A) pharynx B) larynx C) cilia D) alveoli C) cilia
Gas that leaves the lungs contains about how much oxygen? A) 100% B) 5% C) 16% D) 0% C) 16%
What is the causative agent for common cold? A) One of a large group of viruses B) A specific virus called rhinovirus C) Pneumococcus bacteria D) A combination of bacteria and fungi A) One of a large group of viruses
What is the most effective treatment option for cold? A) Antibiotics B) Fever reducers C) Rest, fluids, good nutrition D) painkillers C) Rest, fluids, good nutrition
This viral infection of the respiratory tract can be severe, with a risk of complication to pneumonia. It can also cause general muscle aches and malaise. What is it? A) Common cold B) Influenza C) Sinusitis D) Tuberculosis B) Influenza
What is pneumonia usually? A) A primary disease B) A complication of an underlying weakness C) Related directly to cigarette smoking D) a fungal infection B) A complication of an underlying weakness
In this condition the key symptoms are severe headache, especially on bending over. Mucus is thick, sticky, and opaque. What is it? A) sinus infection B) hay fever C) influenza D) nasal polyps A) sinus infection
This condition is a bacterial infection that usually begins in the respiratory tract, but may affect other tissues as well. It is slow growing and potentially life threatening. A) emphysema B) infectious sinusitis C) tuberculosis D) cystic fibrosis C) tuberculosis
During an asthma attack, what happens? A) The bronchioles go thru parasympathetic reaction, followed by sympathetic B) The bronchioles go thru a symp reaction, followed by parasympathetic. C) Bronchioles produce excess mucous in response to viral at B) The bronchioles go thru a symp reaction, followed by parasympathetic.
This progressive, irreversible condition involves irritation to bronchi and bronchioles. A) acute bronchitis B) Hay fever C) chronic bronchitis D) Bronchiectasis C) chronic bronchitis
A person with emphysema is most likely to develop what condition? A) hypoxia B) hyperoxia C) thrombocytopenia D) alkalosis A)hypoxia
What condition is an inherited genetic disorder of exocrine glands? A) cystic fibrosis B) bronchiectasis C) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D) pleurisy A) cystic fibrosis
How does cystic fibrosis affect respiratory function? A) It causes involuntary contractions of bronchioles. B) It causes secretion of excessive thin, runny mucus C) It inhibits the secretion of mucus D) It causes the secretion of thick, sticky muc D) It causes the secretion of thick, sticky mucus
What is true about lung cancer? A) Survival rates are increasing for men and women B) It is the leading cause of death by cancer C) It has a five-year survival rate of over 35% D) Most cases are linked to genetic predisposition B) It is the leading cause of death by cancer
Why does lung cancer metastasize readily? A) It only forms small tumors B) The aorta runs between the lungs C) Cells have easy access to lymph and circulatory capillaries D) It grows in several organs simultaneously C) Cells have easy access to lymph and circulatory capillaries
The exchange of gases between blood int he systemic capillaries and tissue cells is called A) pulmonary ventilation B) internal respiration C) external respiration D) expiration E) inspiration B) internal respiration
The nasal cavity connects to the pharynx through two openings called the A) nasal septa B) nasal conchae C) paranasal sinuses D) external nares E) internal nares E) internal nares
Teh nasal cavity is divided into right and left sides by the A) external nares B) internal nares C) nasal conchae D) nasal septum E) paranasal sinuses D) nasal septum
Which of the following is called the Adam's apple? A) thyroid cartilage B) epiglottis C) cricoid cartilage D) arytenoid cartilages E) glottis A) thyroid cartilage
Which of the following describes a correct order of structures int he respiratory passageway? D) pharynx, layrnx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles
The C-shaped rings that provide support for the wall of the trachea are made out of A) hyaline cartilage B) elastic cartilage C) fibrocartilage D) reticular connective tissue E) Bone A) hyaline cartilage
Which of the following is not a structure associated with the lungs? A) visceral pleura B) parietal pleura C) cardiac nothc D) endocardium E) oblique fissure D) endocardium
The exchange of gases occurs in the A) trachea B) terminal bronchioles C) alveoli D) primary bronchus E) all of the above C) alveoli
The fluid that lines the inside of the alveoli is produced by A) cuboidal epithelial cells int eh terminal bronchioles B) alveolar macrophages C) squamous pulmonary epithelial cells D) surfactant-secreting cells E) capillary endothelial cells D) surfactant secreting cells
The lungs contain about _______ alveoli. A) 10000 B) 300,000 C) one million D) 300 million E) 500 million D) 300 million
Gas exchange in the lungs occurs across the respiratory membrane byt he process of A) osmosis B) diffusion C) exocytosis D) active transport E) filtration B) diffusion
The basic rhythm of respiration is controlled by the A) pons B) medulla oblongata C) hypothalamus D) pneumotaxic area E) apneustic area B) medulla oblongata
Carbon monoxide A) binds weakly to amino acids within hemoglobin B) binds to the heme of hemoglobin C) binds more strongly to the heme than oxygen does E) binds to the heme grop of hemoglobin and binds more strongly to the heme than oxygen does E) binds to the heme grop of hemoglobin and binds more strongly to the heme than oxygen does
The right lung is divided into three lobes by deep surface fissures A) True B) False A) True
Teh narrow top portion of the lung is called the apex A) True B) False A) True
The right lung is smaller than the left lung because of the position of the heart. A) True B) False B) False
When the diaphragm contracts, it ________ flattens
The respiratory gases are exchanged across the ________ membrane. respiratory
Rapid and deep breathing is called ________. hyperventilation
List, in correct order, the passageways that make up the conducting zone of the respiratory system. nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles. These structures form a continuous passageway for air to move in and out of the lungs.
The functions of the respiratory system: 1. Provides for the cycle of gas exchange (02, CO2) 2. Regulate pH of blood @ 7.35-7.4 3. The sense of smell 4. Produces sound (phonation) 5. filters, warms, and moistens (and processes) inspired air 6. excretes some mucus
There are four processes of respiration ventillation: inhalation and exhalation of air betw lungs and atmosphere external respiration: exchange of gases in alveoli & alveolar blood transport of gases in blood to cells (CO2 away from cells) internal respiration
What are the two gases exchanged in breathing? Oxygen Carbon Dioxide
The ________ is the passage at the back of the mouth and into the throat. pharynx
The _______ is the cartilaginous structure that contains the vocal cords. larynx
The ___________ is the flap that directs air into the lungs or substance into the digestive system. epiglottis
The ____________ is the "windpipe" that enters the lungs. trachea
The ____________ are large ciliated cartilaginous tubes that carry air further into the lungs branching into smaller tubes bronchi
______________ are the smaller branches of the "tree." bronchioles
______ are tiny grape-like clusters of sacs where gas exchange takes place. alveoli
Ventilation is inhaling and exhaling. This is where gas is exchanged between the lungs and the ___________ atmosphere
External respiration (pulmonary gas exchange) is the exchange of gases between the ___________ and ___________________. alveolar air pulmonary blood
Internal respiration is the movement of exchange of gases between the _______ and the __________. capillary blood cells
The gases move back and forth across membranes by ________________. passive diffusion
Cellular respiration is the use of _____________ by the cell. Oxygen
The control of respiration is in the __________ stem. brain
The muscle that is the primary mover of air is the ________. diaphragm
Two muscles in the neck that aid in respiration are sternocleidomastoid scalenes (elevates two uppermost ribs)
The muscles between ribs that air in the expansion and contraction of the ribcage are the: intercostals
the muscles on the back that assist in respiration are serratus posterior inferior serratus posterior superior
The muscles of the abdomen that participate in exhalation are: rectus abdomius internal/external obliques transverse abdominus
All of the following are part of the gastrointestinal tract except the A) stomach B) gallbladder C) esophagus D) small intestine E) pharynx E) pharynx
The ability of the GI tract to mix and move material along its length is called A) digestion B) ingestion C) absorption D) motility E) excitability D) motility
The greater omentum is part of the A) mucosa B) liver C) mesentery D) peritoneum E) large intestine D) peritoneum
The projection hanging from the soft palate that helps prevent food and fluid from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing is the A) papilla B) uvula C) lingual frenulum D) fauces E) lingual tonsil B) uvula
Which of the following contains taste buds? A) papillae B) uvula C) tonsils D) fauces E) none of the above A) papillae
The tongue is primarily composed of A) smooth muscle B) skeletal muscle C) loose connective tissue D) glandular tissue E) none of the above B) skeletal muscle
Teeth are primarily composed of a bone-like substance called A) crown B) enamel C) cementum D) gingivae E) dentin E) dentin
All of the following are regions of the stomach except A) cardia B) duodenum C) fundus D) body E) pylorus B) duodenum
Chyme is released by the stomach into the A) duodenum B) esophogus C) jejunum D) ileum E) cecum A) duodenum
Bile is produced by A) lymphocytes B) Kupffer's cells C) parietal cells D) hepatocytes E) chief cells D) hepatocytes
In adult humans, all of the following are functions of the liver except A) red blood cell production B) storage of vitamins C) synthesis of bile salts D) excretion of bilirubin E) activation of vitamin D A) red blood cell production
the final portion of the small intestine is called the A) ileum B) duodenum C) cecum D) jejunum E) colon A) ileum
absorption of digested nutrients and water in the small intestine occurs by A) diffusion B) osmosis C) facilitated diffusion D) active transport E) all of the above E) all of the above
the first portion of the large intestine is the A) colon B) cecum C) anal canal D) rectum E) ileum B) cecum
The appendix is attached to the A) cecum B) ileum C) ascending colon D) descending colon E) rectum A) cecum
the portion of the large intestine just before the rectum is the A) anus B) cecum C) ascending colon D) transverse colon E) sigmoid colon E) sigmoid colon
What is the correct order of movement of substances through the large intestine? B) cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, cecum, rectum
The greater omentum contains many lymph nodes that supply macrophages and plasma cells for fighting GI A) True B) False A) True
The liver is the largest organ in the body A) True B) False B) False
The gallbladder produces bile. A) True B) False B) False
Insoluble fiber and soluble fiber have opposite effects on intestinal motility but both reduce the risk of developing serious digestive disorders A) True B) False A) True
The waves of muscular contraction that move food through the esophagus and intestines are referred to as __________. peristalsis
Name and describe the six basic processes performed by the digestive system Provide nutrients for cells Ingestion Digestion Secretion Mixing and propulsion Absorption Elimination/defecation
List the general functions of the liver Carbohydrate metabolism Lipid Metabolism Protein Metabolism Processing of drugs and hormones excretion of bilorubin storage of vitamins and minerals activation of Vitamin D
The kidneys A) help regulate blood volume B) help to control blood pressure C) secrete erythropoietin D) help control blood pH E) All of the above are correct E) All of the above are correct
All of the following are components of the urinary system except the A) urethra B) ureter C) urinary bladder D) prostate gland E) kidneys D) prostate gland
Together with the skin and the liver the kidneys help synthesize _______, which is the active form of vitamin D. A) calcitonin B) calcitrol C) erythropoietin D) renin E) angiotensin B) calcitrol
The functional units of the kidneys are called A) renal pyramid B) renal corpuscle C) renal tubule D) renal pelvis E) minor calyx B) renal corpuscle
What is the correct order of anatomical structures found in the nephron? A) glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubules, loop of Henle, distal convuluted tubules
On average _______ to ________ liters of urine are excreted per day. A) 1-2 B) 2-3 C) 3-4 D) 4-5 E) less than all of the above A) 1-2
The urinary bladder is lined by A) pseudostratified epithelium B) transitional epithelium C) stratified squamous epithelium D) simple cuboidal epithelium E) cilated columnar epithelium B) transitional epithelium
The specialized epithelial cells that make up the inner wall of the glomerular capsule are called A) macula densa B) podocytes C) glomerular cells D) juxtaglomerular cells E) capsular epithelial cells B) podocytes
The terminal portion of the urinary system is the A) urinary bladder B) calyx C) ureter D) urethra E) collecting duct D) urethra
Urine is expelled from teh urinary bladder by the process of A) excretion B) defecation C) micturation D) filtration E) expectoration C) micturation
Which part of the kidney filters the blood? A) renal calyx B) renal hilum C) renal corpuscle D) renal tubule E) renal artery C) renal corpuscle
Which of the following is not found in normal urine? A) urea B) uric acid C) sodium D) glucose E) H+ ions D) glucose
The kidneys produce erythropoietin A) True B) False A) True
The urethra is the tube connecting a kidney with he urinary bladder. A) True B) False B) False
Urine volume is influenced by blood pressure A) True B) False A) True
Urine is filtered out of the blood by the urinary bladder. A) True B) False B) False
A lack of voluntary control over micturation is referred to as ____________. urinary incontinence
The hormone that increases water reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct is ________________. antidiuretic hormone.
The renal medulla consists of alternating renal ___________ and renal ____________. cortex medulla
The urinary bladder is a hollow muscular organ located in the pelvic cavity posterior to the ____________ bone. pubic
List the major functions of the kidney. regulation of ion levels in the blood regulation of blood volume and blood pressure regulation of blood pH production of hormones: erythropoeitin/calcitrol excretion of wastes
What is a consequence of blocked pancreatic duct? A) pancreatic stones B) gallstones C) pancreatic autodigestion D) indigestion C) Pancreatic autodigestion
In this condition food sensitivity damages or destroys intestinal villi, leading to problems with absorption of nutrients. A) Celiac disease B) gastroenteritis C) peptic ulcers D) crohn disease A) Celiac Disease
What is the best description of Crohn disease? A) A progressive inflammatory disorder that can affect any portion of the gastrointestinal tract.
What adjustments should a massage therapist make for a client with Crohn disease? This client should receive massage during remission. During flaires, energy work or reflexive work may be appropriate.
Cancer that begins at the proximal end of the esophagus is typically associated with what factor or factors? A) smoking, alcohol use B) drinking very hot liquids C) frequent vomiting D) barrett esophagus C) frequent vomiting
What are the primary symptoms of gastroenteritis? A) fever, headache, coughing B) bloating, gas, blood in stool C) nausea, vomiting, diarrhea D) constipation alternating with diarrhea C) nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
Which are the bacteria associated with food poisoning? A) clostridium difficile B) salmonella, escherichia coli, campylobacter C) helicobacter pylori D) giardia, cryptosporidium B) salmonella, escherichia coli, campylobacter
A person has an open sore in his stomach or small intestine. It may bleed into the digestive tract. It is colonized by bacteria. What condition is present? A) Crohn's disease B) Ulcerative colitis C) gastroenteritis D) peptic ulcer B) ulcerative colitis
Peptic ulcers can increase the risk of which condition? A) Diverticulitis B) inflammatory bowel disease C) colon polyps D) diverticulosis C) colon polyps
What is the best description of diverticulitis? A) an autoimmune attack on the colon mucosa B) infected pouches suspended from the colon C) the appendix becomes a growth medium for bacteria D) the colon swells and ruptures B) infected pouches suspended form the colon
In this condition, small stimuli create large reactions int he colon. Peristalsis becomes irregular and uncoordinated. Diarrhea, constipation, or fluctuations between the two may develop. What is it? C) irritable bowel syndrome
What is the best description of cirrhosis? D) the result of chronic, long term irritation and/or infection that leads to the proliferation of extracellular matrix
Why do people with advanced cirrhosis develop jaundice? B) bilirubin accumulates int eh bloodstream, staining the skin and mucous membranes yellow
What are the most typical early symptoms of any kind of infectious hepatitis? A) fever, joint pain, abdominal pain B) ascites, jaundice, vomiting C) headache, rashes, ascites D) food aversion, nausea, malaise D) food aversion, nausea, malaise
Of hepatitis A, B, and C, which infection has the fewest long-term consequences for health? A) Hepatitis A
What is a unique feature of hepatitis C? A) It can take many years for symptoms to appear. B) It only becomes communicable after symptoms appear C) it is communicable through casual contact D) it only infects older people A) It can take many hears for symptoms to appear
What is a contributing factor to rising rates of liver cancer in the United States? A) alcoholism B) drug abuse C) hepatitis C D) prescription drug mistakes C) Hepatitis C
What condition refers to an overgrowth of yeastlike fungi int he digestive tract? B) candidiasis
In this condition infectious agents are found in the abdominal cavity where no white blood cells or other protective mechanisms can limit them. A) celiac disease B) bleeding ulcer C) appendicitis D) peritonitis D) peritonitis
What are the three organs of the urinary system? the two kidneys urinary bladder
The functional filtration unit is called a __________. nephron
There are about ________________ nephrons in each kidney about a million
The kidneys form _____________ to excrete ____________. urine wastes
The kidneys regulate the blood in the following ways: regulate blood pH regulate blood volume regulate blood pressure regulate blood electrolytes regulates ion levels
__________percent of the filtrate (the fluid filtered out of the blood) is reabsorbed by the body. The rest is excreted by the __________. 99% nephron as urine
The kidneys filter close to ___________ liters per day! 150-180
What is the substance found in kidney stones? A) Uric Acid B) Struvite C) Cystine D) Calcium D) Calcium
Which is a primary risk factor for developing kidney stones? A) Drinking a lot of alcohol B) Being over 60 years old C) Being dehydrated D) Being pregnant C) being dehydrated
What is the best description fo pyelonephritis? A) The kidneys are working with reduced capacity B) The kidneys are infected with pathogens form the urinary tract C) The kidneys are replaced with nonfunctional scar tissue B) The kidneys are infected with pathogens form the urinary tract
A client reports that she has been fighting a bladder infection. Now she has a fever, extreme back pain, nausea, and pain with urination. What condition is probably present? C) pyelonephritis
What is teh most dependable early sign of bladder cancer? C) painless hematuria
What condition ensues when the protective mucous lining inside the bladder breaks down and the organ is damaged by prolonged exposure to acidic urine? D) interstitial cystitis
What is the best role for massage for a client who has interstitial cystitis? B) massage may be useful if the client is comfortable on the table or massage chair
What condition involved a bacterial invasion of the urethra or bladder? D) urinary tract infection
when a man develops a urinary tract infection, what is probably present? A) a prostate enlargement
What is the best preventive measure against having recurring kidney stones? drink up to a gallon of water a day
What is apoptosis? programmed cell death
what is pulmonary respiration? respiration through the lungs
what is internal respiration? respiration of the cells
external ventilation (respiration?) the process by which gases are exchanged between the atmosphere and the pulmonary loop of circulation
what is the greater omentum? "snuggly blanket" The greater omentum (also the great omentum, omentum majus, gastrocolic omentum, epiploon, or, especially in animals, caul) is a large fold of visceral peritoneum that hangs down from the stomach. It extends from the greater curvature
name the parts of the digestive system mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine accessories: liver, gallbladder, pancreas
Who was Dr. Max Gerson? he wrote a book called Cancer Therapy 50 Cures RE: nutritional therapy
what is orthomolecular medicine? alternative medicine prescription of nutritional supplements
Created by: harrytlotus