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Immuno Final

Immuno Exam Questions

Adaptive immunity has a very diverse array of antigen specificities
The CD protein on all T lymphocytes CD3
The common myeloid progenitor gives rise to macrophages
Which is a primary lymphoid tissue? Thymus
The secondary antibody response no lag phase in antibody production
M cell specialized epithelial cell overlying GALT that delivers bacteria across the gut epithelium
In addition to antibody, this protein can initiate binding and complement activation via the classical pathway C-reactive protein (CRP)
The complement fragment that provides the greatest amount of amplification of the complement cascade is C3b
Protein that coats a pathogen surface targeting the pathogen for phagocytosis opsonin
Properdin (Factor P) enhances complement system activation by binding to C3bBb
Which receptors present on macrophages are NOT used to initiate phagocytosis? Toll-like receptors
Septic shock is a direct effect of macrophage overproduction of cytokine TNF-α
Acute phase response primarily increases production of what proteins by the liver? Complement CRP and MBL
Type I interferons are used to combat viral infections.
The effector T lymphocytes designated as T helper cells are identified by what T cell co-receptor molecule? CD4
Which protein domain functions in antigen binding? TCRα variable domain
Transfer of protective immunity from one individual to another in the form of preexisting antibody is called passive immunity
It would be correct to say that there are 3 CDR within the hypervariable region of an immunoglobulin heavy chain TRUE
The correct description of the “immunoglobulin-like” domain in a protein two anti-parallel β-sheets held together by a disulfide bond
The two C gene segments closest to the variable gene segments in immunoglobulin heavy chain locus Cμ and Cδ
The “12/23” rule is utilized in the process of somatic recombination
Which process uses alternative RNA processing to occur? The production of membrane-bound vs. secreted immunoglobulin
Sensitizes mast cells IgE
Highest concentration in mucus IgA
Most abundant in serum and body fluids IgG
Junctional diversity is used in the formation of both TCR and BCR
Which protein domain forms a portion of a TCR?
Which CD protein is found on the surface of γδ T lymphocytes? CD3 only
Which T cell co-receptor molecule associates a TCR with MHC Class I? CD8
Which protein is involved in antigen processing and proper MHC Class II peptide loading? HLA-DM
The monomeric protein(s) that pair(s) with MHC Class I α chains to form the MHC Class I heterodimer is/are β2-microglobulin
Antigen cross-presentation refers to presentation of peptides derived from exogenous virus proteins within MHC Class I molecules.
Which can result from transplantation of bone marrow to an HLA-mismatched recipient? Graft vs. Host Disease (the transplanted bone marrow cells give rise to mature effector B and T cells that “see” the new host as foreign and attack it)
How is MHC peptide-binding diversity generated within an individual? Degenerate peptide binding
Most humans express _ HLA Class I isoforms and _ HLA Class II isoforms. 6,6
Why is IgM secreted as a pentamer instead of a monomer? It provides 10 antigen-binding sites to compensate for the low affinity of each individual antigen-binding site. (=higher avidity)
Antibody isotype is a synonym for antibody class
Describe what is meant by respiratory burst Consumption of oxygen by a phagocytic cell to drive the electron transport chain which pumps H+ out of the phagosome, raising the pH, and activating neutral proteases within granules that fuse to the phagosomes
The surrogate light chain is composed of VpreB + λ5
Stromal cells that are essential for B lymphocyte development are located in the bone marrow
The primary antibody isotype secreted by B-1 B lymphocytes is IgM
Which cell is NOT normally present in a germinal center? plasma cell
Which represents the normal path of a B lymphocyte that does not become activated by its antigen in a lymph node? HEV->T cell zone->primary lymphoid follicle->efferent lymph vessel
What cell interaction triggers isotype switching and somatic hypermutation by a B lymphocyte? Stimulation by a T helper cell
Binding to soluble self-antigen in the bone marrow will cause a B lymphocyte to undergo: clonal anergy
The molecule produced by FDC that provides periodic survival signals for naïve mature B lymphocytes is BAFF
What cell type is found throughout the thymus? Macrophages
After birth, what percent of thymocytes end up becoming αβ T cells? 90%
A double-positive thymocyte expresses both CD4 and CD8
What T lymphocyte receptor gene loci begin rearranging following successful pre-TCR formation? α, β, and δ
B cells undergo negative selection only
The cell that accomplishes positive selection of T lymphocytes in the thymus is: cortical thymic epithelial cells
Central tolerance of T lymphocytes is essentially the same as _______ within the thymus. Negative selection
The important effector role of T helper 1 cells is provide help to activate macrophages
This protein becomes expressed on activated T lymphocytes late in a response to antigen and provides a negative signal to the T cell to shut down the immune response CTLA-4
What is the main factor that determines the ultimate effector phenotype a CD4+ T cell will choose once activated by antigen? The cytokines present during the antigen-activation process.
The signature cytokine secreted by T helper 1 cells is IFN-γ
Soluble protein antigens represent the vast majority of foreign antigens presented by this antigen-presenting cell B lymphocytes
The three main cells that accomplish cell-mediated immunity are Th1, macrophages, Tc
FasL has a primary role in induction of apoptosis
What cell(s) express(es) CD40L? both Th1 and Th2
What cytokine is very important in viral immunity? IFN-γ
The Tc lytic granule proteins that polymerize to form the pore in a target cell membrane are perforins
Which of the following effector T cells would stay in secondary lymphoid tissues instead of travelling to the site of infection? Th2
The cytokine required for differentiation of FDC is LT
The cell-surface molecule on a helper T cell that is critical for driving T-dependent antibody responses: CD40L
An antigen that contains a TLR ligand would be classified as what kind of antigen in regard to B lymphocyte activation? T-independent 1 (TI-1) antigen
Which of the following is NOT a normal function of FDC? Antigen presentation
The relative order of antibody isotype production comparable to adult levels by a child (newborn to 5 years) is IgM, then IgG, then IgA
The protein necessary to produce IgA as a dimer is J-chain
This FcR triggers granule exocytosis of mast cells when antigen binds FcεRI
This FcR transports IgG across capillary endothelium into tissues: FcRn
What receptor on RBC allows them to remove immune complexes from blood plasma? CR1
List the four cell types that are minimally required to allow a T-dependent antibody response to occur. Dendritic cell, Th, B cell, follicular dendritic cell
Describe the two-signal hypothesis of T cell activation. (Be specific!) Both signals are required for naïve T cell activation:Both signals are required for naïve T cell activation: 1) TCR – MHC I peptide complex 2) CD28 stimulated by B7
What is thymic involution? Loss of thymic production of T lymphocytes with age; thymic lobules fill with fat tissue.
Explain why Ig light chain rearrangement has a higher rate of success than Ig heavy chain rearrangement 1) Light chain is simpler: only V-J for light chain, while heavy is V-D-J. 2) More loci available to attempt rearrangement for light chain because we have κ and λ that both can make light chain, while the heavy chain only has one locus.
Which of the following chemokine receptors is responsible for the homing of lymphocytes to the skin? CCR4
Which of the following functions of antibody is performed by dimeric IgA produced in mucosal sites? Neutralization
Which of the following best describes how the immune system compensates for a lack of mucosal IgA in “Selective IgA Deficiency”? IgM is transported across the mucosal epithelium by the poly-Ig receptor.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of gut IELs? A rare cell, present at a rate of only 1 per 100 epithelial cells.
Which of the following Th2 cytokines benefits immune responses to gut parasite infections by causing B cell isotype switching to IgE to arm Mast cells and other granulocytes? IL-4
The primary function of “central memory cells” is to: Provide T cell help to B cells within secondary lymphoid tissues
Where are Vγ9:Vδ2 T cells are located in the body of an adult? Peripheral blood, in circulation
In general, what is the “ligand” recognized by most NK cell inhibitory receptors? Self-MHC class I
CD1a, CD1b, and CD1c molecules present lipids to activate: T lymphocytes possessing αβ TCR with CD4 or CD8 T cell co-receptor
B lymphocyte defect: Susceptible to extracellular pyogenic bacterial infections
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID): Susceptible to ALL infectious agents (bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites)
MHC class I deficiency: Susceptible to ALL virus infections
Complement component C7 deficiency: Susceptible to Neisseria spp. Bacterial infections
Which of the following tests would be most useful in diagnosing a defect in phagocyte migration (aka Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency)? Neutrophil expression of CD11a, CD11b, CD11c, and CD18 by flow cytometry
AIDS due to HIV infection is classified as: Secondary immunodeficiency
What is the function of HIV protein gp41? Causes fusion of virus envelope with host cell membrane
Which strain of HIV is more common in the US? HIV-1
How long is the “latent phase” of acute HIV infection? 2-6 weeks
An HIV infection is usually acquired with which “form” of HIV virus? Macrophage-tropic
An individual is infected with HIV, but when tested for HIV infection their test result is negative. This would be called: A false negative test
“Study of the non-cellular components in blood” is the definition of: Serology
The confirmatory test for HIV diagnosis in a high-risk adult is: HIV Western Blot
Which of the following tests is recommended for diagnosis of congenital HIV in a newborn? HIV viral RNA test
The HIV p24 antigen test is NOT recommended for: Monitoring adult patient response to HAART anti-retroviral therapy
An EIA test kit designed to detect a patient antibody response to HIV must contain which of the following reagents in the test kit? HIV protein antigen bound to the inside of the test well
What is the best explanation for how the HIV Western Blot adds specificity to HIV infection diagnosis? It requires patient antibody responses to a minimum of two specific HIV proteins to be considered positive
A physician orders an HIV EIA test on a high risk adult patient and the initial test is positive. The next appropriate step to be taken by laboratory personnel is: Repeat the EIA test in duplicate with the same serum sample.
The best definition of Hepatitis is: Inflammation of the liver, due to any cause (infection, toxicity, etc.)
The main health concern associated with most viral hepatitis is: Chronic hepatitis leading to cirrhosis and/or liver cancer decades later.
In general, in the case of infectious disease, which of the following would indicate resolution of acute infection and/or immunity? Positive test for IgG antibody to the organism
This hepatitis virus is transmitted by the parenteral route: HCV
This hepatitis virus only causes acute hepatitis and does not cause chronic disease: HAV
What percentage of infants infected with HBV will develop chronic infection? 90%
Presence of which of the following would indicate ongoing acute HBV infection and high virus production? HBeAg
A patient presents to his physician with signs of acute hepatitis. The physician orders an “Acute Hepatitis Panel.” IgM anti-HAV negative HBsAg negative Anti-HCV positive The best interpretation of these results is: The patient has Hepatitis C infection, but this should be confirmed with the HCV RIBA test
Describe how “protective immunity” and “immunological memory” differ Protective immunity is short-lived (2-3 months) and provides protection against reinfection due to circulating neutralizing antibody. Immunologic memory lasts years to decades and is a rapid (1 day) response to reinfection due to memory B and T cells.
In general, identify how γδ T cells, NK cells, and NKT cells differ from classic αβ T cells in their antigen recognition. Classic αβ T cells must be presented peptide antigens within MHC class I or II molecules. γδ T cells, NK cells, and NKT cells see lipid antigens, phosphoantigens, and other non-peptide antigens not presented in MHC-I or II.
Why is HAART drug therapy used in HIV infection instead of single drug therapy? HIV rapidly becomes resistant to single drug therapy b/c of the lack of proofreading of HIV reverse transcriptase enzyme induces rapid mutations in HIV genes.
Created by: smith698