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L3 A&P - QUESTIONS

RANDOM QUESTIONS A&P+ NUT

QuestionAnswer
Which of the following is a cardiovascular benefit of aerobic training? Increased arterial elasticity A higher relative exercise heart rate Lower cardiac output Higher lactic acid Increased arterial elasticity
Which of the following is a cardiovascular benefit of aerobic training? Increased cardiac output A higher relative exercise heart rate Lower cardiac output Higher lactic acid Increased cardiac output
Which of these is not a muscle from the shoulder joint? Pectoralis major Deltoids Scapula Latissmus dorsi Scapula
The shoulder joint is formed by the articulation of which two bones ? scapula and the humerus
Through which axis must the hips rotate, as the femur is moved into internal or external rotation? Anterior-posterior axis Transverse axis Longitudinal axis Medial axis Longitudinal axis
Which of the following ligaments in the spine prevents excess lateral flexion? Interspinous ligaments Posterior longitudinal ligaments Anterior longitudinal ligaments Intertransverse ligaments Intertransverse ligaments
Which of the following knee muscles enables both flexion of the hip and extension of the knee? The vastus medialis The rectus femoris The vastus intermedius The vastus lateralis The rectus femoris - All four muscles enable extension of the knee but it’s only the rectus femoris, which originates at the ilium, that also enables flexion of the hip
What does muscle tissue comprise of? A motor group A motor neuron A motor unit A motor stimulus A motor unit - Muscle tissue is made up of various fibrous units, which run parallel along its length
What changes do resistance training and weighted workouts mainly cause in the neuromuscular system, INCREASED thickness or diameter of recruited muscle fibres nervous inhibition. size and number of mitochondria. aerobic enzymes in the muscle tissue. Increased thickness or diameter of recruited muscle fibres.
The myelin sheath is vital for: A Sensing heat and pain B Releasing acetylcholine C Generating an action potential D Fast transmission of impulses Fast transmission of impulses
Calcium release in muscle tissue to stimulate actin and myosin interaction flows from the: A Cytoplasm B Sarcoplasmic reticulum C Muscle spindle D Golgi tendon organ Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Where is the origin of rectus abdominis? A Pubis B Femur C Lower ribs D Sternum Pubis
Which of the following muscles eccentrically controls adduction of the shoulder? A Latissimus dorsi B Pectoralis major C Deltoids D Biceps brachii Deltoids
the Transversus abdominis, the posterior fibres of the Obliques internus abdominis, the diaphragm, the pelvic floor muscles, the Multifidus and lumbar portions of the Longissimus and Iliocostalis are known as which unit ? the inner
Which of the following muscles is NOT part of the inner unit? A Diaphragm B Iliopsoas C Pelvic floor D Transversus abdominis Iliopsoas
A single motor unit: A Can increase the force it generates B Can decrease the force it generates C Cannot vary the force it generates D Frequently varies the force it generates Cannot vary the force it generates
Calcium release in muscle tissue to stimulate actin and myosin interaction flows from the: A Cytoplasm B Sarcoplasmic reticulum C Muscle spindle D Golgi tendon organ Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Whilst the pectoralis major contracts concentrically, which action takes place at the shoulder? A Horizontal flexion B Lateral flexion C Retraction D Elevation Lateral flexion
what are the iliopsoas better known as ? hip flexors
During the downward phase of a squat which movement occurs at the hip? A Lateral flexion B Horizontal flexion C Flexion D Plantar flexion Flexion
Which of the following muscles is NOT part of the inner unit? A Diaphragm B Iliopsoas C Pelvic floor D Transversus abdominis Iliopsoas
When performing a supine leg raise, what muscle is the prime mover? (1 mark) a. Rectus abdominis b. Vastus medialis c. Gluteus maximus d. Psoas major Psoas major (Iliopsoas )
Strengthening which muscles can help to correct lordosis? (1 mark) a. Muscles that retract the scapula b. Muscles that tilt the pelvis backwards c. Muscles that protract the scapula d. Muscles that tilt the pelvis forwards Muscles that tilt the pelvis backwards
atherosclerosis effect on arteries? a decreases resistance to blood flow & increasing BP b increases resistance to blood flow & decreasing BP c increases resistance to blood flow & increasing BP d decreases resistance to blood flow & decreasing BP It increases resistance to blood flow, thus increasing blood pressure
Which of the following is the deepest layer of connective tissue within skeletal muscle? a. Periosteum b. Perimysium c. Epimysium d. Endomysium Endomysium
Which describes coronary circulation? a Arteries carrying de-oxy blood from heart to the aorta b Arteries carrying oxy blood from aorta to the heart c Veins carrying oxy blood from aorta to heart d Veins carrying de-oxy blood from heart to aorta Arteries carrying oxygenated blood from the aorta to the heart
sensory neurons that carry nerve impulses from sensory stimuli towards the central nervous system and brain are known as ? AN Afferent neurons
motor neurons that carry neural impulses away from the central nervous systme and towards muscles to cause movement are known as ? EN efferent neurons
Which of the following is a ‘global’ stabilising muscle of the spine? (1 mark) a. Transverse abdominis b. External oblique c. Multifidus d. Pelvic floor External oblique
Which by-product of the energy systems can cause muscle fatigue? (1 mark) a. Hydrogen ions b. Water c. Creatine phosphate d. Oxygen Hydrogen ions
What structure forms the junction between a neuron and a target cell? (1 mark) a. Synapse b. Cell nucleus c. Axon d. Cell body Synapse
Increased HR during exercise is brought about by? a Sympathetic action of the somatic NS b Parasympathetic action of the autonomic NS c Sympathetic action of the autonomic NS d Parasympathetic action of the somatic NS Sympathetic action of the autonomic NS
What muscle imbalance can develop &, cause an unstable core? a Dominant & weaker muscles both lengthen b Dominant & weaker muscles both tighten c Dominant muscles lengthen & weaker muscles tighten d Dominant muscles tighten & weaker muscles lengthen Dominant muscles tighten & weaker muscles lengthen
Where are catecholamines produced? (1 mark) a. Pancreas b. Adrenal glands c. Thyroid gland d. Ovaries Adrenal glands
Which hormone causes the conversion of glycogen to glucose to raise blood sugar level? (1 mark) a. Testosterone b. Oestrogen c. Glucagon d. Insulin Glucagon
Which enzyme breaks proteins into amino acids ? T Trypsin
Which enzyme breaks fat into fatty acids ? L Lipase
Which enzyme carbohydrate into glucose Amylase
which digestive organ secretes a juice containing digestive enzymes that help the absorption of nutrients and the digestion. These enzymes help further break down carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids Pancreas
what food group should meals be based on ? S Starchy
how many portions of fish should be eaten per week ? (2 portions a week, 1 oily)
how many portions of oily fish should be eaten per week ? 1
maximum grams of salt to be aten per day is ? 6 grams
macronutrients - what minimum % of calories should carbs be ? 50%
macronutrients - what max % of calories should fats be ? 35%
macronutrients - what minimum grams of calories should proteins be ? 55grams
how many calories is a gram of fat ? 9 grams
how many calories is a gram carb & protein ? 4 grams
The MyPyramid food model encourages people to think about their diet and promotes ? PC portion control.
UK dietary reference values (DRV) are...... recommended nutritional intakes for the population
Recommended daily intake (RDI) is a system used to .... provide minimum nutrient requirements
Glycaemic Index (GI) is a measure of how quickly ....... blood sugar levels rise after eating
Food Manufacturers are only required to provide nutritional information when ? if the product makes a claim to be 'low fat' (for example), or if vitamins or minerals have been added.
Nutrition labelling is the responsibility of who ? DoH Department of Health
general food labelling policy has been passed to ? DEFRA - Department for Environment, Food and Rural Affairs
what are listed on food labels in descending weight order. Ingredients
Healthy marketing terminology - 'Reduced or low fat’ label must be at least what % lower in fat ? 25%
major sweeteners used in the food industry stimulate the sensory areas of the brain and potentially stimulate craving sensations and appetite, these are known as excitotoxins - E Numbers
A drop in oestrogen levels is associated with a. increase in bone density b. increased osteoblast activity c. decrease in osteoclast activity d. decrease in bone density decrease in bone density
Bone consists of a. 25% protein b. 50% water c. 25% mineral salts d. 70% mineral salts 25% protein
In a 1st class lever the fulcrum is a. furthest from the effort b. between the effort and the load c. last d. 1st between the effort and the load
The epimysium surrounds a. the muscle belly b. myofibrils c. myofilaments d. muscle fibres the muscle belly
The part of a neuron that transfers nerve impulses is the Select one: a. nucleus b. dendrites c. axon d. myelin sheath axon
the insulating covering that surrounds an axon with multiple spiral layers and also increases the speed at which a nerve impulse can travel along an axon is known as ? MS myelin sheath
which nerve fiber, a long slender projection of a nerve cell, or neuron, that conducts electrical impulses away from the neuron's cell body is known as ? A Axon
What connective tissue, which surrounds the bone, provides the attachment site for skeletal muscle? a. tendon b. fasiculi c. periosteum d. ligament periosteum
What is the insertion of triceps brachii? Select one: a. humerus b. olecranon c. radius d. scapula olecranon - The bony tip of the elbow
The bony tip of the elbow is known as the ? O olecranon
What is the origin of internal obliques? a. sacrum b. sternum c. Ilium d. lower ribs Ilium (pelvic bone)
What is the insertion of internal obliques? a. sacrum b. sternum c. Ilium d. lower ribs lower ribs
Which of the following is a muscle configuration? a. fusiform b. biaxial c. unilateral d. neuron fusiform - A muscle that has a shape of spindle, which is being wider in the middle and narrowing towards both ends
A muscle configuration that has a shape of spindle, which is being wider in the middle and narrowing towards both ends (eg biceps brachi) is known as ? F fusiform
what is the Latin phrase meaning two-headed [muscle] ? in reference to the fact that the muscle consists of two bundles of muscle, each with its own origin, sharing a common insertion point brachii
Which of the following would NOT be an adaptation to the anaerobic system? a. increase mitochondria stores b. anaerobic capacity of type 2a muscle fibres c. decrease in mitochondria stores d. increase in creatine phosphate stores increase mitochondria stores
what carbohydrate fuel is burned to produce heat and ATP ? Glucose
The carbohydrate fuel used for exercise is ? G Glucose
what carbohydrate fuel is found in the bloodstream and stored as glycogen in the muscles and the liver ? Glucose
The transformation of glucose into energy occurs in one of two ways: either with or without what ? oxygen (aerobically) or without it (anaerobically)
Glucose is converted to energy with oxygen in the ? M mitochondria - these are tiny bodies found inside every cell
what is one of the advantages of using carbohydrate as fuel is being able to turn ? (think anerobic/lactate sysytem) Being able to turn glucose into energy without oxygen
what is one of the disadvantages of using carbohydrate as fuel ? (think anerobic/lactate sysytem) waste product lactate acid is produced which can lead to muscle soreness
If the level of oxygen in the muscle cell falls very low can the cells change glucose into energy without it ? YES/NO YES
tissue found under the skin and around body organs that is composed of fat-storing cells is known as ? Adipose tissue
what can only be used as an energy source when oxygen is present eg aerobically ? FATS
The process of burning fat for energy is called ? L lipolysis
what are broken down into amino acids, which can also be used to produce ATP when oxygen is available proteins
what will produce carbon dioxide, water, ATP, urea and ammonia when burnt for fuel proteins
intense exercise means the muscles will rely rely on what to provide energy. glucose
which fuel source can be burned with or without oxygen ? Carbohydrates
which fuel source is excellent for endurance activities and can only be burned with oxygen Fats
which fuel source contributes a small percentage of energy used during exercise; they are your last resort for energy Proteins
which rate is calculated using a strict formula using variables of height, weight, age and gender. The result is then adjusted depending on the amount of exercise you carry out. Basal metabolic rate BMR
what formula is shown here ?? + ( ? x weight in pounds ) + ( ?? x height in inches ) - (?? x age in years ) Basal metabolic rate BMR
In general, individuals should be drinking how many litres of water per day two to three litres of water per day
What is the function of the large intestine during digestion? Storage of waste material for elimination. Production of bile acids. Release of gastric juices. Production of saliva to breakdown fats Storage of waste material for elimination.
Which of the following is a monosaccharide? Sucrose Maltose Fructose Cellulose Fructose
which saccharides are the simplest form of sugar and are usually colourless and water-soluble ? M monosaccharides
How many amino acids are considered to be essential? 7 - 9 - 10 - 8 9
what type of amino acids cannot be created from other compounds by the human body, and so must be taken in as food. essential
Which of the following is true of saturated fats? They are found mainly in plant foods. They are saturated with hydrogen atoms. They are liquid at room temperature. They are saturated with oxygen atoms They are saturated with hydrogen atoms.
oily fish, flax oil, walnuts, pasture-reared eggs are all types of omega 3 fatty acids meaning they are which type of fat ? polyunsaturated fats
There are two main types of polyunsaturated fats, which are considered essential fatty acids because the body isn’t able to synthesise them itself; these are ? Omega-3 and Omega-6 fatty acids
Which is a source of polyunsaturated fat? Olive oil Avocado Sunflower oil Peanut oil Sunflower oil
sunflower seeds, sunflower oil, safflower oil, pumpkin seeds, sesame seeds are all Omega 6 fatty acids meaning they are what type of fat ? polyunsaturated fats
What is a guideline suggested portion size for bread? One slice Two slices Three slices Four slices one portion
What is the correct pattern of motor unit recruitment? A Smallest to largest B Largest to smallest C Random selection D Oldest to youngest Smallest to largest
Which hormone is produced by the pancreas? A Thyroxine B Adrenaline C Calcitonin D Insulin Insulin
Which muscle may be lengthened by hyperkyphotic posture? A Lower trapezius B Pectoralis major C Rectus abdominis D Levator scapulae Lower trapezius
where is the levator scapulae muscle situated ? at the back and sides of the neck
what is the main function of the levator scapulae muscles ? to lift the scapula
What joint has the potential to perform a circumduction movement? A Atlanto-axial B Ankle C Radio-ulnar D Hip Hip
which joints allow circumduction ? ball and socket
which two major joints allow circumduction ? shoulder & hip both ball and socket joints
In sliding filament theory, which mineral ion is essential in the process of muscle contraction? A Magnesium B Iron C Zinc D Calcium Calcium
Which muscle has a role in stabilising the spine? A Teres major B Supraspinatus C Quadratus lumborum D Subscapularis Quadratus lumborum
which muscle is found in your lower back, between the top of your pelvis and your lowest rib &has a role in stabilising the spine ? QL Quadratus lumborum
Which of the following muscles protract the scapulae? A Trapezius B Serratus anterior C Levator scapulae D Rhomboids Serratus anterior
What is the primary concentric action of psoas major? A Hip extension B Hip flexion C Knee flexion D Knee extension Hip flexion
what group of muscles does the psoas major belong to ? HF Hip Flexors
What muscle connects the ilium to the lateral upper tibia? A Vastus lateralis B Tensor fascia latae C Adductor magnus D Semitendinosus Tensor fascia latae
Which muscle forms part of the hamstrings group? A Semimembranosus B Adductor magnus C Gluteus maximus D Vastus intermedius Semimembranosus
which is the most medial of the three hamstring muscles Semimembranosus
What is the neurotransmitter used by the motor branch of the somatic nervous system? A Lactate B Acetylcholine C Noradrenaline D Thyroxine Acetylcholine
What joint type has a large movement potential in only one plane? A Hinge B Ball and socket C Gliding D Ellipsoid Hinge
What do the coronary arteries supply blood to? A Lungs B Heart C Brain D Body Heart
Which muscle connects the ischium to the tibia? A Vastus intermedius B Gluteus maximus C Semimembranosus D Psoas major Semimembranosus
which hamstring muscle connects the ischium to the tibia ? S Semimembranosus
What determines the number of motor neurons recruited? A Muscle B Autonomic nervous system C Central nervous system D Tendon Central nervous system
Which muscle dorsiflexes the ankle? A Tibialis anterior B Gastrocnemius C Hamstrings D Soleus Tibialis anterior
which lower muscles are used for dorsiflexion front or back ? Front - Tibialis anterior
which lower muscles are used for plantarflexion front or back ? Back - Gastrocnemius - Soleus - plantar
What is the primary concentric action of rhomboid major? A Scapular depression B Scapular retraction C Shoulder adduction D Shoulder abduction Scapular retraction
What is the sympathetic nervous system a division of? A Autonomic system B Somatic system C Parasympathetic system D Central system Autonomic system
How is information communicated across a synapse? A Electrically B Chemically C Kinetically D Mechanically Chemically
Which of the following helps to passively control spinal motion? A Quadratus lumborum B Levator scapulae C Posterior longitudinal ligament D Anterior cruciate ligament Posterior longitudinal ligament
which ligament runs the entire length of the spine from the base of the skull to sacrum & helps to passively control spinal motion ? PLL Posterior longitudinal ligament
What part of a neuron is the neurotransmitter released from? A Nucleus B Cell body C Axon hillock D Axon terminal Axon terminal
where does the teres major attach (2 points) lower scapula (origin) to upper humerus (insertion)
What movement causes teres major to contract eccentrically? A Elbow extension B Shoulder adduction C Elbow flexion D Shoulder abduction Shoulder abduction
How does improved neuromuscular coordination benefit exercise performance? A Increased power B Increased heart rate C Increased oxygen D Increased energy production Increased power
What is blood flowing through if it goes from the aorta, to coronary arteries, to capillaries and to coronary veins? A Brain B Lungs C Heart D Legs Heart
what condition occurs when blood flow to your heart is reduced, preventing the heart muscle from receiving enough oxygen & reduces the heart muscle's ability to pump blood ? I Ischaemia
What term describes an inadequate blood supply to part of the myocardium? A Ischaemia B Bradycardia C Arrhythmia D Infarction Ischaemia
what prolonged condition causes an infarction ? I Ischaemia
what can prolonged Ischaemia cause ? I infarction
When rectus abdominis is the agonist, what is the antagonist? A Transversus abdominis B Erector spinae C External obliques D Lower trapezius Erector spinae
When Erector spinae is the agonist, what is the antagonist? A Transversus abdominis B Lower trapezius C External obliques D rectus abdominis rectus abdominis
What system of the body are proprioceptors part of? A Nervous B Muscular C Endocrine D Skeletal Nervous
What muscle inserts onto both the clavicle and scapula? A Trapezius B Rhomboid major C Sternocleidomastoid D Levator scapulae Trapezius
What is an example of an unstable ball and socket joint with a shallow socket? A Shoulder B Hip C Thumb D Ankle Shoulder
Which hormone is secreted by the adrenal glands? A Insulin B Calcitonin C Noradrenaline D Thyroxine Noradrenaline
What division of the nervous system is responsible for the analysis of information? A Autonomic B Peripheral C Somatic D Central Central
What are large motor units well suited to? A Fine movement control B Low force generation C Skilled and intricate tasks D High force generation High force generation
What are the joints between the pelvis and the spine called? A Iliosacral B Spinopelvic C Sacroischial D Sacroiliac Sacroiliac
Which muscle attaches the ribs to the pubis and iliac crest? A External obliques B Rectus abdominis C Erector spinae D Psoas major External obliques
What is the name of the fluid found inside a muscle fibre? A Myoplasm B Sarcoplasm C Sarcoplasmic reticulum D Myoplasmic reticulum Sarcoplasm
a fine network or netlike structure is known as a ? R reticulum
Which joint action of the hip occurs in the frontal plane? A Extension B Flexion C Rotation D Adduction Adduction
which movements occur in the frontal plane ? Adduction: Abduction: Elevation: Moving to a superior position (only at the scapula) Depression: Moving to an inferior position (only at the scapula) Inversion: Lifting the medial border of the foot Eversion: Lifting the lateral border of the foot
which of the following is a global (superficial) muscle that supports posture ? -- lumbar multifudus -- transverse adominis -- pelvic floor -- erector spinae -- erector spinae
Which of the following is a benefit which results from regular endurance/aerobic training? a. Increased blood volume b. Increased lactic acid production c. Increased creatine phosphate storage d. Delayed onset of muscle soreness (DOMS) Increased blood volume
When a myosin head attaches to an actin filament the resulting connection is known as a a. cross-bridge b. synapse c. junction d. collagen fibre cross-bridge
Through which anatomical plane does the leg move when stepping forward? a. Frontal b. Transverse c. Coronal d. Sagittal Sagittal
sagital plane body movements are ? Forward & Back
Frontal plane movements are ? side to side
Transverse plane movements are ? rotation
How many bones form one half of the pelvis? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 3
Which is the most likely effect that abdominal adiposity will have on movement efficiency? a. Increased hip flexion b. Decreased hip flexion c. Increased hip extension d. Decreased hip extension Decreased hip flexion
Which one of the following cellular structures allows waste products to enter/leave the cell? a. Dendrite b. Myelin Sheath c. Nucleus d. Node of Ranvier Node of Ranvier
a structure that allows a neuron to pass an electrical or chemical signal to another cell ? S synapse
Which of the following is a key factor in determining the strength of a muscle contraction? a. The number of motor units recruited b. The number of motor units inhibited c. The type of muscle fibres recruited d. The type of muscle fibres inhibited The number of motor units recruited
When the stretch reflex is activated in the quadriceps, the quadriceps a. relax b. lengthen c. contract d. stretch contract
what reflex is designed as a protective mechanism for the muscles, to prevent tearing. the stretch reflex
Which of the following is a neuromuscular adaptation associated with resistance training? a. Hypertrophy of motor units b. Increased number of motor units c. Improved synchronisation of motor units d. Hyperplasia of motor units Improved synchronisation of motor units
Which of the following is a key benefit of improved neuromuscular co-ordination? a. Accelerated weight loss b. An increase in VO2 max c. Improved core strength d. Reduced risk of injury Reduced risk of injury
Which hormones are responsible for regulating the stress response? a. Growth hormones b. Corticosteroids c. Catecholamines d. Progesterones Corticosteroids
which autonomic nervous system division is the primary mechanism in control of the fight-or-flight response The sympathetic nervous system
The autonomic nervous system has two divisions what are they ? the sympathetic division and the parasympathetic division
which nervous system controls internal organs and glands ? The autonomic nervous system
which nervous system controls muscles and movement. The somatic nervous system
which autonomic nervous system division is responsible for the body's rest and digestion response when the body is relaxed, resting, or feeding. It basically undoes the work of sympathetic division after a stressful situation parasympathetic
The perimysium surrounds Select one: a. myofibril b. periosteum c. tendon d. fasciculi fasciculi
free weights is better for improving motor skills than using machines why ? challenges the motor system / improves motor skills
what variable(P) has been shown to improve results by varying loads and intensities from session to session – rather than keeping the standard and rep range consistent throughout Periodisation
Strengthening which muscles can help to correct excessive lordosis? Muscles that retract the scapula Muscles that tilt the pelvis backwards Muscles that protract the scapula Muscles that tilt the pelvis forwards Muscles that tilt the pelvis backwards
A core stability programme must include exercises which are performed on stable surfaces are performed on unstable surfaces avoid engaging both local and global muscles at the same time engage both local and global muscles engage both local and global muscles
As the agonist contracts, the antagonist muscle relaxes to allow movement. This is called reciprocal inhibition passive innovation reciprocal innovation passive inhibition reciprocal inhibition
During the eccentric phase of an abdominal curl, the spine retracts flexes protracts extends extends
Where in the body are catecholamines produced? Pancreas Adrenal glands Thyroid gland Ovaries Adrenal glands
Created by: LeeNelson
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