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PSYC 271 Midterm 2

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Question
Answer
___ are electrically charged atoms   Ions  
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Electrical potential aka voltage:   Difference in the concentration of charges between two solutions  
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Voltage   electrostatic pressure  
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4 important ions for neural conduction   Na, K, Cl, Calcium  
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2 ways to measure membrane potentials   Voltmeter, or oscilloscope with electrical stimulator  
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____ concentration is higher outside of the cell   Na  
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____ concentration is higher inside the cell   K  
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Na is driven in by both ______ _______ and its _____ _____ (random motion)   electrostatic forces, concentration gradient  
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K is driven _____ by electrostatic forces, and _____ by its concentration gradient   IN, OUT  
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Sodium-potassium pump   active force (ATP) that exchanges 3NA+ inside for 2K outsode  
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EPSP causes ______, and an ______probability of action potential. Ie Na or Ca influx   depolarization, increased  
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IPSP causes _______, and a ________ probability of action potential. Ie Cl influx, K efflux   hyperpolarization, decreased  
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PSPs are _______, and they are transmitted ______ and ______   graded, decrementally and rapidly  
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In EPSP, it depolarizes the cell membrane (making it _____ ____), bringing it ____ to threshold and making it ____ likely that an action potential will fire   less negative, closer, more  
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IPSP hyperpolarizes the cell membrane (making it ____ ______), bringing it ______ to threshold and making it _____ likely that an action potential will fire   more negative, further, less  
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What is typically needed to cause a neuron to fire?   summation  
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In order to generate an AP, the ______ of _____ must be reached near the axon   threshold of activation  
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Integration of IPSPs and EPSPs must result in a potential of about ______ in order to generate an AP   -65mV  
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3 examples of spatial summation of PSPs   2 simultaneous EPSP or IPSP to produce 1 greater one, or teo opposite effects to cancel one another out  
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Temporal summation of PSPs   rapid succession sums a larger PSP  
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Steps in ionic basis of action potentials:   Na channels open, Na rushes in (depolarization), K channels slowly open, K leaves cell (repolarization), Cell becomes hyperpolarized  
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Resting membrane potential:   -70 mV, inside of cell has a negative charge relative to outside of cell  
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Depolarization   membrane potential becomes less negative  
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Threshold   point that voltage gated sodium channels open, AP occurs  
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Repolarization   membrane potential becomes negative again, approaching the resting membrane potential  
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Hyperpolarization:   membrane potential becomes even more negative than the resting membrane potential  
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Refractory periods prevent the _____ movement of APs, limit the rate of firing   backward  
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Absolute refractory period:   impossible to initiate another action potential, 1-2 ms after AP start  
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Relative refractory period:   Threshold less negative than rest, more difficult to initiate another AP (more depolarization necessary)  
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Conduction of action potentials is _____, _____, ______   active, slower, nondecremental  
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Diffusion of Na+ triggers next ___ ____   action potential  
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____ channels tightly packed, creating waves of depolarization   Na  
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Orthodromic conduction is transmission ___   to  
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Antidromic conduction is transmission   away - can stimulate at axon terminals  
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Nodes of ranvier AKA   saltatory conduction  
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What kinds of axons are the fastest?   Myelinated, larger  
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The Hidgkin-Huxley model of neural conduction is from ____ motor axons, which is _____ than that of ____ _____ neurons   squid, different, mammal cerebral  
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Fo interneurons fire action potentials?   NO  
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Are dendrites able to fire action potentials?   Maybe  
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Mammal cerebral action potentials vary in ____, ______, and ______   amplitude, duration, frequency  
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Can mammalian cerebral axons fire potentials in the absence ofinput?   Maybe, tonically active  
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Axoaxonic synapses   presynaptic inhibition/facilitation  
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dendrodendritic synapses   bidirectional  
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dendroaxonic synapses   rare  
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axonal main shaft synapses   synapses between axon shafts - parallel side by side, synapse onto other  
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nondirected synapses   common for monoamine neurotransmission - diffuse release of NT  
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Some communication is through ____ _____ between cells   gap junctions  
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_____ appear to modulate neuronal activity within their own domain   Astrocytes, communicate with adjacent ones through gap junctions  
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Where are small-molecule neurotransmitters syntehsized   cytoplasm of axon terminal buttons  
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Small molecule NTs packaging   packaged into synaptic vesicles by golgi complex at terminal button  
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Large molecule neurotransmitter synthesis   in cytoplasm of cell body by ribosomes  
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Packaging of large molecule neurotransmitter   packaged into synaptic vescicles by golgi complex  
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Transport of large molecule neurotransmitter   transported to axon terminal by microtubules  
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A single neuron can typically syntehsize and release one type of ____, one type of ____, or one type of ______ (coexistence)   small, large, each  
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4 steps to NT release   AP arrives at terminal button, voltage gated calcium channels open, Ca++ enters, vesicles fuse, empty contents via exocytosis  
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Ionotropic receptors AKA ______ or _______   ligand or NT gated ion channels  
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Ionotropic receptors are ____ acting   Fast  
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Ionotropic receptirs usually have a _____ effect   Transient  
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Depending on the type, Ionotropic receptros can _____ or _____   depolarize (NA or CA), or hyperpolarize (Cl or K)  
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Metabotropic receptors AKA   G-protein-couples receptors  
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Metabotropic receptors are usually ____ acting   slower  
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Metabotropic receptors have a ____ effect by modifying ___ ____   lasting, intracellular signalling  
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Presynaptic autoreceptors are activated by _____ in the synapse, generally inhibits the amount of ____ released (braking mechanism_   neurotransmitter, neurotransmitter  
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Neurotransmitter reuptake   pull NT back up into presynaptic neuron, repackaged and re-sent out  
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Neurotransmitter degradation by enzymes   seek out and destroy neurotransmitters  
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5 classes of NTs   Amino acids, monoamines, acetylcholine, unconventional neurotransmitters, neuropeptides  
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AA NTs   Fast, typically binding to ionotrppic receptors. Glutamate, GAVA, aspartate, glycine  
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Monoamine NTs   more diffuse, non-directed synapses. Metabotropic receptors with diverse functions, arise in brainstem. Catecholamines, indolamines  
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Ach NTs   acetyl + choline, nicotinic (iono) & muscarinic (meta). Degraded by acetylcholinesterase. Many synapses in ANS  
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What defines something as an unconventional neurotransmitter?   Does not fit into other categories, less understood  
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2 types of unconventional neurotransmitters   Soluble gases that exist only briefly, endocannabinoids  
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Soluble gases that exist only briefly   NO, CO. Backward/retrograde communication. Neural cytoplasm production, short acting (via membranes)  
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Endocannabinoids   produced on-demand, released from dendrites, inhibit presynaptic neurons. rapidly degraded  
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Neuropeptides are ____ ______ of amino acids   short chains  
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the 5 categories of neuropeptides have a ______ of functions   variety  
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Ex of neuropeptide   Endorphins ie Endogenous opiods, analgesia/reward system  
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Agonists   Facilitate neurotransmitter's effects  
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Antagonists   Reduce neurotransmitter's effects  
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Drugs may impact ___ _____ of the synaptic transmission pathway   Any part  
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Agonist drug effect on synthesis   Increases synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules  
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Antagonistic drug effect on synthesis   Blocks synthesis of NT molecule  
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Agonist drug on breakdown   Increases NT # by destroying degrading enzymes  
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Antagonist drug on breakdown   NT molecules leak from vesicles, destroyed by degrading enzymes  
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Agonist drug on exocytosis   increases NT release from terminal buttons  
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Antagonist drug on exocytosis   Blocks NT release from terminal button  
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Agonist drug on inhibitory feedback   binds to autoreceptors, blocks inhibitory effect on NT release  
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Antagonist drug on inhibitory feedback   activates autoreceptors, inhibits NT release  
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Agonist drug on activation   binds to postsynaptic receptor, activates/increases effect on NT molecule  
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Antagonist drug on activation   receptor blocker, binds to postsynaptic receptors to block NT effect  
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Agonist drug on deactivation   blocks deactivation of NT, blocking degradation or reuptake  
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Antagonist drug on deactivation   Receptor blocker, binds to postsynaptic receptors to block NT effect  
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3 influential lines of pharmacology research   acetylcholine receptor subtypes, endogenous opioids, antipsychotic drugs  
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Historically, we used to think that each NT had ___ kind of receptor   one  
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Different _____ selective to specific _____ subtypes, exerting different effects despite involving the same NT   drugs, receptor  
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Nicotonic vs Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors:   Different locations, receptor function, and behavioural effects  
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In PNS, nicotinic receptors:   Activation at neuromuscular junction stimulates muscle contraction  
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In PNS, muscarinic receptors:   Activation slows heart and constricts pupils in ANS  
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Ancient Greeks would consume _____ extracts for stomach ailments and pupil dilation   belladonna  
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The PNS releases ______ on _______ receptors within iris sphincter muscles to constrict pupils   Acetylcholine, muscarinic  
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_____, the main active ingredient of belladonna, blocks _____ receptors, blocking Ach effect on pupils   Atropine, muscarinic  
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_______: Extract of certain vines used by South American natives as a paralytic poison for darts in hunting and war   Curare  
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Curare blocks _____ receptors at the neuromuscular junction, causing _____   nicotinic, paralysis  
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Benefit of using Curare in medical setting   no muscular movement during surgery, but artificial respiration needed  
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Extracted toxin of botulism bacteria   Botox  
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Botox prevents _____ release at the neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis and preventing ____, _____   acetylcholine, tremors, wrinkles  
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Discovery of the endogenous opioids provided insight into what?   brain mechanisms of pleasure and pain  
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Sticky resin obtained from the seed pods of the opium poppy, used for pleasurable effects   Opium  
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Main active ingredient in Opium is _____, an analgesic   morphine  
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Opiates bind to _____ in the midbrain   PAG  
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Direct injection of opiates in PAG produces _____, so does electrical stimulation   Analgesia  
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Endogenous morphine   Endorphins  
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"in the head" opiates   enkephalins  
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First antipsychotic drugs produced antischizophreic effects, but also _____ _____ symptoms   Parkinsonian-like  
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Parkinson's disease associated with death of what? Where?   dopaminergic neurons, substantia nigra  
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______ _____, such as cocaine and amphetamines can induce and exacerbate phycosis   Dopamine agonists  
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Dopamine antagonists can _____ psychotic symptoms   reduce  
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What are 2 X-ray based research techniques?   Contrast X-rays and CT scans  
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What are 2 radioactivity based research techniques?   PET and SPECT  
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What are 3 magnetic field-based research techniques?   MRI, DTI, fMRI  
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______ tissues/objects absorb x-rays more than ___ tissues/objects   Dense, softer  
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Are X rays normally useful for neuroimaging? Why or why not?   NO, brain looks like CSF  
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What are X-rays good for   skull and bone fragments, foreign objects  
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X-rays are _____ and can damage tissue   carcinogenic  
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X-rays give a ____ image of density   2D  
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Contrast X-rays inject ____-____ dye, which _______ X-rays differently than surrounding tissue into the structure of interest   radio-opaque, absorbs  
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_____ ______ is excellent at imaging blood vessels   Cerebral angiography  
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CT scans are X-rays from ____ _____, allowing for a computation of a _____ image of density   multiple angles, 3D  
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Do CT scans have high or low spatial resolution?   Relatively low  
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Health effects of CT better or worse than X-ray? Why?   Worse, more images taken  
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SPECT measures _____ _____ ____ of a radiolabelled tracer in 3D   local blood flow  
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SPECT radiolabelled tracer continually releases _____ as it decays   positrons  
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Typical examples of radiolabelled tracers used in SPECT   inert gas, or tracers with up to 3 day half lifeintravenously  
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SPECT tracers usually administered _____   Intravenously  
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SPECT has very _____ temporal resolution   low (minutes)  
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SPECT is excellent for measuring ____ _____ of interest   specific substances  
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What is SPECT used to detect?   Alzheimers - decreased temporal-parietal metabolism  
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PET has the same features as SPECT, except what?   Positron quickly annihilated by free electrons, releasing 2 photons in opposite directions  
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PET tracers have longer or shorter half lives than SPECT?   shorter  
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What is a common radiotracer used for PET? what does it do?   2-DG, taken up by active NTs (not metabolized) anywhere glucose is taken up  
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Why is PET expensive   Tracer production on site with expensive cyclotron particle accelerator  
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PET tracers are usually administered ____ or ____   intravenously, inhaled  
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Pet has ____ spatial and temporal resolution than SPECT, but is more expensive   greater  
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Constructed image from measures electromagnatic signals emitted by H atoms as they return to alignment with a strong magnetic field after a radio-frequency burst   MRI  
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MRI has very ____ resolution 3D images   high  
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There is high ____ between white and gray matter in MRIs   contrast  
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What can MRIs be combined with? Examples?   Functional scans: fMRI, EEG, PET  
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Exceptions to MRI safety/non-invasiveness   tattoos, metallic devices, pacemakers  
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uses MRI and echo-planar imagine tech to measure subtle magnetic field fluctuations in a substance of interest   fMRI  
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fMRI, fluctuations of magnetic field reflects what?   Cognitive activity  
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what response does fMRI measure?   BOLD - blood oxygen deoxygenation level dependent  
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What can fMRI be used to detect alongside BOLD?   Cerebral blood flow (CBF), dopamine  
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What technique do both PET and fMRI use? What does this control for?   Paired-image subtraction/ controls for external thought, isolates for actual elucidated response  
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What does functional connectivity analysis measure?   Low frequency fluctuations, regional homegeneity  
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Diffusion Tensor Imaging measures pathways along which ____ _____ rapidly diffuse   water molecules  
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DTI tracts indicate how the brain is _____   connected  
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fUS imaging   Functional ultrasound  
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fUS imaging uses ultrasouns to measure changes in _____ _____ in particular brain regions   blood volume  
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When a brain region becomes active, blood levels increase there, altering the _____ of ultrasound through that brain region   passage  
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Benefits of fUS   cheap, prtable, useful for those who can't use PET or MRI  
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fUS can create small, permanent _____ at high amplitudes   lesions  
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fMRI signals is a process that occurs many times/second, so signals can be _____ to one another   added  
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The default mode network is _____ _____ throughout the brain   widely distributed  
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What is the default mode network?   Attention to own thoughts, not the outside world.  
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Default mode network is a source of ____ ____, actively unrelated to a task   noise variance  
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fNIRS uses _____-_______ ______ to estimate hemodynamic activity   near-infrared light  
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fNIRS involves measuring changes in _____ and ____________ concentration   oxy- and deoxyhemoglobin  
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Measures electical activity on the scalp and is a reflection of neuronal synchrony   EEG  
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EEG can be used to diagnose _____, as it has excellent ______ resolution, but poor ________ resolution   epilepsy, temporal, spatial  
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EEG measures the ______ of brain waves   frequency  
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How does one increase the spatial resolution of EEG?   Increasing the number of electrodes  
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EEG signalling averages uses __________ to match EEG signals to repeated sensory, cognitive, or behavioural trials   event-related potentials  
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EEG _______ cancels out after a certain amount of trials   randomness  
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Early EEG components are usually related to ______ features (exogenous components)   sensory  
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Later EEG components are usually related to _______ components (endogenous conponents)   cognitive  
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Small waves immediately after click, from sensory nuclei far from recording   Far Field Potentials  
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Measures tiny magnetic fields of the brain created perpendicular to the electrical current   Magnetoencephalography  
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For MEG to be effective, patient must be inside room _____ ____ for magnetic fields, because tech is sensitive to magnetic fields created by other objects   heavily insulated  
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brain electrical currents create _____ _____ _____   tiny magnetic fields  
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Tiny brain magnetic fields are detected by _____   coils  
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Pros of MEG   both high temporal and spatial resolution, excellent for primary sensory/motor cortices  
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measures the changing difference in the voltage between two large electrodes placed on the skin above a large muscle   Electromyography  
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What does EMG measure?   level of tension in muscle (spike rate)  
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What is electrooculagraphy (EOG)?   Eye movements recorded by placing 4 electrodes around the eye  
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EOG has been replaced by what?   More sophisticated eye tracking methods  
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The general level of skin conductance associated with a particular situation   Skin Conductance Level  
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A rapid change in skin conductance in response to a particular event   Skin conductance response  
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Example of skin conductance response uses?   Polygraph tests  
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Electrocardiograms measure what   Heart rate  
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Blood pressure is measured via a   sphygmomanometer  
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Measurement of blood/air volume in a body structure ie penis, fingers   Plethysmography  
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Transcranial magnetic stimulation temporarily _________ localized brain function   decreases  
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If behaviour from TMS is disrupted, that means what?   That the deactivated part of the brain is causing the bahaviour  
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Transcranial electrical stimulation _______ brain function by passing ____ _____ through the cortex   altering, electrical current  
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In tES, is the current strong enough to elicit an action potential?   NO, it changes the resting membrane threshold - changing how/when it is activated  
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How does transcranial direct current stimulation work?   excitability increases at anodal electrode  
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Transcranial alternating current stimulation alternates current between ______   electrodes  
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tACS entrains neurons to fire at a particular ______, based on _____ of stimulation   frequency, strength  
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Transcranial random noise stimulation is the same as tACS, except ______ changes randomly   frequency  
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tRNS has different effects depending on _____ of stimulation   duration  
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Invasive physiological research methods are performed almost exclusively on _____ models   animal  
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Stereotaxic surgery uses stereotaxic ______ and instrument   atlas  
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Stereotaxic surgery allows accurate placement of what?   lesions, probes, electrodes  
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In a _______ lesion, tissue is sucked up into a pipette   aspiration  
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What remains behind following an aspiration lesion? why?   white matter, blood vessels. Higher durability  
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________-________ lesions occur when high-frequency currents are administered through the tip of an electrode   Radio-frequency  
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What is the primary factor for radio-frequency lesions?   heat  
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Radio frequency lesions everything where?   at tip  
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Knife cut lesions are useful for _____   tracts  
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Reversible lesions temporarily _______ an area   inactivate  
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examples of reversible lesions   Lidocaine, cold  
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Excitotoxic lesions excite neurons past the point of what?   Survival  
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Excitotoxic lesions spares what?   tracts and blood vessels  
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Chemical lesions produce _____ selective lesions than electrical lesions   more  
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Important to keep in mind that after lesion, deficit may be how the incomplete system _____ ___ that missing piece   compensates for  
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Lesions can give us a false sense of ________   localization  
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What is a mild kind of lesion? Complete/stronger lesion?   Unilateral, bilateral  
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What kind of stimulation typically has the opposite effect of lesions?   electrical stimulation  
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Intracellular unit recording measures changes in the ___ _____ of a neuron over time, requiring a ______ positioned inside a neuron   membrane potential, microelectrode  
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Why is it nearly impossible to record intracellularly in a freely moving animal?   Hard to keep microelectrode inside neuron  
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Extracellular unit recording places a microelecrode ____ the neuron   near  
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Extracellular unit recording signals a series of _____, which indicate _____ ______ from a nearby neuron   spikes, action potential  
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Spikes of the same ______ are assumed to come from the same neuron   amplitude  
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Multiple-unit recording provides an indication of the _____ ____ _____ of many neurons in the general vicinity of the electrode tip   rate of firing  
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Invasive EEG uses electrodes where?   on the surface of the brain  
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What does invasive EEG provide?   more accurate recordings than normal (scalp) EEG  
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The route of drug administration influences the ____ and _____ to which the drug reaches its site of action   rate, degree  
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Difficulties of oral ingestion in non-human subjects?   need to be able and willing to ingest, may leave some unconsumed  
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Absorption via the digestive tract is _________   unpredictable  
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Inhalation absorbs drugs through _______ in lungs   capillaries  
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Downsides of inhalation   regulation can be difficult, can damage lungs  
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Absorption through mucous membrane entry points:   nose, mouth, rectum  
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Hypodermic injection bypasses ___ ____   digestive tract  
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Into peritoneal cavity   Intraperitoneally  
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Under the skin   Subcutaneously  
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Into large muscles   Intramuscularly  
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Into veins, most direct   Intravenously  
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______ injection is injection into CNS   Central  
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Central injection bypasses digestive tract and ____ ____ _____   Blood Brain Barrier  
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Into a ventricle to affect the whole brain   Intraventricular  
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Autoradiography measures the location of _______ of interest when the brain is active during an _____   tracers, event  
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Difference between PET scan and autoradiography   have to kill subjects to get results  
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Cerebral dialysis measures specific substances in _____   vivo  
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Immunocytochemistry creates ______ for desired protein   antibodies  
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In Situ Hybridization locates __________ sequences in the brain/chromosome   mRNA/DNA  
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Organisms lacking a ______ of interest   gene  
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Replacing one gene with another gene   gene replacement  
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CRISPR/Cas9 edit genes at a particular time of ______-   development  
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Optogenetics is the combination of _______ and _____ methods to achieve gain or loss of function in specific cells of living tissue   genetic, optical  
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Current neurophychological assessments focus more on the ______ of a patient   function  
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Brain scanning is best at _____ _____ or metabolic disturbances, but lack ______ to other problems   gross anatomical, sensitivity  
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Can a single neurophychological test detect all brain damage?   No  
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What is a standard battery of neuropsychological tests?   variety of tests that combine to discriminate between brain-damaged and healthy individuals  
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Problem with the standard battery of neurophychological tests?   Poorly discriminate brain-damaged from psychiatric illness  
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What is the HRB test?   Halstead-Reitan Battery - historically most widely-used  
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HRB Category Test   problem solving using abstract reasoning or hypothesis testing using geometric shapes  
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HRB tactual performance test   placing varied shapes in holes without sight  
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HRB Rhythm test   detect similarities and differences between rhythms  
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HRB speech sounds perception test   match spoken nonsense syllables with written forms  
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HRB finger tapping test   Tap index finger as fast as possible for 10 seconds  
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HRB trail making test   tests visual attention and task switching  
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HRB grip strength   Tests motor difficulties of each hemisphere  
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Customized test batteries are used to measure ________, with more precise tests used in follow-ups   deficits  
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Test batteries are based on ______ ______ of psychological functioning   modern theories  
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Cognitive _____, not just performance is measured in customized test batteries   stragegy  
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3 tests of the common neuropsychological battery measure what?   Intelligence, memory, language and language lateralization  
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Verbal comprehension scale   general verbal skills including verbal fluency, relies on prior knowledge  
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Perceptual reasoning scale   examines a problem, drawing upon visual motor/spatial skills  
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Working memory scale   hold information so it can be used to solve a problem  
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Processing speed scale   focus attention, quickly scan, discriminate between, and sequentially order visual information  
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How do they measure which hemisphere is dominant for language?   Inject sodium amytal, if subject becomes mute then the hemisphere ipsilateral to injection is dominant  
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What is species common behaviours?   behaviours displayed by virtually all members of a species  
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What do the open field tests and the elevated plus maze test for   anxiety and emotion  
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What are the three measures of emotionality   Activity, thigmotaxis, defecation  
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In the colony-intruder paradigm, rats are placed in a chamber with a _________,_________ rat   larger, dominant  
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How to measure sexual behaviour in female rats   lordosis  
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How to measure sexual behaviour in male rats   Mount to intromission, time to remount after ejeculation  
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3 views of learning that conditioned taste aversion challenges   step-by-step process, temporal continuity, principle of equipotentiality  
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The morris water maze is used to study _________ ability   spatial  
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conditioned defensive burying is used to study _________ drugs/effects   anti-anxiety  
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pupil size is a compromise between _________ and _________, is regulated by the _________   sensitivity and acuity, iris  
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The lens focuses light on the _________, in a process called _________   retina, accomodation  
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When the lens is cylindrical, focus is on a _________ object   near  
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When the lens is flattened, focus is on a _________ object   far  
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Most of what is seen is seen through _________ eyes   both  
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Binocular disparity is greater for _________ things, helps to create _________ _________   closer, depth perception  
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Predator eye placement   front  
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Prey eye placement   side  
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how many layers in the retina   5  
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the fovea has high _________ vision   acuity  
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optic disk involves the _________ spot and _________   blind, completion  
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Can any species see in absolute darkness?   no, some can see in very little light  
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Wavelength is associated closely with the perception of   colour  
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intensity is closely associated with the perception of   brightness  
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_________ is the turning of the eyes slightly inward when looking at something nearby   convergence  
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In the retina, the cells at the _________ are the first to detect light   back  
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In a sense, the retina is _________   inside-out  
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Light passes through several _________ layers in the retina before reaching its receptors   cell  
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How many layers are in the retina?   five  
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Receptor layer of the retina   rods and cones  
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horizontal cell layer of retina   lateral communication  
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amacrine cell later of retina   lateral communication  
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The fovea is the _________-_________ area near center of retina   high-acuity  
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The _________ of the ganglion cell later in the fovea reduces _________ from cells between the pupil and the retina   thinning, distortion  
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the optic disk is where axons of _________ ganglion cells penetrate _________, exit eye through optic nerve   retinal, retina  
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the duplexity theory of vision states that cones and rods mediate what?   different kinds of vision  
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cones have _________ (daytime) vision, giving _________ colour information in good lighting   phototopic, high-acuity  
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rods have _________ (night-time) vision, with _________, allowing for low acuity vision in dim light, lacking _________ and colour information   scototpic, high-sensitivity, detail  
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Cones have _________ convergence on retinal ganglion cell cone-fed circuits   low  
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rods have _________ convergence on retinal ganglion cell rod-fed circuits   high  
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only _________ are found at the fovea   cones  
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are cones or rods found in the blind spot?   neither  
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There are different _________ sensitivity curves for photopic and scotopic vision   spectral  
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Quick eye movements (_________) are integrated into a stable perception   saccdes  
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the visual system responds to _________   change  
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Transduction is the _________ of one form of energy to another   conversion  
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visual transduction is the conversion of _________ to neural signals by visual receptors   light  
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Visual transduction information is transmitted via   inhibition  
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What is the pigment found in rods?   Rhodopsin  
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Rhodospin is a receptor that responds to _________ rather than NTs   light  
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In the dark, rhodopsin Na+ channels are partially _________, (partial _________), _________ glutamate   open, depolarized, releasing  
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When light strikes rhodopsin, Na+ channels _________, rods _________, _________ glutamate   close, hyperpolarize, inhibiting  
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In both eyes, left hits _________ and right hits _________   right, left  
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Each eye only processes _________ of visual field, contralaterally   half  
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The _________ hemiretina of each eye connects to the _________ lateral geniculate nucleus,   right/left, right/left  
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Magnocellular layers have _________ cell bodies, are the _________ 2 laters of LGN   big, bottom  
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Magnocellular bodies are particularily responsive to _________, input primarily from _________   movement, rods  
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Parvocellular layers have _________ cell bodies, are the _________ 4 layers of LGN   small, top  
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Parvocellular layers are responsive to _________, _________, _________/_________ objects, and input primarily from cones   colour, detail, still/slow  
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Retinotopic organization of primary visual cortex means that information received at _________ portions of the retina _________ _________ in the striate cortex   adjacent, remains adjacent  
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Edges are points of _________   contrast  
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Mach bands are _________ striped that the visual system _________ for enhancement   non-existent, creates  
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Mach bands makes edges _________ to see, are a consequence of _________ _________   easier, lateral inhibition  
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_________ _________ is the area of the visual field within which it is possible for a visual stimulus to influence the firing of a GIVEN neuron   receptive field  
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what was hubel and wiesel's methodology to examine visual fields?   Curare-d a cat, placed extracellular electrode near a neuron, mapped the receptive field  
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In the receptive fields of RGS system neurons, there were _________ seen at all three levels   similarities  
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Receptive fields of _________ area are smaller than those in the periphery   foveal  
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Neuron's receptive fields are _________ in shape, and are _________ (respond to a particular eye)   circular, monocular  
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Many neurons at each level have receptive fields with _________ and _________ areas   excitatory, inhibitory  
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The two patterns of neuronal responding are _________ firing, or _________ followed by off firing   on, inhibition  
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firing responds best to _________ _________ "on" area   fully illuminated  
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firing responds poorly to _________ light   diffuse  
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firing responds to _________ _________ between centers and peripheries of their visual fields   brightness contrast  
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Many cells have receptive fields with a _________-_________ organization   center surround  
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on/off-center neurons have excitatory and inhibitory regions separated by a _________ _________   circular boundary  
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Most neurons in V1 _________ circular receptive fields   do not have  
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Simple striate cells respond best to _________ of a particular orientation, and are _________   edges/bars, monocular  
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Complex striate cells respond best to _________ _________ of a particular orientation   moving edges/bars  
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Binocular complex striate cells - over half are _________, the other half display _________ _________   binocular, ocular dominance  
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End-stopped extrastriate cells respond best to _________ _________ of a particular _________ and orientation   moving edges/bars/corners, length  
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Simple striate cells have _________ receptive fields, with on and off regions that are _________ and _________ sensitive   rectangular, orientation, location  
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all simple striate cells are _________, and send information to _________ cells   monocular, complex  
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Not all visual cortex cells respond to _________ stimuli   previous stimuli  
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Complex striate cells have _________ receptive fields than simple   larger  
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Simple, complex, and end-stopped cells all have a preferred _________ and _________ _________   orientation, receptive field  
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End-stopped cells fire to _________ _________ of a specific length, or _________ _________/_________   moving lines, moving corners/angles  
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Ocular dominance columns are _________ vertical columns with the same receptive fields and ocular dominance   functional  
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Is retinotopic organization maintained in ocular dominance columns?   Yes  
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What is the trichromatic theory of colour   3 types of cone cells, each with a different spectral sensitivity  
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short spectral sensitivity   violet/blue  
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medium spectral sensitivity   green/yellow  
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long spectral sensitivity   orange/red  
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Opponent-process theory of colour processing:   two different classes of cells that encode colour, another to encode brightness  
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which colour processing theory accounts for colour afterimages and colour that cannot appear together?   opponent-process theory  
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Which colour processing theory is correct?   both - colour by cones operates according to componenet theory, while opponent processing is seen at all subsequent levels  
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Colour constancy is the _________ of the same colour despite the change in _________   perception, wavelength  
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Retinex theory states that colour perception is based on the _________ of light of different wavelengths that a surface reflects   proportion  
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As visual information flows through hierarchy, receptive fields become _________ and respond to ...   larger, more complex and specific stimuli  
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Scotomas are areas of _________ in contralateral visual field due to damage to the _______ _________ cortex   blindness, primary visual  
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Blindsight is a response to visual stimuli outside _________ _________ of "seeing"   conscious awareness  
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what is a possible explanation of blindsight?   island of functional cells within scotoma  
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Lesions in each area of the secondary visual cortex and association cortex result in _________ deficits   specific  
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How many functionally distinct areas have been identified so far in the secondary visual and association cortexes?   12  
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What are the two streams of visual processing   Dorsal and ventral streams  
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The dorsal stream is the pathway from _________ to _________ to _________.   primary visual cortex, dorsal prestriate cortex, posterior parietal cortex  
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dorsal stream is the _________ pathway, and for the _________   where, control of behaviour  
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Ventral stream is the pathway from the _________ to _________ to _________   primary visual cortex, ventral prestriate cortex, inferotemporal cortex  
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The ventral stream is the _________ pathway, and for the _________   what, conscious perception of objects  
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Damage to secondary/association cortex may lead to (3)   visual agnosia, prosopagnosia, akinetopsia  
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Visual agnosia is the inability to distinguish between   visual stimuli  
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Prosopagnosia is the inability to distinguish   faces  
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Akinetopsia is a deficiency in the ability to see   movement in a normal, smooth fashion  
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