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units 1-5 test

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Question
Answer
Which of the following compounds is capable of hydrogen bonding with like molecules?   HOCH2CH2OH CH3NH2  
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Which of the following statements is true of weak acids dissolved in water?   They are partially ionized in water  
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Which of the following solutions will be isotonic with 3M sucrose?   1 M Sodium sulfate (Na2SO4)  
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In contrast to inorganic catalysts, enzymes have an intricately shaped surface called the __________.   Active site  
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Alcohol dehydrogenase without NAD+ is called a _______:   Apoenzyme  
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The steady state assumption states that if K1 = the rate constant for ES formation K2 = the rate constant for ES dissociation K3 = the rate constant for product formation   The rate of formation of ES is equal to the rate of its degradation over the course of the reaction  
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The expression of the Michaelis constant is equal to: Where K1 = the rate constant for ES formation K2 = the rate constant for ES dissociation K3 = the rate constant for product formation   (K2 + K3)/K1  
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Which of the following statements is not true of a spontaneous process?   The entropy value is negative  
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The oxidation of food molecules to form CO2 and H2O is a(n) _______ process.   Exergonic  
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A process is spontaneous when   dG^0 < 0  
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Which of the following is not an effect of hydrogen bonding on the physical properties of water?   Increased boiling point Increased heat of fusion Increased melting point Increased heat of vaporization  
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Which of the following species can form a buffer system?   Acetic acid/ Sodium acetate  
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The high heat of fusion of water is due to its _______________.   Hydrogen bonding  
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Water can form how many hydrogen bonds?   4  
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Which of the following species would form a buffer with HPO4-2?   H2PO4^-1  
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he strongest type of non covalent force is   Hydrogen bonds  
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The noncovalent interaction between an amide and an alcohol would be which of the following?   Hydrogen bonding  
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Which of the following molecules would form a micelle?   CH3(CH2)10COO- Na +  
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Red blood cells are isotonic to a solution that is 0.9% sodium chloride (NaCl). These same cells are _____________ to a solution that is 0.9% sodium sulfate (Na2SO4).   Hypotonic  
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Salt bridges in proteins are an example of _________.   Ionic interactions  
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The sodium acetate/acetic acid buffer is 0.1 molar in sodium acetate and 0.5 molar in acetic acid. What is the concentration of the buffer?   0.6 molar  
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Which of the following would not form a suitable buffer?   Hydrochloric acid/ chloride  
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Which of the following is a hydronium ion?   H3O+  
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In classical thermodynamics which of the following is true?   All systems are at or near equilibrium, All materials are at low concentration  
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Choose the molecule with the highest phosphate transfer potential.   Phosphoenolpyruvate  
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In living organisms where does the increase in entropy takes place?   Surroundings  
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A measure of a system’s internal energy is   Enthalpy  
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The following statement is made by which law of thermodynamics? “At absolute zero the disorder of a perfect crystal approaches zero”   Third Law  
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An organism at equilbrium with it's environment is said to be __________.   Dead  
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To maintain a system far from equilibrium a constant input of _______ is required.   Energy  
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The rate of a reaction can be determined from which of the following?   None of the above are correct.  
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A living organism is what type of thermodynamic system?   Open  
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Which of the following is described by the second law of thermodynamics?   Entropy  
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Which of the following is described by the first law of thermodynamics?   Enthalpy  
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The study of reaction rates is called ___________.   Kinetics  
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Which of the following processes are driven by the hydrolysis of ATP?   Biosynthesis of biomolecules Active transport of substances across membranes Mechanical work such as muscle contraction  
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Which of the following thermodynamic properties is the most useful criterion of spontaneity?   Free energy  
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Which of the following statements regarding free energy changes is true?   At equilibrium dG0 = O, Free energy is a state function  
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The law of the conservation of energy states that:   The total energy of the universe is constant  
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The most important direct source of energy in the body is:   ATP  
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The oxidation of food molecules to form CO2 and H2O is a(n) _______ process   Exergonic  
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The minimum amount of energy required to bring about a chemical reaction is called:   Activation energy  
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Consider the following reaction diagram. Which letter indicates the transition state?   C  
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The lock and key model of enzyme activity proposes that each   Enzyme binds a specific substrate because the active site and substrate have complementary structures.  
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The synthesis of enzymes in response to changing metabolic needs is referred to as:   Enzyme induction  
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Which of the following is a coenzyme?   NADP+  
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Alcohol dehydrogenase without NAD+ is called a _______:   Apoenzyme  
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Which of the following classes of enzymes catalyze reactions involving the cleavage of bonds by the addition of water?   Hydrolase  
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The expression of the Michaelis constant is equal to: Where K1 = the rate constant for ES formation K2 = the rate constant for ES dissociation K3 = the rate constant for product formation   (K2 + K3)/K1  
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In the Lineweaver-Burk double reciprocal plot the slope is equal to _____.   Km/Vmax  
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In the Lineweaver-Burk double reciprocal plot the vertical intercept is equal to ____.   1/Vmax  
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In the Lineweaver-Burk double reciprocal plot the horizontal intercept is equal to _________.   –1/Km  
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In competitive inhibition, increasing the concentration of substrate:   Increases the overall rate of the reaction  
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NADPH and NADH are coenzymes found in which class of enzymes?   Dehydrogenases  
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Enzyme control is accomplished in which of the following ways?   Genetic control Covalent modification Allosteric regulation Compartmentation  
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Zymogens are a feature of what type of enzymatic control?   Covalent modification  
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Segregation of biochemical pathways into different organelles in an example of which type of enzymatic regulation?   Compartmentation  
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An enzyme without it cofactor is called ________   Apoenzyme  
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The major site of alcohol detoxification is   Liver  
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Consider the following diagram what constitutes the activation energy for the forward reaction   C-A  
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Which of the following statements is not true of enzymes   Catalyses the forward reaction only  
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Glycogen is stored as granules in the liver and _________________.   skeletal muscles  
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The oxidative reactions of metabolism provide for most ATP production. In what specific part of the cell do these reactions occur?   mitochondria  
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How many cycles of the citric acid cycle are required to completely oxidize all the pyruvate formed when a molecule of glucose undergoes glycolysis?   2  
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How many molecules of FADH2 are produced by the complete oxidation of one acetyl group by the citric acid cycle?   1  
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Which enzyme in the mitochondria is responsible for phosphorylation of ADP?   ATP synthase  
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In glycogen synthesis, glycogen synthase catalyses the linking of glucose units to the growing glycogen chain by the formation of α (1, 4) glycosidic bonds. What is the immediate source of glucose for this reaction   UDP-glucose  
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Of the several high-energy compounds produced in cells, which one is the principal energy storage compound?   ATP  
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What is the net yield of ATP molecules per glucose molecule undergoing glycolysis?   2  
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How many NADH are produced for each glucose that enters glycolysis?   2  
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In the complete oxidation of an acetyl group in the citric acid cycle, how many molecules of each of the following are produced? (a) CO2, (b) NADH, (c) FADH2   (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 1  
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The enzyme fumarase catalyzes the addition of water to fumarate. What is the product of this reaction?   malate  
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What compound, when hydrolyzed, produces ADP, inorganic phosphate, and energy?   ATP  
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Which of the following substances serves as an intermediate through which all cellular energy sources are interconvertible?   acetyl CoA  
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Which statement is true concerning aerobic versus anaerobic metabolism?   Aerobic metabolism is much more efficient than anaerobic metabolism.  
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The enzyme triose phosphate isomerase catalyzes the isomerization of dihydroxyacetone phosphate. What is the product of this reaction?   glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate  
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In the first substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis, a phosphoryl group is transferred from 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate to ADP, thus producing ATP. What is the other product of this reaction?   3-phosphoglycerate  
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Which of the following could be a starting material in gluconeogenesis?   a fatty acid  
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Which statement is false concerning glycolysis?   Glycolysis is the final step in the process to produce energy from food.  
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1/1 What substrate is converted into glucose-6-phosphate by the enzyme hexokinase?   glucose  
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As the bond is broken to form ADP from ATP,   energy is released which can drive biological processes.  
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How many molecules of ATP are produced by oxidative phosphorylation for each molecule of NADH produced in the citric acid cycle?   3  
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The enzyme succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the oxidation of succinate. What is the product of this reaction?   fumerate  
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What is the main starting material for the glycolysis pathway?   glucose  
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What compound is produced by the transfer of the acetyl group of acetyl CoA to oxaloacetate?   citrate  
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Which of the following substances, when present in high concentrations, inhibits the α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex?   succinyl CoA  
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How many molecules of ATP can be produced by the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose by glycolysis and the citric acid cycle?   36  
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In oxidative phosphorylation, how many molecules of ATP are produced per molecule of NADH in the mitochondrion?   3  
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What is the missing product in the reaction shown? 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate + ADP → 3-phosphoglycerate + ?   ATP  
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The process which degrades fuel molecules, such as starch, to provide energy for the cells   is called catabolism.  
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When one molecule of glucose undergoes alcohol fermentation, what products, and how many molecules of each of them, account for the 6 carbon atoms?   2 molecules of ethanol and 2 molecules of carbon dioxide  
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What is the term for the region of a mitochondrion that is enclosed by the inner membrane?   matrix space  
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Where are the enzymes for the citric acid cycle located?   mitochondrial matrix space  
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Which of the following compounds is a positive effector of the allosteric enzyme isocitrate dehydrogenase?   ADP  
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Of the following classes of food molecules, which one contains the most energy per gram?   fats  
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Muscle exercise leads to the production of __________ which is converted to ___________ by the liver.   lactic acid; glucose  
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Coenzyme A has the function of   carrying acetyl groups in the form of acetyl CoA to the citric acid cycle.  
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What is the missing product in the reaction shown? phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP → ATP + ?   pyruvate  
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Which organ is the main site of gluconeogenesis?   liver  
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What compound, in addition to glutamate, is produced in the transamination reaction in which alanine and α-ketoglutarate react?   pyruvate  
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At the end of glycolysis, how many pyruvate molecules have been produced from 10 glucose molecules?   20  
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What substance is converted into fructose-6-phosphate by the enzyme phosphoglucoisomerase?   glucose-6-phosphate  
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The liver takes up excess lactate from the blood. Into what product is the lactate first converted?   pyruvate  
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What is the terminal electron acceptor in aerobic organisms?   oxygen  
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Into what final product is glucose converted at the end of glycolysis?   pyruvate  
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What is another name for the F0F1 complex involved in oxidative phosphorylation?   ATP synthase  
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Which of the following compounds is the negative effector of the enzyme citrate synthase?   ATP  
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What protein complex in the inner mitochondrial membrane allows protons to return to the matrix?   F0F1  
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Under aerobic conditions glucose is   completely oxidized to CO2 by way of the citric acid cycle.  
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Which coenzyme form must be reoxidized so that glycolysis can continue to produce ATP for the cell?   NADH  
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In acetyl coenzyme A, the atom to which the acetyl group derived from pyruvate is bonded is ________.   S = sulfur  
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In the pentose phosphate pathway, 3 molecules of glucose produce 2 molecules of fructose-6-phosphate and 1 of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. How many carbon atoms are unaccounted for in this statement, and what is their fate?   Three, they are converted to carbon dioxide.  
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Which of the following compounds inhibits the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?   acetyl CoA  
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Which of the following compounds is produced when the enzyme aconitase catalyzes the dehydration of citrate?   cis-aconitate  
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Depending on an animal’s metabolic needs, fatty acids may be converted to triacylglycerols, energy or __________.   Used in membrane synthesis  
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Saturated fatty acids containing up to 16 carbon atoms are assembled in ________.   Cytoplasm  
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The b-oxidation of fatty acids requires_________.   All of the above are correct  
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_________, a product of the oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids, is converted to succinyl-CoA.   Propionyl-CoA  
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Cholesterol is a precursor of _________.   E) All of the above are correct  
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The rate limiting step in fatty acid synthesis is   Acetyl-CoA carboxylation  
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In animals the function of peroxisomal b-oxidation appears to be   E) Shortening of very long chain fatty acids  
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The carbon atoms of cholesterol are derived from _______.   Acetyl CoA  
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___________ is used to transport fatty acids into the mitochondria.   Carnitine  
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Which of the following is not one of the ketone bodies?   beta-Methylglutarate  
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The conversion of squalene to cholesterol requires ________.   NADPH  
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In conjugation reactions   An insoluble molecule is made soluble by conversion to a derivative with a water soluble functional group  
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Oxidation of the carbon farthest from the carbonyl group of a fatty acid is called   omega-oxidation  
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The conversion of acetyl-CoA to malonyl-CoA is inhibited by ________.   All of the above are correct  
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Which of the following tissues cannot use fatty acids as a fuel?   Brain  
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Glycerol from the hydrolysis of triacylglycerols is transported by the blood to the ____   Liver  
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Cyclic electron transport occurs when   A chloroplast has a high NADPH/NADP+  
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During light dependent reactions energy captured by an organism’s photosystem is tranduced into which of the following?   ATP  
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The principal regulator of photosynthesis is ___________.   light  
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The net production of “fixed” carbon in the Calvin cycle is   A) One molecule of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate  
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Most of the carbon translocated throughout plants is in the form of   Sucrose  
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In photosynthesis captured light energy is used to initially synthesize   A and C  
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Photosystem I contains _______.   p700  
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The Calvin cycle is sometimes referred to as   All of the above are correct  
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In addition to an inner and outer membrane chloroplasts contain a third membrane called   Thylakoid membrane  
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In photorespiration which of the following molecules are consumed?   B, C and D are correct  
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In photosynthesis there is   All of the above are correct  
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The following mechanism(s) reduce the impact of the process of photorespiration:   D) Both B and C are correct  
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The most abundant enzyme on earth is   Rubisco  
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All of the following statements concerning light are true except   A) High frequency radiation such as gamma rays and X-rays, which have long wavelengths, are high energy.  
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Nitrogen fixation requires iron and ________ as cofactors.   Mo  
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The most common intracellular reducing agent is   Glutathione  
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In nitrogen fixation by microorganisms what gas other than ammonia is produced?   Hydrogen  
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The glutamate family of amino acids includes all of the following except _____.   Lysine  
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One-carbon carriers in metabolism include   All of the above are correct  
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Inorganic nitrogen is initially assimilated into which of the following amino acids   D) Glutamine  
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The major form of regulation of nitrogen fixation is _______.   C) Transcriptional control of the nitrogen fixation genes  
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________ ATP molecules are required to convert one mole of nitrogen to two ammonia molecules.   16  
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Most aminotransferaes utilize ________as the recipient a-keto acid.   A) alpha-Ketoglutarate  
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In plants fixed nitrogen is assimilated into __________.   E) Glutamine  
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The six families of amino acids are glutamate, aromatic, serine, aspartate, pyruvate and _______.   Histidine  
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The amino acids serine and _______ are preferentially used to synthesize glucose for export from the liver   Alanine  
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Which of the following is not a characteristic N-terminal amio acid residue of long-lived proteins   B) Bulky hydrophobic amino acids  
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The ultimate products of autophagy include   B, C and D  
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A buildup of uric acid is characteristic of which of the following diseases?   Gout  
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Stress proteins   C) Are referred to as heat shock proteins  
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Autophagy is triggered by   All of the above  
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Ammonia is transferred to the liver as   Glutamine  
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Amino acids whose degradation yields a-ketoglutarate include all of the following except _________.   Leucine  
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In muscle excess amino groups are transferred to _________ to produce glutamate   C) alpha-Ketoglutarate  
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Covalently bound chains with _________ or more ubiquitin monomers are required to transfer a protein to the proteosome.   4  
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The major route for protein degradation is   UPS  
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Urea is synthesized in which organ?   Liver  
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In general, catabolism of amino acids begins with   A) Removal of the amino group  
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Amino acids whose degradation yields acetyl-CoA include all of the following except   Glutamate  
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Autophagy is   C) Used to degrade worn out intracellular components  
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C) Used to degrade worn out intracellular components   E) None of the above  
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In addition to urea humans also excrete waste nitrogen as   A) Uric acid  
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In animals the vast majority of water soluble hormones are   E) A and C  
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The most prominent mechanism to prevent excessive hormone synthesis is   C) Feedback inhibition  
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The cells that line the small intestine, which are responsible for the absorption of nutrients into the body, are called   Enterocytes  
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In a metabolic steady state the rate of anabolic processes is approximately equal to:   A) Catabolic processes  
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Symptoms of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus include all of the following except   Hypoglycemia  
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Receptor tyrosine kinases are transmembrane receptors that bind ligands such as   E) All of the above  
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Leptin is secreted by which of the following tissues?   Adipose tissue  
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The brain consumes about _______% of the body’s energy.   20  
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Which of the following is not a second messenger molecule?   Steroids  
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Animals employing several mechanisms to prevent excessive hormone action and release. Examples include which of the following?   All of the above are true  
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During fasting and prolonged starvation, skeletal muscle   A) Protein is degrades to provide amino acids to the liver for gluconeogenesis  
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The most serious acute symptom of type 1 diabetes is   B) Ketoacidosis  
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During periods of starvation muscle reduces its consumption of glucose. This spares its use for which of the following organs?   brain  
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The principal target tissues of insulin include   E) All of the above are correct  
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The organ responsible for the regulation of blood pH is   Kidney  
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Urea synthesis is the responsibility of which organ of the body?   Liver  
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Receptors for most water soluble hormones are located in what part of the cell?   A) Plasma membrane  
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Steroid hormones   E) All of the above are correct  
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An autoimmune disease caused by the destruction of the insulin producing beta cells of the pancreas is called   E) Type I diabetes  
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The replisome consists of all of the following proteins except _________.   D) Catabolic gene activator protein  
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The _____ are enzymes that catalyze the unwinding of duplex DNA.   B) Helicases  
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SSB are   C) Proteins that bind to single-stranded DNA  
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DNA polymerase b is believed to be involved in   A) Eukaryotic DNA repair  
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DNA molecules are copied or replicated by a _______ mechanism.   Semiconservative  
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The tangling of DNA strands during replication is prevented by _________.   Topoisomerases  
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The rate of DNA synthesis in eukaryotes is approximately_________ nucleotides per ________ per replication fork.   B) 50 / second  
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_______ is a form of intermicrobial DNA transfer that occurs when bacteriophage inadvertantly serve as carriers of bacterial DNA to the recipient cell.   Tranduction  
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The initiation of transcription involves the binding of RNA polymerase to a specific sequence called a __________.   Promoter  
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The reassortment of DNA sequences is called   Recombination  
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DNA synthesis is called   Replication  
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DNA transposition can cause gene ______.   D) Both A and B are correct  
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Many promoters for RNA polymerase II contain a consensus sequence call the _______.   TATA box  
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DNA is synthesized in which of the following directions?   C) In the 5’ to 3’ direction on both DNA strands  
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All of the following play a role in DNA repair except ________.   Ribozymes  
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In the absence of its inducer the lac operon remains repressed because of the binding of lac repressor to the _______.   Operator  
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Eukaryotic gene expression is affected by all of the following except ______.   E) None of the above are correct  
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The majority of genetic variations arise from   B) Genetic recombination  
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Topoisomerases   E) All of the above are correct  
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In higher eukaryotes replication begins with the   B) Assembly of pre-initiation replication complex (preRC)  
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Light-induced repair will correct which of the following mutations?   B) It will reverse thymine dimers  
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In nucleotide excision repair in relationship with the damage   B) Bulky lesions are removed  
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Genomic libraries are produced by   D) Shotgun cloning  
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Homology modeling facilitates   A) Protein structure prediction  
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Protooncogenes are   B) Normal genes that if mutated can promote carcinogenesis  
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An exonuclease is an enzyme that   C) Removes nucleotides from the end of a polynucleotide strand  
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The average natural mutation rate for plants and animals is one mutation per ______ genes/generation.   C) 100,000  
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____________ repair occurs only on a strand actively being transcribed   B) Transcription coupling repair  
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__________ corrects replication proofreading errors.   A) Mismatch repair  
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