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68w LPC
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What are the 6 rights of drug administration? | Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation |
| Verify medication how many times? | 3 Before, During, After |
| At what degree is the needle during venipuncture? | 15-30 |
| What are the three veins that are in the antecubital space? | Cephalic, median cubital, and basilic vein |
| What is the order of the three veins that you use for venipuncture | median cubital, Cephalic, and basilic vein |
| 3 layers of skin | Epidermis Dermis Subcutaneous |
| Angle for subcutaneous injection | 45 |
| Angle for intramuscular injection | 90 |
| Aspirin is never given to | Children |
| Infections that patients acquire while in a health care facility | Nosocomial infection |
| Most effective measure to prevent the spread of disease | Handwashing |
| Fluid composed of blood | Sanguinous |
| Watery like fluid | Serous |
| Fluid composed of blood and serum | Serosanguinous |
| Individual Sick Call Slip is the | DD Form 689 |
| The DD form 689 is valid for ____ and is communication between ____ and ____ | 7 days, Company Commander and Medical Provider |
| The form for the Chronological Record of Medical Care is the | SF600 |
| Each SF 600 includes (3) | Date and time of visit/entry, MTF involved, Signature of person making the entry |
| Medical information may be given to (4) PMMP | Patient, Medical Researcher, Medical Educators, Patient Care Personnel |
| The Federal Law protecting the privacy of patient-specific health care information and providing the patient with control over how the information is used and distributed | Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) |
| You can only use approved abbreviations from | IAW AR 40-66 |
| Personnel not involved in a patients care or medical research will not have access to patient information unless (3) | Access is required by law (court order), needed for hospital accreditation, access is authorized by patient |
| All requests for a patients medical information are done in ____ except for ____ | writing, emergency situations |
| The _____ provides a clinical protocol for use in medical screening to determine the urgency and level of care required using yes and no questions. | Algorithm Directed Troop Medical Care (ADTMC) |
| You need to know the ____ of all female patients of child bearing age | First Day of Last Menstrual Period (FDLMP) |
| For the patients past history you need to know their ___ (SAMPLE) | Signs and Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past Medical History, Past Surgical History, and Social History, Last Oral intake, Events leading up to |
| For the patients HPI you need to know their ______ (OPQRSTI) | Onset, Provocation, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Time, Intervention |
| For the patient data on the SF 600 you need to know their | Age, Sex, Race, FDLMP, Chief Complaint |
| The patients ___ may require the soldier to break their profile but they will _________ | Commander, take responsibility for their actions |
| ______ are microscopic living cells found almost everywhere in the environment | Microorganisms |
| Microorganisms that cause diseases are called ___ | Pathogens |
| A _____ is a condition in which a pathogen invades the body and begins to multiply | bacterial infection |
| As bacteria reproduces they form groups of millions of individual cells called | colonies |
| The following are environmental factors that affect the growth of microorganisms (6) | Oxygen, Nutrients, Temperature, Moisture, pH, Light |
| Microorganisms that resemble plant cells found on sunlit water and rarely cause human diseases. | Algae |
| Microorganisms that are yeasts and molds | Fungi |
| Single celled Microscopic Microorganisms | Protozoa |
| Single Celled organisms without a nucleus | Bacteria |
| A dormant non-reproductive body formed by certain bacteria often in response to a lack of nutrients and characteristically being HIGHLY RESISTANT TO HEAT, DESICCATION, AND DESTRUCTION BY CHEMICALS OR ENZYMES. THE MOST DIFFICULT TO DESTROY | Spores |
| Bacteria which causes diseases | Pathogenic Bacteria |
| A microorganism that must use the host's ability to make protein and energy | Viruses |
| The most effective means for preventing viral infections is | immunization |
| Diseases that can be spread from one person to another | Communicable Diseases |
| Diseases which are transmitted to many individuals quickly and easily | Contagious Diseases |
| A large number of people in the same area are infected in a relatively short time | Epidemic |
| A disease or illness regularly found among a particular group of people or within a certain area. | Endemic |
| The 6 links of the Chain of infection are | Pathogenic Microorganisms, Reservoir, Portal of Exit, Mode of transmission, Portal of entry, Susceptible Host |
| The 2 transmission types are ____ and ___ | Direct and Indirect Transmission |
| The most common method of transmission transmitted by touch, sexual intercourse, kissing, skin to skin contact, and contact with open wounds | Direct Contact |
| Inanimate objects that may indirectly transmit infection via food, water, biological products (blood, saliva) | Vehicles |
| Intermediate host of pathogen while it undergoes maturation before it can be transmitted to humans such as insects | Vectors |
| Phases of the normal course of infection (4) | Incubation period, Prodromal Stage, Full Stage of Illness, Convalescent stage |
| From when the pathogen first enters the body to the appearance of first symptoms | Incubation Period, |
| From the onset of initial symptoms to more severe symptoms | Prodromal Stage |
| When symptoms are acute and specific to the type of infection | Full Stage of Illness |
| Acute symptoms of the infection subside and the person recovers | Convalescent Stage |
| The pathogens strength to cause disease | Virulence |
| Naturally occurring body floras that have an antibiotic relationship with pathogens and contribute to an individuals health | Host Resistance |
| Reasons of nosocomial infections (3) | Number of disease causing microorganisms in the facility, many microorganisms are resistant to antibiotics, many potential reservoirs for pathogenic growth |
| Implies that most harmful microorganisms have been removed | Clean |
| Destroy most pathogens but not necessarily their spores | Disinfect |
| Destroys all microorganisms and spores by the process of exposing articles to heat or to chemical disinfectants long enough to kill all microorganisms and spores | Sterilization |
| _____ is a clean technique that minimizes the number of microorganisms or preventing and transmission of microorganisms from one person/source to another | Medical Asepsis |
| The 3 types of transmission-based precautions | Airborne, Droplet, Contact |
| A sterile technique where no organisms are carried to the patient. Microorganisms are destroyed from surfaces before they can enter the body | Surgical Asepsis |
| You should wash your hands for at least ___ but the minimum is ___ and the max is __ | 20 seconds, 10-15 seconds, 2 minutes |
| A chemical compound that inhibits or kills the growth bacteria | Antibiotic |
| _____ are effective against a wide range of microorganisms | Broad spectrum antibiotics |
| ____ are effective against only a few organisms | Narrow spectrum antibiotics |
| ___ are antibiotics that are applied to the skin | Topical Antibiotics |
| Advantage of topical antibiotics (Neosporin, Bacitracin , Silvadene) | Less invasive, easy to use, can apply to mucous membranes of conjunctiva and nasopharynx, absorption through mucous membranes is very rapid, widely available, can use it themselves |
| Oral antibiotics will usually be taken _______ | 7 to 10 days |
| Advantages of oral antibiotics (Levofloxacin , Septra) | Oldest method, Safest, Convenience, Economical, Easy to administer, predosed, can compound them |
| Disadvantages of Oral Antibiotics (Levofloxacin , Septra) | Vomiting as a result of irritation to the GI mucosa, patient compliance (conscious), slow absoprtion rate |
| Used for severe illness and injury when the patient cannot tolerate antibiotics | IV ABX |
| Advantages of IV ABX (Ancef, Ertapenem) | absorption is rapid and predictable, patient can be unconscious or uncooperative, |
| Disadvantages of IV ABX (Ancef, Ertapenem) | harder to administer, patients fear needles, can cause tissue necrosis, allergic reactions can be caused quickly and more severe |
| A fungicide used to prevent and/or treat fungal infections known as mycoses | Antifungal medication |
| Tinea Corporis | Ringworm of the body |
| Tinea Pedis | Athletes foot |
| Tinea Capitis | Scalp infection |
| Tinea Cruris | Jock Itch |
| _____ administered intravenously for the most severe fungal infections | Amphotericin B |
| To prevent fungal infections keep the skin ___ and maintain ____ | warm and dry, good hygiene |
| A physically active substance found in plant and animal tissue and released from mast cells as part of an allergic reaction | Histamine |
| Histamines stimulate | Gastric Secretion, dilation of capillaries, constriction of bronchial smooth muscle, and decreased BP |
| A fatty molecule of the immune system that contributes to inflammation in asthma and bronchitis | Leukotrienes |
| A drug that combats the histamine released during an allergic reaction by blocking the action of the histamine on the tissue | Antihistamine |
| Antihistamines do not stop formation of histamines, or stop an allergic reaction but they do | protect tissues from some of its effects. |
| Common side effects of antihistamines are ____ side effects that can occasionally occur are ___ | drowsiness, dry mouth / urine retention and in men tachycardia |
| Examples of Antihistamines are | Fexofenadine (Allegra), Diphenhydramine (Benadryl), Loratadine (Claritin), Cetirizine (Zytrec) |
| Dosage of Epinephrine | 0.3mg-0.5mg (of 1:1000 solution) |
| Route of Epinephrine | IM or SC for adults |
| An ___ is a painkiller | analgesic |
| Indication for analgesics is | moderate to severe pain |
| Contraindication for analgesics is | an allergy against a specific medication and altered mental status |
| Considerations/Side effects for analgesics are | respiratory depression can be caused with repeated doses, may cause nausea or vomiting, and administration of morphine causes constriction of the pupils and inhibits pupillary reaction |
| ____ is used for patients with morphine allergies | Fentanyl (reassess every 15 mins for respiratory depression) |
| Contraindications for fentanyl are | allergic to medication or component or already took morphine |
| Dosage and Route of fentanyl is | 800 mg transbuccal (oral transmucosal fentanyl citrate) OTFC |
| Analgesic that is indicated for severe pain and comes in multiple strengths and routes of administration (PO, IM, SC and IV injection) | Morphine |
| Dosage of Morphine IV | Initial dose of 5mg slow IVP over 1-2 minutes, should be diluted in 5ml of normal saline (NaCL) prior to administration |
| When morphine is given IV doses may be repeated every __ and most adults will experience pain relief at a total dose of ____ | 5 minutes, 10-20mg |
| Analgesics used for mild/moderate pain in soldiers that are still able to fight (conscious and lucid) | Meloxicam (Morbic) and acetaminophen (Tylenol) |
| Meloxicam can cause serious ____ issues in high doses for an extended period of time | GI |
| Acetaminophen can cause serious ____ issues in high doses for an extended period of time | Liver |
| Strength and route of Administration for Meloxicam | 15mg PO daily |
| Strength and route of Administration for Acetaminophen | 500mg, 2 tablets PO every 8 hours |
| Potent analgesic used as a general anesthetic for moderate to severe pain | Ketamine |
| Ketamine at higher doses of ___dissociates conscious thought from sensory input (including pain) | >50mg IM or intranasal |
| IM or IN Ketamine can be repeated every 30 minutes until | pain is controlled or until casualty develops nystagmus (eye shaking) |
| Half life of ketamine is ____ and high doses will have approximately ___ duration of dissociation | 2.5 hours, 30 minutes |
| Adverse reactions/ Contraindications of Ketamine is | hallucinogenic terrors, avoid PTs < 3 yo and those with hx of schizophrenia |
| Ketamine at low doses of ____ relieves pain twice as well as morphine | 30mg IV/IO push over 1 minute |
| IO or IV Ketamine can be repeated every 20 minutes until | pain is controlled or until casualty develops nystagmus (eye shaking) |
| Ketamine requires more time and expertise to administer then Fentanyl but avoids the risk of | cardiopulmonary depression |
Created by:
kadenhernandez