Part II ACS <> Word Scramble

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Question	Answer
Most common STD in the U.S.	chlamydia
STD associated with Reiter's syndrome	chlamydia
STD with yellow odorless discharge	chlamydia
STD associated with NGU (non-gonococcal genito-urinary infection	chlamydia
A lymph-related condition that chlamydia may lead to	lymphogranuloma vereneum. (enlarged lymph nodes cause lymph blockage which leads to elephantitis
AKA for gonorrhea	the clap
STD with copious amounts of clear discharge	gonorrhea
Gonorrhea is gram negative or positive?	negative
Two locations males get gonorrhea	urethra and epididymus
Three types of inflammation females experience with gonorrhea	vaginitis, salpingitis, arthritis
Herpes type I location	the mouth
Herpes type II location	the genitals or anus
STD with small swollen red vesicles that ooze	herpes
Name 3 drugs used to treat herpes	valtrex, acyclovir, L-lysine
STD with green, foul smelling,itchy presentation	trichromonas
STD that presents with rapid forming ulcers which bleed	chancroid
hemophiles ducrey is an associated symptom of which STD? what is it?	chancroid. a soft ulcer
buboes is an associated symptom of which STD? what is it?	chancroid. large swollen inguinal lymph nodes
organism which causes syphilis	treponema pallidium
primary syphilis presentation	small hard painless lesions
incubation period for secondary syphilis	~12 weeks
Two presentations of secondary syphilis	condylomata lata(warts) and alopecia (loss of hair)
Tertiary syphilis appears in what % of untreated cases	30% or 1/3
Tertiary syphilis may cause the following presentations. (use this acronym) ACDGT "all coochies do good tricks"	argyll robertson pupil, charcot's joints, dementia, gummas, tabes dorsalis (dorsal column degeneration and its associated symptoms
Congenital syphilis presents with Hutchinson's triad, name the 3 attributes	short pegged teeth, interstitial keratosis, and deafness. (some sources say saddle nosed too)
Name 4 labs for syphilis	dark field microscopy. FTA-ABS. RPR rapid plasma reagin. VDRL venereal disease research lab
Name 2 AKAs for candida	candida albicans, thrush
Candida in females commons presents as	cheesy white vaginal walls...yuck
Name two treatments for candida	lactobacillis, acidophilus
This STD is associated with "beefy red lesions" and "Donovan's bodies"	granuloma inguinale
Cauliflower lesions are associated with this STD	HPV
What strains (#s) are associated with genital HPV	16 and 18
waxy papules and multiple skin tags	molluscum contagiosum
An STD associated with South Americans and an IgG reaction	bullous pemphigoid
An STD associated with a possibly lethal autoimmune reaction the causes blistering eruptions	bullous pemphigoid
An STD associated with blacks and asians and an IgA reaction	dermatitis herpetiformis
dermatits herpetiformis may cause which 3 symptoms	bullous lesions, gluten sensitivity, and prolonged itching
Two scientific AKAs for "mood disorders"	Affect Disorder, Thymic disorder
Treatment for bipolarism	lithium
"Cutters" associated with	unipolar depression
Name 3 types of schizophrenia	Disorganized, Catatonic, Paranoid
Describe disorganized schizophrenia and give its AKA	unpredictable mood swings. hebephrenic
Describe Catatonic schizophrenia	patient had rigid posture and flat facial expression
Describe paranoid schizophrenia	why are you reading my flash cards??!? !?? who are you??!?!?!
symptoms of schizophrenia need to be present for how long to make a diagnosis	6 months
a term for a person with schizophrenic symptoms that occur periodically but don't last the required 6 months	schizophreniform
Three natural treatments for seasonal affect disorder	light, exercise, comfort foods
Umbrella category of mental disorders in which physical symptoms are associated	somatoform disorders
Name for type of disorder in which a person is convinced there is something wrong with their body	dysmorphic disorder
Bulimia is a food disorder which may lead to...	barrett's esophagus
Eating inedible things, such as dirt...	Pica
Psychic disorder which CAUSES physical disorder is called...	Conversion disorder
Preoccupation with becoming ill	hypochondriac
Briquet's syndrome, give the AKA and description	somatization disorder. person is under 30, usually female, reoccuring complaints that something is seriouslly wrong with them, may be continually seeking medical attention
Psychogenic pain AKA	somatoform disorder
Fear and anxiety following an event causing panic attacks and sleep disorders	Post traumatic stress disorder
Condition in which a person is mostly in a state of reality, but very low self esteem and constantly in defensive mode	Neurotic, neurosis
Condition in which a person is mostly OUT of reality, no regard for self or others, verbal therapy is useless	psychotic, psychosis
Masochist likes what? Sadist likes what?	receiving abuse. giving abuse
Voyer likes what? Exhibitionist likes what?	watching. being watched
Childhood disorder associated with poor development and microencephaly	FAS: fetal alcohol syndrome
Child in its own world, slow language development	autism
2 possible causes for autism	vaccinations and amoxicillin
childhood disorder with poor focus, restless leg, sleep disorders, impulsive patterns	ADD: attention deficit disorder
Childhood trauma that causes short term multiple personalities	dissociative disorder
Defense Mechanism devoid of feelings	denial
Defense mechanism of ignoring feelings	repression
Defense mechanism of blaming it on another	projection
Defense mechanism of acting young than one is	regression
Defense Mechanism of acting out of place	displacement
Defense mechanism of acting opposite of normal, i.e., laughing in hysteria	reaction formation
Defense mechanism of finding an excuse for behavior	rationalizing
Defense mechanism of transferring emotion to another being (parent, doctor, etc.)	transference
this type of disorder is in between a neurosis and a psychosis	personality disorder
Therapy aimed to make subject associate bad behavior with something negative	aversion therapy
Therapy aimed at making a subject avoid something	avoidance therapy
Therapy which analyzes underlying thoughts	psychotherapy
Therapy which changes life style, i.e., in-patient, half-way house	milieu therapy
ECT stands for	electro-convulsion therapy
Therapy associated with "Hierarchy of needs"	Maslow therapy
Therapy associated with hypnosis	Erickson therapy
Therapy associated with ID, EGO, and SUPER EGO	Freudian therapy
ID relates to what? EGO relates to what? SUPER EGO relates to what?	ID = primative or child. EGO = reality or control. SUPER EGO = conscience or guilt.
Therapy associated with analytical psychology	Jung therapy
Classical conditioning: Pavlovian response Name an unconditional stimulus, unconditional response conditional stimulus, conditional response.	food, salivation, bell, salivate to bell
Operant conditioning AKA is? which creates faster learning? neg or pos?	Skinner conditioning. negative is faster.
Never give for gasoline poisoning	emetics: vomiting agents
Most common vomiting agent	ipecac, comes from roots and rhizomes of ipecacuanha plant
Mildest vomiting agent	salt water
Safest substance to treat alkaline or acid poisoning	water
Vomiting is indicated or contraindicated for swallowing bleach or cleaning products?	contra indicated
Contraindications to using charcoal as a universal antidote: (use acronym) DIALS	DDT, Alcohol (ethanol or methanol), Iodine, Lithium Sulpher
Use Heimlich when a person is choking and...	there is no sound coming out
For an unconscious adult who is choking provide...	abdominal thrusts above umbilicus
For an unconscious infant who is choking provide...	back blows and oral finger sweeps
Anaphylactic shock due to:	Major inflammation reaction
Hypovolemic shock due to:	decreased blood volume
2 signs of carbon monoxide poisoning	cherry red lips or cyanosis
CA-MRSA stands for	community acquired methicillin resistant staph aureus
CA-MRSA is common in what group? and what anatomical location?	Kids and athletes. skin and lungs
Normal MRSA is common in what group? and anatomical location	hospitals and nursing homes.in the joints
Name the 4 D's required in a malpractice suit	Duty, Dereliction, Damage, Direct Causation
Is standard of care affected by furthered education(diplomates etc.)?	Yes, although a Dr. is responsible for reasonable and average standard of care, a higher degree necessitates a higher standard.
What can constitute a breech of contract? Use acronym "CAPED"	Confidentiality, Abandonment ( not having a doc to cover your vacation), Promising a cure one can't deliver, Exceed patient's consent, Doctor is held vicariously responsible
Define tort	a civil wrong. a person's behavior has caused loss or damage to another. something against the expectations of society
Adjusting without permission is classified as...	assault and battery
Name 4 types of civil suits. Use acronym BT PM. "bong tokes at night"	Breech, tort, personal damages, malpractice
Type of consent required to be communicated about possible risks of chiropractic care	Informed consent
The statue of limitations allows for how much time for an adult to file suit?	7 years
the statue of limitations allows for how much time for a minor to file suit	18 years
Name the tax form used to estimate and pay taxes quarterly	1040ES
Who selects the state board of examiners?	The governor
What is the role of the state board of examiners?	Protecting the citizens
Law term for a wrongful act?	Malfeasance
Why are the results of a binding arbitration different than the results of a trial?	A binding arbitration can not be appealed or disputed.
what does "Res Ipsa Loquitor" mean?	"The thing speaks for itself"
You're the defendant in a suit. Who does direct examination?	The defense attorney.
You're the defendant in a suit. Who does cross examination?	The prosecuting attorney.
Who is responsible for damages in a "comparative negligence" ruling?	Both doctor and patient.
What does "voir dire" mean?	"to speak the truth"
What does "Prima Nocere" mean?	"first do no harm"
What is an anxiolytic drug?	A drug used to treat anxiety
Name 5 anxiety drugs. Use acronym HBC T2	Haldol, Benzodiazepine, Chlorpromazine, Torazine, and tranquilizers. Basically they end in -ine.
Name 2 tranquilizers that cause falls in the elderly	Valium and Librium
What is the memory trick to remember blood thinner drugs	"-in's thin the blood" coumadin, Aspirin, etc.
What 2 major vitamins thin the blood?	Vitamin C and E
What does the drug Dicumarol do?	thins the blood
Insectisides are what class of poisons?	Organophosphates
what are common side affects of insecticide poisoning? Use acronym SLUD	salivation, lacrimation, urination, defication
What is the most common drug antidote given for organophosphate poisoning? What side affects may it cause?	Atropine. Dry eyes, nose, and mouth.
Anabolic steroid use can cause pathophysiology in what organ?	the liver
Anabolic steroid use may do what to a growing child?	Prematurely close growth plates
T/F Chloroform must be ingested to cause bodily harm? What acute condition can it cause?	False. Inhalation may cause harm as well. Acute liver failure.
This type of poisoning may happen if working around low heat pottery kilns.	Cyanide.
What mechanism do cyanide and arsenic shut down?	The electron transport chain.
Which of the NLMEB white blood cells does lead poisoning affect?	basophils
Adrenal dysfunction and bone loss may occur due to prolonged use of this medically prescribed injection...	corticosteroids
ANS dysfunction may result from prolonged use of this substance...	ionizide
L-dopa is administered as a treatment to which movement disorder?	Parkinson's
An AKA for depression drugs	Dysthymic drugs
What are monamine oxide (MAO) inhibitors used to treat?	Depression
What do tricyclic drugs treat?	Depression
This drugs inhibits the re-uptake of seratonin in depression disorders.	Prozac
Name 3 possible effects of long term Aspirin use.	GI bleeding, kidney irritation, tinnitus
What biomolecule does aspirin inhibit?	Prostagladin 2
What is the antidote for NSAID overdose?	N-acetylcysteine
What is the antidote for apirin overdose?	activated charcoal
This syndrome has a history of infecting children whom have had a virus and have taken apsirin.	What is Reye's syndrome Alex?
Which two organs does Reye's syndrome tend to damage in children?	The liver is damaged and the brain experiences encephalopathy.
What is the classical triad of Reye's syndrome symptoms?	Rash, vomiting, seizures. (possibly amnesia too)
The antibiotic Streptomycin has been known to cause what side affect?	hearing problems
Name 2 possible side affects of penicillin.	Rash and anaphylactic shock if the patient is allergic.
Amoxicillin has been known to cause what two side affects?	Diminished brain development (autism, and gi neurotransmitter problems.
Ritalin is taken for what condition?	ADD
Tagamet is taken for what condition?	ulcers
What does Lipitor do?	reduces blood cholesterol
What does Celebrex do?	it is used to relieve pain from osteoarthritis by inhibiting cox-2 inflammatory agents.
What does Digitalis does?	it is a plant based derivative which increases heart contractility.
What does the drug Dilantin do?	decreases seizure activity.
What is the most common endocrine cause of carpal tunnel syndrome?	Hypothyroidism
What is the medical term for being far sighted (can only see far away things)?	Presbyopia.
what is the medical term for age-related hearing loss?	Presbycusis
What field of vision goes out with macular degeneration, central, or peripheral?	central
What is the most common cause of geriatric hearing loss?	Accumulation of cerumen.
Pre-senile amensia is an AKA for what geriatric condition?	alzheimer's
What is the medical term for the clinically insignificant condition "barnacles of old age?"	Seborrheic keratosis
Geriatric glomerular filtration rate is generally running at what percentage of a fully functioning young kidney?	50% less
Geriatrics sense of taste declines roughly what percentage, in comparison with a young, fully functioning person.	65% decline
The geriatric population may lack many healthy indicators on a blood lab. What are 3 indicators that remain at normal levels?	Glucose, Calcium, and WBCs.
Decreased fluid and decreased fiber leads to...	constipation
Incontinence, the inability to control one's bowels, may have which 3 causes? Use acronym "SIN"	Stress, infection, neurogenic (cauda equina)
A flat skin macule less than 1cm	freckle
Raised, solid skin macule less than 1 cm	wart
Raised, serous skin vesicle less than .5cm	herpes
Raised, pustule less than .5cm	acne
what is actinic keratosis	pre-stage squamous cell carcinoma
Rodent Ulcers are associated with what type of cancer?	Basal cell carcinoma
Which skin cancer is the most invasive?	melanoma
Blood vessel sarcoma with purple skin lesions	Kaposi's sarcoma
silver scales, pitted nails, extensor presentation	psoriasis
AKA for eczema	contact dermatitis
Medical term for lice	pediculosis
Medical term for ringworm	tinea capitis
This skin is caused by ticks carrying a spirochete bacteria	Lyme disease
This skin condition is associated with a "herald patch lesion"	pityriasis dermatitis
Butterfly rash presents on the face with this predominately female condition	SLE. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Which population gets acne vulgaris?	Adolescents
Which population gets acne rosacea?	elderly
Childhood disease associated with golden flaky crust.	Impetigo
Medical name for Michael Jackson's de-pigmentation disease.	Vitiligo
What is the name for a raised red birthmark.	Hemangioma
What is the medical term for epidermal thickening	lichenification
What is the name for the white spots on inside of mouth, associated with measles?	Koplick spots
Thrush and leukoplakia are both white spots in the mouth. How can they be differentiated?	Thrush spots can be peeled off.
Name the disease associated with a "beefy red tongue"	Scarlet Fever
Pitted nails are associated with this skin condition	psoriasis
clubbed nails are associated with this breathing disorder	COPD chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder
Medical term for ingrown toenail	onychocryptosis
What is placenta previa?	implantation of placenta in lower 1/3 of uterus
What is placenta abruptio?	Detached placenta
What is placenta accreta?	Placenta won't slough off after birth.
What does the corpus luteum of the ovarian follicle do?	helps begin and retain implantation of egg by releasing progestrone and estrogen
Name the 2 primary functions of oxytocin.	Milk let down into nipple and distension of cervix and uterus
Name the primary role of prolactin.	Causes mammary glands to produce milk.
What is the AKA for females' paraurethral glands, which cause female ejaculation?	Skene's glands
What is the AKA for females' vulvovaginal glands, which provide lubrication for the vagina?	Bartholin's glands
What is dysmenorrhea?	difficult or painful menses
What dyspareunia?	difficult or painful intercourse.
What is dytocia?	difficult and painful delivery
what is procidentia?	prolapsed uterus
Name the condition in which a woman develops HBP during pregnancy and protein is found in blood lab.	Preeclampsia.
What are the components of HELLP syndrome during pregnancy?	Hemolysis. Elevated liver enzymes. Low Platelets.
Define Nagle's rule, which gives the estimated date of delivery.	1 year, minus 3 months, add 7 days to first day of woman's last menstrual period.
Where in the female anatomy does fertilization usually occur?	the ampulla
Name the sign that presents with blueing of the vagina caused by estrogen during pregnancy.	Chadwick's sign
Where is the linea negra found in pregnancy?	Running from pubis to umbilicus.
What are Braxton-Hicks contractions?	False contractions that happen roughly after 3 months.
Define quickening.	Mother feels baby move.
Define lightening.	Fetus begins to descend to presenting area 2 weeks before labor.
Define effacement in obstetrics.	Thinning of the cervix.
Define the 1st stage of labor.	From 1st contraction to fully dialated cervix (10cm) This is the longest stage.
Define the 2nd stage of labor.	Dilation to delivery of fetus.
Define the 3rd stage of labor.	Delivery to expulsion of placenta.
Define the obstretics term lochia.	Post partum, the vagina has a discharge of mucus, blood, and placental tissue for 4-6 weeks.
What does the acronym APGAR stand for? What is a perfect score?	Appearance. Pulse. Grimace. Activity. Respiration. 10.
What is the normal pulse range for a newborn?	120-140 bpm
What is normal respiration rate for a newborn?	around 44 bpm
What would you classify a baby as if it were less then 37 weeks in utero, under 2500g and had no strong cartilage formation of the ears?	Premature.
What is meconium?	Newborns first few bowel movements. It is usually green and sticky.
A baby born with lanugo has what on it's body?	White, fluffy, downey hair.
At what age does the posterior fontanelle close?	2 months.
At what age does the anterior fontanelle close?	18 months.
In regards to a new born baby, the "string sign" on xray indicated what gastro-intestinal condition?	pyloric stenosis.
Name the major primitive reflexes. Use the phrase "Clearly My Balls Got Real Soft Tonight"	Chvostek's. Moro's. Babinski's. Grasp. Rooting. Suckling.
What is the suckling reflex?	Tap under lip and baby does sucking movements.
What is the rooting reflex?	Touch their cheek and they turn towards the stimulus.
What is the tonic neck reflex?	Turn baby's head to side. Ipsilateral extension of limbs and contralateral flexion.
What is the AKA for Moro's reflex?	Startle reflex. Baby raises both arms in response to sudden loud noise.
What antibody crosses plcenta from mom to fetus?	IgG. "Gee mom thanks."
What antibody is very high in mother's milk?	IgA.
Cow's milk may cause what condition in a newborn?	Iron deficient anemia.
Which 2 foods are most allergic to most newborns?	Whole milk and wheat products.
What is the least likely allergic food to newborns?	Rice.
What is the infant condtion marasmus?	Severe protein deficiency in a child under 1. Basically kwashoirkor is the same thing, only over 18 months.
What is the most common malnutrition disease in infants in the U.S.?	obesity
Name a commonly suspected cause of cerebral palsy.	Anoxia at birth.
What is the newborn condition "Milia"	white heads on baby's face
Name two tests for infant hip dysplasia.	Ortolani's and Barlow's
Newborn with conjunctivitis and blindness may be due to what reason?	Mom had active vaginal infection.
Folate deficiency in utero may lead to what type of defects?	Neural tube defects.
Which strain of hepatitis is often contracted at day care centers?	Hepatitis A
What is the most common bacteria spread at day care centers?	Giardia lambia
Inspiratory stridor is associated which which condition?	Pertussis or whooping cough
Mumps is associated with what genital condition in adults?	orchitis
Raccoon sign and Battle Sign occur in what newborn condition?	Basal skull fractures.
What psychological test is called "Rorschach Test"	Inkblot.
Wechsler Test is associated with what mental measure?	IQ
What is dystocia?	prolonged abnormal labor
What is colostrum?	First discharge of breast milk.
What is menarche?	a girls first menstral cycle.
What is Mittleschmerz condition?	pain at ovulation.
What is cholasma, or melasma?	brown hyper-pigmentation of

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