Pathology

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Question

Answer

Acetylcholine, neurotransmitter in ___ ganglia, ___ ___ synapses, ___ junction

autonomic, postganglionic parasympathetic, neuromuscular

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Neutrotransmission; acetylcholine into synapse, degraded by __, __ taken back into __ membrane (re-synthesis), acetylcholine receptors at presynaptic membrane provide __ __ __ to monitor amount of AcTH in synapse, __ into muscle=depolarization of __ __

acetylcholinestrase, choline, presynaptic, negative feedback loop, sodium, postsynaptic membrane

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common inhibitory central nervous system (CNS) neurotransmitters- ___ and ___

gylcine, GABA

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30% of synapses are inhibitory and ___ is the principal neurotransmitter in these synapses

GABA

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barbiturates and benzodiazepines are thought to exert their depressive effects by increasing ___ activity

GABA

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bipolar neurons - have one dendrite, one axon extending from cell body (found mainly in ___, cochlea, ___ structures)

retina, olfactory

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unipolar neurons – have a single process protruding from cell body, splits to form dendrite and axon (found in ___ nerves)

somatosensory

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neurons secrete one principal neurotransmitter, excitatory - ___ target neuron, inhibitory - ___ of target neuron

depolarizes, hyperpolarization

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neuroglia or glial cells are protective and supportive structures of nervous tissue, neuroglia provides ___ and ___ protection to neurons; they are responsible for formation of ___ ___ and maintaining homeostasis inside neurons.

nutrition, immune, myelin sheath

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4 types of neuroglia

oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, microglia, ependymal cells

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oligodendrocytes form ___ in CNS and one cell may provide many segments of ___ ___

myelin, myelin sheaths

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astrocytes have foot processes that contact brain capillaries and help maintain integrity of the ___ ___ ___

blood-brain barrier

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microglia are derived from monocyte-macrophase cell type and provide ___ function within CNS

phagocytic

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ependymal cells line ventricles and central canal of spinal cord, producing ___ and maintaining ___ ___ ___

CSF, CSF-brain barrier

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tough, fibrous connective tissue layer containing many blood vessels and nerves, functions as protective layer, surrounding brain and spinal cord

dura mater

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thin membrane containing many nerves and blood vessels, provides nourishment to underlying brain cells and spinal cord, attached directly to surface of brain and spinal cord

pia mater

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frontal lobe involved in ___, decision making, problem solving, ___

movement, planning

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___ ___-lies behind central sulcus and frontal lobe

parietal lobe

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___ ___- lies below frontal and parietal lobes, separated by lateral sulcus

temporal lobe

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___ ___-posterior portion of each hemisphere separated from cerebellum by tentorium cerebelli

occipital lobe

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___ (island of Reil), found deep in lateral sulcus, separated from frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes by circular sulcus

insula

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function of parietal lobe

sensation, perception, integrates sensory input (primarily with visual system), cognition

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function of temporal lobe

auditory perception, memory, speech, emotional responses

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function of occipital lobe

visual perception, color recognition

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stages of sleep-stage ___; light sleep, drift in and out, can be awakened easily, eyes move slowly, muscle activity slows

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stages of sleep-stage ___; eye movement stops, brain waves become slower with occasional bursts of rapid brain waves

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stages of sleep-stage ___; extremely slow brain waves, delta waves, interspersed with smaller, faster waves

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stages of sleep-stage ___; brain produces delta waves almost exclusively, referred to as deep sleep or delta sleep, very difficult to wake someone, no eye movement or muscle activity, children experience bedwetting, sleepwalking, night terrors

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REM period of sleep, breathing becomes __, irregular, __, eyes jerk, limbs temporarily paralyzed, brain waves and heart rate increases, BP rises, males develop __, some loss of __ regulation, most dreams occur, if awoken person can remember dreams

rapid, shallow, erections, temperature

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most people experience ___ to ___ intervals of REM sleep each night, lasting 5-30 minutes

three, five

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REM interspersed at about ___ -minute intervals, lasting 5 to 30 minutes

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PNS receives stimuli, CNS interprets, ___ ___ system initiates responses

peripheral nervous

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autonomic nervous system, mostly motor nerves, controls functions of ___ ___ muscles, ___ muscles, and ___

involuntary smooth, cardiac, glands

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describe Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

most common scoring system used to describe LOC following traumatic brain injury, gauges severity of acute brain injury, used by trained staff at site of injury (car crash, sports injury, ED, ICU)

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primary brain damage, damage complete at time of impact, may include

skull fracture, contusions/bruises, hematomas/blood clots, lacerations, nerve damage

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secondary brain damage, which is damage that evolves over time after trauma, may include

edema, ICP, epilepsy, intracranial infection, fever, hematoma, low or high BP, low Na, anemia, too much or too little CO2, abnormal blood coagulation, cardiac changes, lung and nutritional changes

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two types of hemorrhagic strokes are ___ or ___ hemorrhage

intracerebral, subarachnoid

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___ stroke occurs when weakened blood vessel ruptures usually caused by one of two types of weakened blood vessels - ___ or ___ ___

hemorrhagic, aneurysms, arteriovenous malformations (AVMs)

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diagnosis of cerebral aneurysm requires a ___ or ___ to confirm ___ ___

CT, MRI, subarachnoid hemorrhage

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If CT scan or MRI is negative when trying to diagnose cerebral aneurysm, but suspicion is high, perform lumbar puncture for CSF analysis (blood in CSF is indicative of a ___ ___)

subarachnoid hemorrhage

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brain abscess (bacterial)-localized collection of pus within brain parenchyma, pyogenic pathogens reach brain by penetrating ___, direct extension or ___ ___, or ___-___ ___ formed from distant infected site

wounds, retrograde thrombophlebitis, blood-borne dissemination

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generalized seizures affect both cerebral hemispheres from beginning of seizure, produce loss of consciousness, either briefly or for a longer period of time, sub-categorized into several major types;___ ___ ___, ___, ___, ___

generalized tonic clonic, myoclonic; absence, atonic

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phase of seizure, limb stiffening

tonic

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phase of seizure with jerking limbs and face

clonic

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generalized tonic clonic seizures AKA

grand mal seizures

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most common, well-known type of generalized seizure, begins with tonic phase, followed by clonic phase

grand mal

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___ seizures-rapid, brief muscle contractions, occur at same time on both sides of body, occasionally involves one arm or foot, sudden jerks, first aid usually not needed, however, after first time, receive thorough medical evaluation

myoclonic

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spinal shock after trauma

complete loss of function below level of injury, can occur with incomplete injuries to spinal cord, causing injury to appear more severe, lasts from few hours to few weeks

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symptoms of spinal shock include

flaccid paralysis of all skeletal muscles, loss of all spinal reflexes, loss of pain, proprioception, bowel & bladder dysfunction with paralytic ileus, loss of thermoregulation

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excessive accumulation of endolymph in membranous labyrinth; ___ disease

Meniere's

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Meniere disease-neural end organs of ___ degenerate

cochlea

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5 causative agents of Meniere's disease

allergies, viral & bacterial infections (e.g. syphilis), head trauma, metabolic derangements, chronic stress

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type of refractive error of eye, causes blurred vision, most common reason to see an eye professional

astigmatism

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TRANSDUCTION-pain begins in periphery when free nerve ending ___ are stimulated

nociceptors

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TRANSMISSION-stimulated ___ transmit impulses to CNS via specialized sensory fibers

nociceptors

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PERCEPTION

awareness of interpretation of meaning of sensation, is influenced by attention, distraction, anxiety, fear, fatigue, previous experiences and expectations

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___ - attempts to decrease perception of painful stimuli

MODULATION

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explain acute pain

results from tissue injury and resolves when injury heals, usually less than 3 months

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explain chronic pain

lasts more than several months beyond expected healing time (6+ months), not usually associated with S&S of sympathetic activity, body becomes “accustomed” to pain, nervous system desensitizes itself to noxious input, symptoms often psychological

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___ pathways come down from brain and ___ pathways go up to brain

motor, senory

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___ nerves enter into dorsal roots of "H”, while ___ neurons exit ventral roots of "H." ___ often connect these two types of neurons.

sensory, motor, interneurons

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connection of sensory neurons, via interneurons, to motor neurons - this is known as a

reflex

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___ ___ glaucoma has an insidious onset, no symptoms in early stages

open-angle, intraocular pressure consistently elevated, over a period of months/years, gradual loss of vision in periphery-tunnel vision

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closed-angle glaucoma is AKA

narrow-angle glaucoma

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___ ___ glaucoma is caused by abnormality of angle between pupil and lateral cornea

narrow-angle

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narrow-angle glaucoma-angle narrow, blocks outflow of ___ ___ when pupil dilated, less common than open-angle

aqueous humor

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narrow-angle glaucoma is more prevalent in ___, ___, ___

elderly, hyperopes, Asians

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narrow-angle glaucoma has rapid onset and treated as an emergency, forward displacement of iris toward corner with dilatation narrows or closes chamber angle, obstructing outflow of ___ ___

aqueous humor

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___ seizures produce an abrupt loss of muscle tone

atonic

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3 names for atonic seizures

drop attacks, astatic, akinetic seizures

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atonic seizures produce head drops, loss of posture, sudden collapse, tend to be resistant to ___ ___

drug therapy

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absence seizures are AKA

petit mal seizures

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___ seizures are lapses of awareness, with staring, begin/end abruptly, last only a few seconds

absence

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no warnings and no after-effects in ___ seizures

abence

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absence seizures are more common in ___ than in ___, frequently so brief they escape detection, even if experiencing 50 to 100 attacks daily

children, adults

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___ ___ - clusters of quick, sudden movements, start between 3 months and two years

infantile spasms

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___ seizures; electrical disturbance limited to specific area of one cerebral hemisphere

partial

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___ seizures are most common type of seizure experienced by people with epilepsy

partial

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___ ___ is a life-threatening condition in which brain is in a state of persistent seizure

status epilepticus

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pathophysiologic changes associated with Alzheimer disease include ___ ___ tangles and extracellular ___ (senile) plaques

intracellular neurofibrillary, amyloid

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diagnosis of Alzheimer’s: CBC, chemistry panel, Vitamin ___ levels, ___ serology, ___ function, Lyme serology , heavy metal assays, ___ rate

B12 levels, syphilis, thyroid, sedimentation

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Parkinson's results from degeneration of pigmented dopaminergic neurons found in ___ ___ and to neurons elsewhere in brain. Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions known as ___ ___ may be found in surviving neurons.

substantia nigra, Lewy bodies

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TRAP (Parkinson's)

Tremor at rest Rigidity Akinesia Postural istability

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water-soluble hormones (some are protein-bound) cannot pass plasma membrane, they must....

bind to receptors on target cell's membrane

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Lipid-soluble hormones require ___ ___ (globulin) to convey through circulation, these are made by the liver. At target cell, hormone detaches from protein, diffuses through biophosphate lipid layer of cell membrane to activate

transport proteins

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The PNS includes ___ PAIRS of spinal nerves and ___ PAIRS of cranial nerves.

31, 12

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The epidural space lies between the ___ ___ and the dura mater.

arachnoid mater

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CSF circulates in the ___ space.

subarachnoid

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The sympathetic nerves originate in the spinal cord segments ___ to ___.

T1-L2

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There are two sets of basal ganglia, one in each ___ ___.

cerebral hemisphere

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The primary motor cortex is located in the ___ lobe.

frontal

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Glutamate functions as an ___ neurotransmitter in the CNS.

excitatory

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___ cells form myelin in CNS, ___ cells form myelin in PNS

oligodendroglial, Schwann

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primary meaning of clearing amine neurotransmitters from synapse is by active ___ into ___ neurons

reuptake, presynaptic

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The ____ acts as a processor and relay center for both afferent and efferent signals between cerebral cortex and brainstem.

thalamus

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metabotropic/ionotropic receptor: 5-HT(3)

ionotropic

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metabotropic/ionotropic receptor: a-, B-adrenergic

metabotropic

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metabotropic/ionotropic receptor: 5-HT(1), 5-HT(2)

metabotropic

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metabotropic/ionotropic receptor: GABA(a)

ionotropic

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metabotropic/ionotropic receptor: nicotinic acetylcholine

ionotropic

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metabotropic/ionotropic receptor:muscarinic acetylcholine

metabotropic

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inhibitory/excitatory: Na+ channel opening

excitatory

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inhibitory/excitatory: K+ channel opening

inhibitory

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inhibitory/excitatory: Ca++ channel opening

excitatory

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inhibitory/excitatory: Cl- channel opening

inhibitory

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transmit axial motor control: ___ tract

extrapyramidal

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cells that produce CSF: ___ cells

ependymal

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transmits fine-motor control ___ tract

corticospinal

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transmits fine touch, proprioception: ___ column, ___ ___ tract

dorsal, medial lemniscal

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transmits pain, itch, temp: ___ tract

anterolateral (spinothalamic)

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relay center of the brain: ___

thalamus

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help maintain blood brain barrier: ___

astrocytes

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macrophages of brain

microglia

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structures that plan motor programs: ___ ___

basal ganglia

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neurons principally communicate through ___ ___

chemical synapses

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NTM class of amines includes ___, ___, and ___. Does not include ___.

serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine; ACh

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GABA is always an ___ neurotransmitter.

inhibitory

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inhibitory NTMs produce inhibitory postsynaptic potentials by opening ___ or ___ channels

chloride, potassium

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touch receptors and proprioceptors on the left side of the body travel up the ___ spinal cord in the ___ column

ipsilateral; dorsal

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primary somatosensory and primary cortices are ___ organized

somatotopically

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motor neurons from the corticospinal tract decussate at the ___ ___

medullary pyramids

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principle role of cerebellum in motor activity is to improve match between

intended and actual movement

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deep tendon reflexes are tests of the ___ ___ reflex

monosynaptic stretch

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action potentials are usually generated at initial segment of a neuron because threshold is ___ due to increased density of fast ___ channels.

low; Na+

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N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor is a ___ ion channel that binds to NTM ___ , but will not open unless membrane is partially depolarized since in polarized state a ___ ion normally blocks the channel.

Ca, glutamate; Mg

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glial cells perform many supportive functions in nervous system, but they do not have voltage gated ion channels and therefore cannot generate ____ ____.

action potentials

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six general classes of NTMs:

ACh, amine, amino acid, neuropeptide, nucleotide, gases

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Sx suggestive of TIA are expected to resolve within ___ hours after onset

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polar primary injury in traumatic brain injury results n damage to opposite sides of brain due to ___ ___ movement within rigid skull.

acceleration-deceleration

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Damage to the Broca are of the brain, most commonly ass’d with a left-sided stroke, will result in a pt’s having difficulty with ___.

speech

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although rarely diagnosis in the pediatric population, arteriovenous malformations are vascular abnormalities believed to have a ___ cause.

congenital

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an etiologic difference between meningitis and encephalitis is that meningitis is usually due to a ___ infection, while encephalitis is typically due to a ___ infection.

bacterial, viral

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Many of brain’s intracellular enzyme systems are affected by ___ which accumulates excessively following acute injury and is significant to brain cell damage.

calcium

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The damage produced by the infusion of inflammatory cells and development of oxygen free radicals into area previously ischemic is called ______ _____.

reperfusion injury

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___ edema develops when cell membrane pumps are unable to prevent an increase in cellular volume, and ___ edema occurs with changes within blood vessels.

cytotoxic; vasogenic

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critical event in determining whether injured neuronal cell will die is ___ calcium overload.

intracellular

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hyperventilation to reduce PaCO2 is likely to produce ___ ___.

cerebral vasoconstriction

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brain’s normal response to increase in metabolism or decrease in arterial perfusion pressure is to ___.

vasodilate

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decrease in size of cerebral ventricles on CT scan is indicative of ___-___ ___.

ICP

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earliest indicator of compromised neurologic functioning is usually a change in ___ ___ ___.

LOC

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Glasgow Coma Scale has three measure of coma that include eye-opening, ___, and ___ response.

verbal, motor

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What response would indicate the worst neurologic status

assumes decorticate posture

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characteristics of epidural hematoma include ____ ___ immediately after injury followed by rapid decline in ____.

lucid interval; LOC

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the pt most at risk for CNS infection following trauma is one with a ___ ____ ___ after falling of a ladder.

basal skull fracture

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the most common stroke

thrombosis

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pts who experience TIAs are increased risk for ____ stroke

thrombotic

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what is a significant risk factor for the development of embolic stroke

atrial fib

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typical manifestations of a stroke on the right side of the brain include

loss of vision in the left visual field

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subarachnoid hemorrhage is most commonly a consequence of

cerebral aneurysm rupture

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a pt with a headache, stiff neck, fever and elevated CSF WBCs count most likely has

meningitis

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Clinical manifestations of a seizure are not dependent on their ___

age

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seizures are classified as general when they involve both ___ of brain

hemispheres

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status epileptics is of greatest concern in pt with tonic-clonic seizures because ___ ceases until end of clonic phase.

respiration

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patient w/dementia and brain atrophy on CT scan or MRI, likely to have ___ ___ ___.

Alzheimer type dementia

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Alzheimer disease is ass’d w/ a deficiency of brain ___

ACh

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Parkinson’s disease is ass’d with a deficiency of basal ganglia ___

dopamine

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3 medications appropriate to manage Sx of Parkinson’s disease

dopamine precursor (L-dopa), ACh antagonist, MAOI inhibitors

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Type of medication not used to treat Parkinson’s: ___ ___ ___

dopamine receptor antagonist

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clinical manifestations of cerebellar disorders include ____, ___ ___, and ___.

ataxia, intention tremor, clumsiness

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patient who experiences lower extremity weakness but has normal or increased deep tendon reflexes is likely to have ___ ___.

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a congenital anomaly of the spinal cord in which the spinal nerves and meninges protrude from the back is termed

myelomeningocele

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major risk factors for development of alzheimer disease are age and ___ ___.

family Hx

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cerebral palsy is primarily a disorder of ___ function

motor

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ALS affects upper and lower ____ neurons, and is a ___ degenerative disease.

motor, progressive

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both MS and Guillain-Barre syndrome are demyelinating disease that differ in that Guillain-Barre syndrome only involves lower ___ neurons

motor

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Bell palsy is mostly due to ___ infection

viral

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Myasthenia Gravis, “grave weakness”, worsens with activity due to insufficient activity of ___ in myoneural synapse.

ACh

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Intention tremor - indicative of dysfunction of ___, tremor at rest is indicative of ____ ____ ____.

cerebullum; Parkinson's disease syndrome

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Autonomic dysreflexia is a complication of spinal cord injury that occurs when ___ is inappropriately activated below level of injury, resulting in dangerously elevated ___ ___.

SNS; blood pressure

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In normal pressure hydrocephalus, ___ of CSF increases w/o change in ICP because there is a ___ in brain parenchyma.

volume; decrease

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Demyelination of nerve axons in MS is due to inappropriate activation of ___ system.

immune

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EAR – movement of round window causes movement of ___

perilymph

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SNS stimulates pupil ___

dilation

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Pathological lesion of external and middle ear cause what disorder: ___ ___ ___

conductive hearing disorders

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Middle ear bone ossification is an example of a ___ ___

conductive abnormality

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Otitis media occurs in children with ___ ___ dysfunction

eustachian tube

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Irregular curvature of cornea or lens: ___

astigmatism

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Patients at high risk for vascular retinopathy have what disease: ___ ___

diabetes mellitus

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Symptom of closed angle glaucoma, not seen in open angle glaucoma: ___ ___

eye pain

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Patient with malfunction of olfactory function without underlying cause should be evaluated for ___ ___

brain tumor

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Most ototoxic drugs affect cochlea ___ ___

hair cells

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Name 2 diseases associated with retinopathy

HTN, DM

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Patients over 50, type of retinopathy most often seen: ___

spontaneous

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Most common cause of decreased vision in children: ___

amblyopia

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Elongated eyeball, image focused in front of retina, nearsighted: ___

myopia

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Shorter eye resulting in image focusing behind retina, farsighted: ___

hyperopia

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Eye’s loss of ability to accommodate: ___

presbyopia

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How to treat cataracts, surgically remove __

lens

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Irreversible loss of vision in elderly: age-related ___ ___

macular degeneration

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free nerve endings for pain: ___

nociceptors

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transmit fast pain sensation

mylienated a delta fibers

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pain due to nerve damage

neuropathic

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glutamate is implicated in which, acute or chronic pain

chromic

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gate control theory is involved in __ modulation

pain

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location of pain nerve cell bodies

dorsal route

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transmit slow pain sensation

unmylienated c fibers

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two endogenous opioids modulate pain

endorphins, enkephalins

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visceral structure pain is often felt in the same

dermatome

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neuropathic pain is thought to result from altered central processing of

neuropathic input

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name 3 chemical mediators of pain

histamine, prostaglandins, lactate

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nociceptors are found everywhere in the body except

brain

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opiod drugs interfere with pain perception in ___, NSADI’s and local anesthetics affects nociceptors __

brain peripherally

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chronic pain is more psychological than physiologic, T/F?

true

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nociception, 4 processes

stimulus transduction, signal transmission, pain perception, pain modulation

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name the disorder: excessive dopamine receptor activity

schizophrenia

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dysthymia is also called

minor depression

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1+ episode of mania, major depression

bipolar I

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no mania, 1+ hypomania, major depression

biploar II

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name the disorder: deficit of glutamate activity at NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors

schizophrenia

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absence of pleasure or interest

anhedonia

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schizophrenia is normally diagnosed at what stage of life

young adulthood

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3 causes of schizophrenia

genetics, traumatic childhood, viral infection in 2nd trimester

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3 positive schizophrenia symptoms

hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking

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3 negative symptoms of schizophrenia

social isolation, repetitive behavior, flat affect

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abnormalities of emotion are called

affective disorders

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major depression is associated with abnormal regulation of what three neurotranmitters

dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine

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mania: excess of what ntm

norepinephrine

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3 drug classes used to manage depression

SSRI (Zoloft), MAOI (Nardil), norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (tricyclic antidepressants) (Tofranil)

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mania, name 4 characteristics

increased sex drive, grandiosity, increased appetite, poor impulse control

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how does Lithium treat mania

inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin activity

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tardive dyskinesia and Parkinson's disease are classified as ___ disorders

movement

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causes of both tardive dyskinesia and Parkinson's disease are related to what neurotransmitter

dopamine

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tardive dyskinesia and Parkinson's disease may be congenital (although this is exceedingly rare in the case of tardive dyskinesia), or the result of

side-effects from a medication

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tardive dyskinesia patients have great difficulty ___, whereas those with Parkinson's disease have a great deal of difficulty __

staying still, moving at all

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symptoms of psychosis include thought and mood disorders, substance abuse, dementia, Alzheimer’s, but not __ disorders

anxiety

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anxiety is a non-psychotic mental disorder, true or false?

true

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PET scans of schizophrenic patients reveal diminished glucose metabolism in what area of the brain

frontal cortex

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panic disorder is characterized with what two types of anxiety

anticipatory and avoidance

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Sx of generalized anxiety disorder that is significant and pervasive

chronic worry

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co morbid conditions ass’d w/ OCD

depression, anorexia, Tourette’s

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agoraphobia

rare presentation of generalized anxiety disorder

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severe anorexia r/t hypokalemia results in death by

cardiac arrhythmias

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what characteristic distinctly separates panic disorder vs all anxiety disorders

physiological instability

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general anxiety disorder has a ____ onset and lasts ____

gradual, years

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(2) Types of drugs to Tx anxiety disorders

benzos, antidepressants

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4 common psychotic illnesses’

schizophrenia, major depression, delusional disorder, bipolar

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nonpsychotic mental illnesses (7)

panic, generalized anxiety, OCD, borderline personality, antisocial personality, anorexia, bulimia

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instability in mood, behavior, relationships, impulse aggression, derealization, self-harm, suicidal ideation, manipulation are characteristics of

borderline personality disorder

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no guilt, no morals, no ethical values are characteristics of what disorder

antisocial disorder

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first occurrence of panic disorder usually occurs in what stage of life

young adulthood

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Dx of general anxiety disorder include

dysphoria, uncontrollable worry, impaired concentration, NOT HYPOACTIVITY

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is a genetic predisposition common to all anxiety disorders

yes!!!

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3 Cluster A personality disorders include

paranoid, schizoids, schizotypal

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development of borderline personality disorder is often proceeded by

abuse

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antisocial personality disorder often appears appealing to other T/F

true

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found at center of osteons, blood vessels and nerves located here

Haversian canals

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law of bone stresses, determines deposition, resorption

Wolff’s

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stage of fracture, callous replaced by cancellous/trabecular bone is

ossification

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2 classes of movable joints

diarthrodial and synovial

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structures btw tibia and femur that increase weight bearing capacity

meniscus

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contractile proteins in striated muscle

actin and myosin

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ion required for muscle contraction

calcium

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muscle contraction, no mvmt occurs

isometric

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group of skeletal muscles innervated by one motor neuron

motor unit

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energy storage source for muscle contraction

creatine phosphate

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protein found in tendons and ligaments

elastin

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immediate source of energy for muscle contraction

adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

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3 hormones influencing bone growth

GH, thyroid hormone, sex hormones

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2 primary minerals found in bone

calcium and phosphate

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calcium released faster than removed causes ____ contraction

sustained

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motor units have ____ receptors for Ach

nicotinic

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O2 is necessary for ATP production (contract/relax) and removal of

lactic acid

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sarcolemma/increased conduction velocity, result of increased ____

temp

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shortening contraction resulting in mvmt is called

consentric contraction

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lengthening contraction is called

eccentric contraction

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myosin head binding with actin bead forms

cross bridge

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T/F- all forms of muscular dystrophy are cause by genetics

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T/F- crushing injury producing multiple bone fragments is a comminuted fracture

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T/F- partial separation of articulating bone surfaces within a joint is called a dislocation

F (subluxation)

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T/F- scoliosis can be detected by uneven alignment of shoulders or hips

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T/F- soft tissue injuries heal quicker than fractures

🗑

T/F- osteomyelitis most often due to infection by Staph A

🗑

T/F- subluxation and dislocation result from damage to supportive soft tissue

🗑

T/F- mult fragments of bone is a compound fracture

F (comminuted)

🗑

T/F- hyperkalemia and pathologic fractures can result from bone demineralization in multiple myeloma (cancer of plasma cells, in bone marrow)

T (Kahlers disease)

🗑

Duchenne muscular dystrophy affects only infants and children of which sex

male

🗑

myasthenic crisis is an acute exacerbation of

myasthenia gravis

🗑

cholinergic crisis is usually a result of too much

anticholinesterase

🗑

when contractile tissues are ____ ____ it causes pain

actively contracted

🗑

if a muscle strain results in the tearing of a significant amount of muscle, but a portion is still attached, it is a grade ____ strain

🗑

injury to the anterior or posterior cruciate ligaments results in altered function of the

knee

🗑

a deficiency of Vitamin D produces ____ in children and _____ in adults

Ricketts and osteomalacia

🗑

lligament injuries are classified by

extent of tear

🗑

compartment syndrome is due to increased pressure between muscle’s ____ ____

fascial planes

🗑

a disease in older adults in which osteoclastic activity is followed by an exaggerated response by osteoblasts, resulting in enlargement of bone

Paget’s disease

🗑

most common malignant bone tumor

Ewing sarcoma

🗑

primary Sx of multiple myeloma is ___ pain

bone

🗑

nerves in ___ are more sensitive to pain than anywhere else in body

bones

🗑

major difference in injury between ligament and tendon, stretching of injured ___ will cause pain

ligament

🗑

all muscular dystrophies have two things in common: progressive ___ and ___ of muscles

weakness, degeneration

🗑

progressive autoimmune disease affecting voluntary muscle function: ___ ___

myasthenia gravis

🗑

fibromyalgia syndrome characterized by (3) chronic ___ ___, ___ and ___

muscle pain, stiffness, fatigue

🗑

complication, fracture hasn’t healed in four to six month

nonunion

🗑

healing of fractures involves ___ formation and consolidation

callus

🗑

T/F tumors originating in bone are less common than metastases from other sites

🗑

T/F infectious arthritis typically involves mult joints at the same time

🗑

T/F ankylosing spondylitis causes vertebral fussion

🗑

T/F vascular scar tissue formed in RA, can erode joint tissues, cause contractures is called pannus

🗑

T/F deer tick Spirochete causes Lyme disease

🗑

T/F scleroderma manifestations all due to increased density of epidermal layer

F (can be systemic)

🗑

T/F arthritis results in more disabilities than any other musculo/skeletal disease in US

🗑

T/F polymyositis and dermatomyositis are due to infections of muscle tissue

F (they are idiopathic inflammatory myopathy)

🗑

T/F infection of a prosthetic joint requires removal

🗑

CREST is a syndrome ass’d with scleroderma which stands for

calsinosis, Raynaud phenom., esophageal hardening, sclerodactyly, talangiectasis

🗑

causative organism of acute rheumatic fever: ___ ___ and ___ ___ ___

B hemolytic, group A strep

🗑

cause of fibro myalgia syndrome

unknown

🗑

often found in systemic lupus erythematosus progressing to renal failure

glomerulonephritis

🗑

infectious arthritis causative organism: ___ ___

Staph Au

🗑

ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects vertebra and ___ joints

sacroiliac

🗑

Lyme disease initial Sx similar to ___

flu

🗑

arthritis manifestation in patients with IBD, referred to as enteropathic arthritis, ___ ___ and ___ ___

Ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease

🗑

what disease causes osteophyte spurs: ___

osteoarthritis

🗑

untreated septic/infectious arthritis may result in ___ of joint

ankylosis

🗑

RA can affect joints and ___ tissues

cardiac

🗑

Sx of SLE worsens with UV light: ___ ___ rash

butterfly facial

🗑

adult that had acute rheumatic fever as a child may need what surgery performed: ___ ___ replacement

mitral valve

🗑

scleroderma is a multi-system ___ disease

inflammatory

🗑

ankylosing spondylitis can be genetic, can decrease respiratory depth and is ___ mediated.

immune

🗑

neuropathic osteoarthopathy may develop secondary to ___ ___

🗑

Reactive arthritis AKA: ___ ___

Reiter Syndrome

🗑

Reiter syndrome may follow a/an ___ in men

STI

🗑

sebaceous glands stimulated by ___ hormones

androgenic

🗑

piloerection is stimulated by which nervous system

SNS

🗑

primary regulator of skin blood flow: ___ ___

body temperature

🗑

which nervous system stimulates sweating

SNS

🗑

flat, non-palpable spot, up to 1cm: ___

macule

🗑

palpable circumscribed bump less than 0.5cm: ___

papule

🗑

raised, palpable bump, 0.5-2cm: ___

nodule

🗑

elevated, pink edematous lesion: ___

wheal

🗑

small blister up to 0.5cm: ___

vesicle

🗑

elevated lesion containing purulent exudate: ___

pustule

🗑

lichenification is identified as epidural ___, and ___ patches

thickening, rough

🗑

T/F primary lesions retain original appearance, are unaffected by trauma or time

true

🗑

T/F HPV can invade deep into body tissues

false

🗑

T/F leprosy is highly infectious

false, not highly infectious

🗑

T/F allergic contact dermatitis is a delayed acquired hypersensitivity reaction

true

🗑

___ ___ presents as dandruff, cannot be cured but can be controlled

seborrheic dermatitis

🗑

both topical and systemic ___ may be used for sunburns, depending on severity

corticosteroids

🗑

dark-skinned people, petechiae may only be visible on the ___ ___, or ___

oral mucosa, conjunctiva

🗑

shingles caused by herpes ___, cold sores caused by herpes ___

varicella, simplex

🗑

ringworm is caused by a ___

fungus

🗑

impetigo caused by what organism: ___

staph

🗑

atopic dermatitis (eczema), cause: ___ reaction

allergic

🗑

scabies, r/t dirty people, true or false?

false

🗑

atopic dermatitis lesions, found in children, ___ areas

flexor (knee, elbow)

🗑

worst Px skin cancer, Dx of ___

melanoma

🗑

vitiligo best describes ___ patch of skin

depigmented

🗑

insulin injections, lipodystrophies, appear as smooth, large ___

depressions

🗑

excessive hair growth is called ___

Hirsuitism

🗑

spoon nails, deficiency of what: ___

iron

🗑

immunization not available for roseola, true or false?

true

🗑

pemphigus are NOT highly ___

contagious

🗑

major burn, covers ___ % of adult body

🗑

burn shock, massive ___ leakage and volume deficit

capillary

🗑

zone of burn injury, recovers within a week

hyperemia

🗑

___ degree burns can result in dehydration in children or elders

1st

🗑

3 symptoms of CO2 poisoning

headache, nausea, seizures

🗑

most common source of bacteria causing burn-wound infection

patients own body

🗑

severe burns, focused nutritional support is on consumption of

protein

🗑

greatest risk for infection following grafting burn wounds is the ___ day after surgery

3rd

🗑

pulse oximetry is inaccurate when a person is suffering from ___ poisoning

CO2

🗑

management of pain during burn wound treatment, use of ___

benzodiadepines

🗑

hyper-metabolism following a burn, due to release or large amounts of ___

catecholamine

🗑

sweat glands become ___ after a burn wound heals

hypersecretory

🗑

removal of necrotic burn tissue is called

debriement

🗑

4th degree burns are often caused by

electricity

🗑

edema resulting in airway obstruction not usually identified until 2-4 hours after a burn, true or false?

true

🗑

CO2 poisoning, preferentially binds to ___

hemoglobin

🗑

ARF may occur in burns where damaged muscle releases ___ into bloodstream, producing ___

myoglobin, rhabdomyolysis

🗑

burned skin is called

eschar

🗑

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