Rio BIO 202
Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in
each of the black spaces below before clicking
on it to display the answer.
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| Peptide hormones enter the target cells and elicit a response by mediating neurotransmitter effects. | False
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| All of the following hormones are secreted by the adenohypophysis: ACTH, FSH, LH | True
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| Direct gene activiation involves a second messenger system. | False
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| Many hormones synthesized in the gastrointestinal tract are chemically identical to brain neurotransmitters. | True
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| The thyroid gland is embedded in the parathyroid tissue. | False
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| The thyroid gland is a large gland that controls the metabolic functions throughout the life of an individual. | True
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| Peptide hormones enter the target cells and elicit a response by mediating neurotransmitter effects. | False
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| All peptide hormone synthesis require gene activiation that produces mRNA. | True
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| The release of hormones from the adenohypophysis is controlled by secretions of the | Hypothalamus
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| The anterior pituitary secretes all but | antidiuretic hormone
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| The ____ gland may influence our day/night cycles and even regulate the onset of sexual maturity. | Pineal
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| The largest pure endocrine gland in the body is the | thyroid
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| The _____ gland declines in size and function with age. | thymus
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| Peptide hormones enter the target cells and elicit a response by mediating neurotransmitter effects. | False
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| All of the following hormones are secreted by the adenohypophysis: ACTH, FSH, LH | True
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| Direct gene activiation involves a second messenger system. | False
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| Many hormones synthesized in the gastrointestinal tract are chemically identical to brain neurotransmitters. | True
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| The thyroid gland is embedded in the parathyroid tissue. | False
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| The thyroid gland is a large gland that controls the metabolic functions throughout the life of an individual. | True
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| Peptide hormones enter the target cells and elicit a response by mediating neurotransmitter effects. | False
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| All peptide hormone synthesis require gene activiation that produces mRNA. | True
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| The release of hormones from the adenohypophysis is controlled by secretions of the | Hypothalamus
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| The anterior pituitary secretes all but | antidiuretic hormone
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| The ____ gland may influence our day/night cycles and even regulate the onset of sexual maturity. | Pineal
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| The largest pure endocrine gland in the body is the | thyroid
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| The _____ gland declines in size and function with age. | thymus
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| Produces the hormones that promote the development of female secondary sex characteristics at puberty. | ovaries
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| Storehouse for the hormones produced by the hypothalamus of the brain. | posterior pituitary
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| Produces the hormones that direct the production of secondary sex characteristics in males. | testes
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| Produce steroid hormones and glucocorticoids and moneralcorticoids. | adrenal glands
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| Produces hormones and is considered a neuroendocrine organ. | hypothalamus
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| ACTH stimulates the adrenal medulla to release corticosteroid hormones. | False
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| The prime metabolic effect of cortisol is gluconeogenisis. | True
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| Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions. | True
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| Type II diabetes lacks insulin activity. | True
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| Aldosterone is the most potent mineralcorticoid produced but the least abundant. | False
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| Calcitonin is a peptide hormone that has destructive effects on the skeletal system. | False
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| The hormone that raises blood sugar levels is insulin. | False
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| Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effect through intracellular: | second messenger
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| What is NOT a principal class of hormones? | glycolipids
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| In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the target organ also known as _________. | Upregulation
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| _____ hormones are derived from cholesterol. | Cholesterol
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| Calcitonin has which of the following characteristics? | It helps maintain the homeostatis of calcium and phosphate in the blood.
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| Acromegally is the result of hypersecretion of growth hormones. | True
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| Which is NOT a function or characteristic of glucocorticoids? | They encourage connective tissue regeneration.
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| Catecolamines are produced by the chromaffin cells. | True
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| "Moon face," "buffalo hump" on the back, a hanging abdomen, and bruises easily are characteristics of the disorder known as | Cushing's syndrome
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| What blood type is the universal donor? | O
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| The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is: | hemoglobin F
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| The slowest step in the clotting process is | formation of prothrombin activator
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| What is a regulatory fuction of blood? | maintenance of normal pH in body tissues
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| Together, leukocytes and platelets comprise approximately ____ percent of total blood volume. | 1
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| As red blood cells age: | membranes "wear out" and cells become damaged
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| Place the following in correct developmental sequence: 1. reticulocyte 2. proerythrocyte 3. normoblast 4. late erythroblast | 2,4,3,1
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| What is not a phase of erythropoiesis? | increased tissue demand for oxygen
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| What is a regulatory function of blood? | delivery of oxygen to body cells
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| No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in: | monocytes
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| A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency in B12 and large, pale cells called macrocytes, is a characteristic of: | pernicious anemia
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| All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except: | low blood viscosity
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| What is not a phase in hemostasis? | fibrinolysis
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| The rarest leukocyte is ________. | basophil
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| A _____ is a committed granular leukocyte stem cell. | myeloblast
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| The universal recipient blood type is_____. | AB
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| Hemoglobin consists of _____ polypeptide chains. | four
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| The formed element ______ can kill paracitic worms. | eosinophil
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| _____ is an antiprostoglandin drug that inhibits thromboxaneA2 formation | asprin
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| When monocytes migrate to interstitial spaces, they are called ________. | macrophages
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| Prevents backflow into the left ventricle | Aortic semilunar valve
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| The lining of the heart | endocardium
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| Prevents backflow into the left atrium | mitral valve
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| AV valve with three flaps | tricuspid valve
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| AV valve with two flaps | mitral valve
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| Serous layer covering the heart muscle | epicardium
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| Prevents backflow into the ventricle | pulmonary semilunar valves
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| The outermost layer of the serous pericardium | parietal layer
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| Heart muscle | myocardium
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| Prevents backflow into the right atrium | tricuspid valve
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| The point in the conduction system of the heart where the impulse is temporarily delayed | AV node
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| Damage to the ____ node is referred as heart block | AV node
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| Found in the interventricular septum | AV bundle
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| Network found in the ventricular myocardium | Purkinje fibers
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| The pacemaker of the heart | SA node
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| The outermost layer of the serous pericardium is called the______layer. | parietal
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| The pacemaker of the heart is the _____node. | sinoatrial
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| The point in the conduction system where the impulse is temporarily delayed is the_____ node. | AV
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| Site where blood pressure is the greatest | large arteries
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| Site where exchanges of food and gases are made | capillaries
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| Site where blood pressure is the lowest | large veins
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| Site where velocity of blood flow is the slowest | capillaries
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| Site where blood volume is the greatest | large veins
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| Site where resistance to blood flow is the greatest | arterioles
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| Site that is the major determinant of peripheral resistance | arterioles
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| Site where velocity of blood flow is the fastest | large arteries
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| Supplies the kidneys | renal artery
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| Drains the scalp | external jugular vein
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| Supplies the distal area of the large intestine | common hepatic artery
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| Runs through the armpit | axillary artery
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| Supplies the pelvic structures | internal iliac artery
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| Carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs | pulmonary trunk
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| Artery that does not anastomose | renal artery
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| Largest artery of the body | aorta
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| Receives blood from all areas superior from the diaphragm, exept the heart wall | superior vena cava
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| Drains the upper extremities, deep vein | subclavian vein
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| Supplies the duodenum and stomach | common hepatic artery
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| Functions of the lymphatic system include: | transport of excess tissue fluid to the blood vascular system
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| Both lymph and venous blood flow are heavily dependent on: | skeletal muscle contractions and differences in thoracic pressure due to respiratory movement
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| The largest lymphatic vessels are called | ducts
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| Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph? | red blood cells
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| The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the: | lingual tonsils
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| Select the correct statement about lymphocytes. | B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies in the blood
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| A sentinel node is | the first node to receive lymph from an area suspected to be cancerous
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| Lymph collecting or pooling from the lower extremities would first pool in the _____before moving up. | cisterna chili
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| Particularly large cluster of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the: | lower extermities
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| The ____- are the simplest lymphoid organs and are found at the entrance of the pharynx | tonsils
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| The appendix, tonsils, and Peyer’s patches collectively are called _____. | MALT
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| Highly specialized lymph capillaries called _____ are present in the villi of the intestinal mucosa. | lacteals
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| The thoracic duct of the lymphatic system empties into the _____. | left subclavian vein
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| Lymph nodes have more_____ lymphatic vessels than ____ lymphatic vessels. | afferent; efferent
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| Of the organs in the lymphatic system, only the ____becomes less important as you get older. | thymus
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| Tonsils have blind-ended structure called______. | crypts
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| Lymphatic _____ are formed from the union of the largest collecting vessels. | trunks
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| Receives lymph from most of the body. | thoracic duct
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| Protein containing fluid within the lymphatic vessels. | lymph
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| Stores blood platelets. | spleen
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| Small organs intimately associated with lymphatic vessels. | lymph nodes
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| Isolated clusters of lymph follicles found in the wall of the small intestine. | peyer's patches
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| First line of defense | Skin and mucous membranes
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| Second line of defense | Inflammatory response
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| Third line of defense | Immune response
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| Nonspecific defense system | Inflammatory response and skin and mucous membranes
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| Specific defense system | Immune response
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| Area where B cells become immunocompetent. | bone marrow
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| Area where T cells become immunocompetent. | thymus
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| Area where activated immunocompetent B and t cells recirculate. | blood and lymph
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| Area seeded by immunocompetent B and T cells. | lymph nodes, spleen and other lymph tissues
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| Area where antigen challenge and clonal selection are most likely to occur. | lymph nodes, spleen and other lymph tissues
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| Which of the following is not a type of T cell? | antigenic
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| The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to the inflammatory site is called: | chemotaxis
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| B lymphocytes develop immunocopetence in the: | bone marrow
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| Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response? | replaces injured tissues with connective tissue
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| Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies? | composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains
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| Note three areas where lymph nodes are densely clustered. | axillary, cervical & inguinal
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| What name is given to the terminal duct draining most of the body? | thoracic duct
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| A hormone that regulates gamete production. | FSH
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| Steroids or amino acid-based molecules released into the blood, which arouse tissues. | Hormones
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| These produce testosterone. | Testes
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| Its primary function is to control the rate of body meta- bolism and cellular oxidation. | TH
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| Synthesize insulin. | Beta cells
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| Consists of two functional areas: the adenohypophysis and the neurohypophysis. | Pituitary gland
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| Controlled by the sympathetic nervous system and release epinephrine and norepinephrine. | Adrenal medulla
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| Regulates the endocrine activity of the cortex portion of the adrenal gland. | ACTH
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| One of the hormones that stimulates breast develop- ment and promotes and maintains lactation after child- birth. | Prolactin
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| A hormone produced in the adrenal cortex that enables the body to resist long term stress. | Glucocorticoid
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| Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of: | Cortisol
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| Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular: | Second messengers
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| Release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism | oxytocin
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| Sometimes prolonged excessive exposure to high hormone concentrations causes a phenomenon known as: | downregulation
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| The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because: | It is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release
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| Steroid hormones exert their action by: | Entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
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| The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by: | Binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP
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| Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to: | Steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily in to target cells
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| The major targets of growth hormone are: | Bones and skeletal muscles
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| Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP? | heart
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| Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to: | cortisol
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| The most important regulator of electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluids is: | Aldosterone
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| Which of the following does not act as a second messenger in second-messenger systems of hormone action? | Calmodulin
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| A correct statement about hormonal structure or function. | An amino acid derivative can be a hormone.
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| In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as: | Up-regulation
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| Which of the following organs is affected by thyroid hormone? | liver
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| Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference? | It does not require a second messenger to effect a response
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| Catecholamines and/or peptide hormones bind to receptors on the surface of cells that comprise target organs. This binding causes: | Adenylate cyclase to generate cyclic AMP from ATP.
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| Glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress. They accomplish this by: | Increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure
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| What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acid-base hormones? | calcium
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| Which test is used when anemia is suspected? | Hematocrit
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| Platelets are fragments of large multinucleated cells known as | Megakaryocytes
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| The major group of leukocytes that contain no observable cytoplasmic granules and are more abundant in lymphoid tissue and lymph. | Agranulocytes
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| An insoluable compound that forms a meshwork of strands that trap RBC's and is, therefore, considered the structural basis of clot formation. | Fibrin
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| Another name for the proteins in plasma known as agglutinins. | Antibodies
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| The ability of leukocytes to move in and out of blood vessels in order to reach sites of inflammation or tissue destruction. | Diapedesis
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| Nucleated cells that are formed in the bone marrow whose numbers average from 4,000 to 11,000 per uL of blood. | Leukocytes
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| Anucleocyte (without a nucleus) cells, when mature, whose numbers average 4.5 to 5.0 million per uL of blood. | Erythrocytes
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| What is the nonliving fluid matrix portion of blood? | Plasma
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| What is the technical name for a blood clot? | Thrombus
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| What type of tissue is blood? | Connective
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| How many liters of blood are contained in the circulatory system of the average adult? | 5.5L
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| What is the least common blood type in whites, blacks, and Asians? | AB
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| What is the technical term for the process of blood clot formation? | Coagulation
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| Whole blood is composed of plasma and | Formed elements
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| The largest of the leukocytes. | Monocytes
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| What is the smallest of the leukocytes? | Lymphocytes
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| After spinning, the bottom layer of the capillary tube containing cells is 20 mm and the top layer containing plasma is 30 mm. What is the patient’s hematocrit value? | 40
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| Also called reduced hemoglobin, this is the form of hemoglobin that results after oxygen diffuses into the blood. | Deoxyhemoglobin
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| This type of leukocyte is present in high amounts in the blood when a patient has a parasitic infection. | Eosinophil
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| James has a hemoglobin measurement of 16 g/100 ml blood. This is: | Within normal range
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| No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in: | Monocytes
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| correct developmental sequence: | proerythroblast, late erythroblast, normoblast, reticulocyte
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| The slowest step in the clotting process is: | Formation of prothrombin activator
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| A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of: | Pernicious anemia
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| Clot formation | formation of thromboplastin, prothrombin to thrombin, fibrinogen to fibrin, clot retraction
3.
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| red's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean? | There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
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| Which of the following is a precursor of a basophil? | Myeloblast
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| Sickling of red blood cells can be produced in those with sickle-cell anemia by: | Travel at high altitude and vigorous exercise
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| When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the child of an Rh negative mother? | If the father is Rh−
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| Alternating surges of pressure in an artery that occur with each contraction and relaxation of the left ventricle. | Pulse
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| Often referred to as the pacemaker of the heart because it sets the rate of depolarization for the heart as a whole. | Sinoatrial Node
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| This wave indicates depolarization of the atria just before atrial contraction. | P Wave
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| A heat rate over 100 bpm. | Tachycardia
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| As this pressure is released, characteristic sounds are heard, which indicate the resumption of blood to the forearm. What are these sounds called? | Sounds of Korotokoff
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| A double walled fibrous sac that encloses the heart. | Pericardium
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| The graphic recording of the electrical charges occurring during the cardiac cycle is called a/an ____________? | ECG
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| The apex of the heart is located at the ______________ and is in line with the middle region of the left clavicle. | 5th Intercostal Space
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| The length of a normal cardiac cycle. | 0.8 Sec.
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| One superficial pulse that may be readily palpated. | Common Carotid Arteries
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| The left atrioventricular valve. | Bicuspid valve
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| These arteries ascend through the lateral neck and at the superior border of the larynx and divide into two branches. | Common Carotid Arteries
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| Supplies the duodenum and the stomach. | Common hepatic artery
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| Site where exchanges of food and gases are made. | Capillaries
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| Carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs. | Pulmonary trunk
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| Longest vein in the body, superficial. | Great saphenous vein
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| Major artery of the thigh. | Femoral Artery
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| Supplies the small intestine. | Superior mesenteric artery
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| Artery usually palpated to take the blood pressure. | Brachial Artery
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| Carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs. | Pulmonary vein
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| Blood enters which of these vessels during ventricular systole? | Aorta and pulmonary arteries
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| The tricuspid valve is closed: | When the ventricle is in systole
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| The second heart sound is heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle? | Isovolumetric relaxation
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| Stenosis of the mitral valve may initially cause a pressure increase in the: | Pulmonary circulation
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| If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid: | Slow calcium channels in the pacemaker tissue would be cycling at a greater rate
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| Which of the following are involved directly in pulmonary circulation? | Right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium
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| Histologically, the _________ is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer. | Tunica intima (interna)
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| A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the: | Right side of the head and neck and right upper arm
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| Cerebral blood flow is regulated by: | Intrinsic autoregulatory mechanisms
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| A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes except: | Decreased size of the heart muscle
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