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A&P II Midterm

Rio BIO 202

QuestionAnswer
Peptide hormones enter the target cells and elicit a response by mediating neurotransmitter effects. False
All of the following hormones are secreted by the adenohypophysis: ACTH, FSH, LH True
Direct gene activiation involves a second messenger system. False
Many hormones synthesized in the gastrointestinal tract are chemically identical to brain neurotransmitters. True
The thyroid gland is embedded in the parathyroid tissue. False
The thyroid gland is a large gland that controls the metabolic functions throughout the life of an individual. True
Peptide hormones enter the target cells and elicit a response by mediating neurotransmitter effects. False
All peptide hormone synthesis require gene activiation that produces mRNA. True
The release of hormones from the adenohypophysis is controlled by secretions of the Hypothalamus
The anterior pituitary secretes all but antidiuretic hormone
The ____ gland may influence our day/night cycles and even regulate the onset of sexual maturity. Pineal
The largest pure endocrine gland in the body is the thyroid
The _____ gland declines in size and function with age. thymus
Peptide hormones enter the target cells and elicit a response by mediating neurotransmitter effects. False
All of the following hormones are secreted by the adenohypophysis: ACTH, FSH, LH True
Direct gene activiation involves a second messenger system. False
Many hormones synthesized in the gastrointestinal tract are chemically identical to brain neurotransmitters. True
The thyroid gland is embedded in the parathyroid tissue. False
The thyroid gland is a large gland that controls the metabolic functions throughout the life of an individual. True
Peptide hormones enter the target cells and elicit a response by mediating neurotransmitter effects. False
All peptide hormone synthesis require gene activiation that produces mRNA. True
The release of hormones from the adenohypophysis is controlled by secretions of the Hypothalamus
The anterior pituitary secretes all but antidiuretic hormone
The ____ gland may influence our day/night cycles and even regulate the onset of sexual maturity. Pineal
The largest pure endocrine gland in the body is the thyroid
The _____ gland declines in size and function with age. thymus
Produces the hormones that promote the development of female secondary sex characteristics at puberty. ovaries
Storehouse for the hormones produced by the hypothalamus of the brain. posterior pituitary
Produces the hormones that direct the production of secondary sex characteristics in males. testes
Produce steroid hormones and glucocorticoids and moneralcorticoids. adrenal glands
Produces hormones and is considered a neuroendocrine organ. hypothalamus
ACTH stimulates the adrenal medulla to release corticosteroid hormones. False
The prime metabolic effect of cortisol is gluconeogenisis. True
Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions. True
Type II diabetes lacks insulin activity. True
Aldosterone is the most potent mineralcorticoid produced but the least abundant. False
Calcitonin is a peptide hormone that has destructive effects on the skeletal system. False
The hormone that raises blood sugar levels is insulin. False
Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effect through intracellular: second messenger
What is NOT a principal class of hormones? glycolipids
In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the target organ also known as _________. Upregulation
_____ hormones are derived from cholesterol. Cholesterol
Calcitonin has which of the following characteristics? It helps maintain the homeostatis of calcium and phosphate in the blood.
Acromegally is the result of hypersecretion of growth hormones. True
Which is NOT a function or characteristic of glucocorticoids? They encourage connective tissue regeneration.
Catecolamines are produced by the chromaffin cells. True
"Moon face," "buffalo hump" on the back, a hanging abdomen, and bruises easily are characteristics of the disorder known as Cushing's syndrome
What blood type is the universal donor? O
The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is: hemoglobin F
The slowest step in the clotting process is formation of prothrombin activator
What is a regulatory fuction of blood? maintenance of normal pH in body tissues
Together, leukocytes and platelets comprise approximately ____ percent of total blood volume. 1
As red blood cells age: membranes "wear out" and cells become damaged
Place the following in correct developmental sequence: 1. reticulocyte 2. proerythrocyte 3. normoblast 4. late erythroblast 2,4,3,1
What is not a phase of erythropoiesis? increased tissue demand for oxygen
What is a regulatory function of blood? delivery of oxygen to body cells
No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in: monocytes
A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency in B12 and large, pale cells called macrocytes, is a characteristic of: pernicious anemia
All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except: low blood viscosity
What is not a phase in hemostasis? fibrinolysis
The rarest leukocyte is ________. basophil
A _____ is a committed granular leukocyte stem cell. myeloblast
The universal recipient blood type is_____. AB
Hemoglobin consists of _____ polypeptide chains. four
The formed element ______ can kill paracitic worms. eosinophil
_____ is an antiprostoglandin drug that inhibits thromboxaneA2 formation asprin
When monocytes migrate to interstitial spaces, they are called ________. macrophages
Prevents backflow into the left ventricle Aortic semilunar valve
The lining of the heart endocardium
Prevents backflow into the left atrium mitral valve
AV valve with three flaps tricuspid valve
AV valve with two flaps mitral valve
Serous layer covering the heart muscle epicardium
Prevents backflow into the ventricle pulmonary semilunar valves
The outermost layer of the serous pericardium parietal layer
Heart muscle myocardium
Prevents backflow into the right atrium tricuspid valve
The point in the conduction system of the heart where the impulse is temporarily delayed AV node
Damage to the ____ node is referred as heart block AV node
Found in the interventricular septum AV bundle
Network found in the ventricular myocardium Purkinje fibers
The pacemaker of the heart SA node
The outermost layer of the serous pericardium is called the______layer. parietal
The pacemaker of the heart is the _____node. sinoatrial
The point in the conduction system where the impulse is temporarily delayed is the_____ node. AV
Site where blood pressure is the greatest large arteries
Site where exchanges of food and gases are made capillaries
Site where blood pressure is the lowest large veins
Site where velocity of blood flow is the slowest capillaries
Site where blood volume is the greatest large veins
Site where resistance to blood flow is the greatest arterioles
Site that is the major determinant of peripheral resistance arterioles
Site where velocity of blood flow is the fastest large arteries
Supplies the kidneys renal artery
Drains the scalp external jugular vein
Supplies the distal area of the large intestine common hepatic artery
Runs through the armpit axillary artery
Supplies the pelvic structures internal iliac artery
Carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs pulmonary trunk
Artery that does not anastomose renal artery
Largest artery of the body aorta
Receives blood from all areas superior from the diaphragm, exept the heart wall superior vena cava
Drains the upper extremities, deep vein subclavian vein
Supplies the duodenum and stomach common hepatic artery
Functions of the lymphatic system include: transport of excess tissue fluid to the blood vascular system
Both lymph and venous blood flow are heavily dependent on: skeletal muscle contractions and differences in thoracic pressure due to respiratory movement
The largest lymphatic vessels are called ducts
Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph? red blood cells
The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the: lingual tonsils
Select the correct statement about lymphocytes. B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies in the blood
A sentinel node is the first node to receive lymph from an area suspected to be cancerous
Lymph collecting or pooling from the lower extremities would first pool in the _____before moving up. cisterna chili
Particularly large cluster of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the: lower extermities
The ____- are the simplest lymphoid organs and are found at the entrance of the pharynx tonsils
The appendix, tonsils, and Peyer’s patches collectively are called _____. MALT
Highly specialized lymph capillaries called _____ are present in the villi of the intestinal mucosa. lacteals
The thoracic duct of the lymphatic system empties into the _____. left subclavian vein
Lymph nodes have more_____ lymphatic vessels than ____ lymphatic vessels. afferent; efferent
Of the organs in the lymphatic system, only the ____becomes less important as you get older. thymus
Tonsils have blind-ended structure called______. crypts
Lymphatic _____ are formed from the union of the largest collecting vessels. trunks
Receives lymph from most of the body. thoracic duct
Protein containing fluid within the lymphatic vessels. lymph
Stores blood platelets. spleen
Small organs intimately associated with lymphatic vessels. lymph nodes
Isolated clusters of lymph follicles found in the wall of the small intestine. peyer's patches
First line of defense Skin and mucous membranes
Second line of defense Inflammatory response
Third line of defense Immune response
Nonspecific defense system Inflammatory response and skin and mucous membranes
Specific defense system Immune response
Area where B cells become immunocompetent. bone marrow
Area where T cells become immunocompetent. thymus
Area where activated immunocompetent B and t cells recirculate. blood and lymph
Area seeded by immunocompetent B and T cells. lymph nodes, spleen and other lymph tissues
Area where antigen challenge and clonal selection are most likely to occur. lymph nodes, spleen and other lymph tissues
Which of the following is not a type of T cell? antigenic
The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to the inflammatory site is called: chemotaxis
B lymphocytes develop immunocopetence in the: bone marrow
Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response? replaces injured tissues with connective tissue
Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies? composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains
Note three areas where lymph nodes are densely clustered. axillary, cervical & inguinal
What name is given to the terminal duct draining most of the body? thoracic duct
A hormone that regulates gamete production. FSH
Steroids or amino acid-based molecules released into the blood, which arouse tissues. Hormones
These produce testosterone. Testes
Its primary function is to control the rate of body meta- bolism and cellular oxidation. TH
Synthesize insulin. Beta cells
Consists of two functional areas: the adenohypophysis and the neurohypophysis. Pituitary gland
Controlled by the sympathetic nervous system and release epinephrine and norepinephrine. Adrenal medulla
Regulates the endocrine activity of the cortex portion of the adrenal gland. ACTH
One of the hormones that stimulates breast develop- ment and promotes and maintains lactation after child- birth. Prolactin
A hormone produced in the adrenal cortex that enables the body to resist long term stress. Glucocorticoid
Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of: Cortisol
Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular: Second messengers
Release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism oxytocin
Sometimes prolonged excessive exposure to high hormone concentrations causes a phenomenon known as: downregulation
The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because: It is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release
Steroid hormones exert their action by: Entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by: Binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP
Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to: Steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily in to target cells
The major targets of growth hormone are: Bones and skeletal muscles
Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP? heart
Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to: cortisol
The most important regulator of electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluids is: Aldosterone
Which of the following does not act as a second messenger in second-messenger systems of hormone action? Calmodulin
A correct statement about hormonal structure or function. An amino acid derivative can be a hormone.
In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as: Up-regulation
Which of the following organs is affected by thyroid hormone? liver
Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference? It does not require a second messenger to effect a response
Catecholamines and/or peptide hormones bind to receptors on the surface of cells that comprise target organs. This binding causes: Adenylate cyclase to generate cyclic AMP from ATP.
Glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress. They accomplish this by: Increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure
What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acid-base hormones? calcium
Which test is used when anemia is suspected? Hematocrit
Platelets are fragments of large multinucleated cells known as Megakaryocytes
The major group of leukocytes that contain no observable cytoplasmic granules and are more abundant in lymphoid tissue and lymph. Agranulocytes
An insoluable compound that forms a meshwork of strands that trap RBC's and is, therefore, considered the structural basis of clot formation. Fibrin
Another name for the proteins in plasma known as agglutinins. Antibodies
The ability of leukocytes to move in and out of blood vessels in order to reach sites of inflammation or tissue destruction. Diapedesis
Nucleated cells that are formed in the bone marrow whose numbers average from 4,000 to 11,000 per uL of blood. Leukocytes
Anucleocyte (without a nucleus) cells, when mature, whose numbers average 4.5 to 5.0 million per uL of blood. Erythrocytes
What is the nonliving fluid matrix portion of blood? Plasma
What is the technical name for a blood clot? Thrombus
What type of tissue is blood? Connective
How many liters of blood are contained in the circulatory system of the average adult? 5.5L
What is the least common blood type in whites, blacks, and Asians? AB
What is the technical term for the process of blood clot formation? Coagulation
Whole blood is composed of plasma and Formed elements
The largest of the leukocytes. Monocytes
What is the smallest of the leukocytes? Lymphocytes
After spinning, the bottom layer of the capillary tube containing cells is 20 mm and the top layer containing plasma is 30 mm. What is the patient’s hematocrit value? 40
Also called reduced hemoglobin, this is the form of hemoglobin that results after oxygen diffuses into the blood. Deoxyhemoglobin
This type of leukocyte is present in high amounts in the blood when a patient has a parasitic infection. Eosinophil
James has a hemoglobin measurement of 16 g/100 ml blood. This is: Within normal range
No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in: Monocytes
correct developmental sequence: proerythroblast, late erythroblast, normoblast, reticulocyte
The slowest step in the clotting process is: Formation of prothrombin activator
A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of: Pernicious anemia
Clot formation formation of thromboplastin, prothrombin to thrombin, fibrinogen to fibrin, clot retraction 3.
red's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean? There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
Which of the following is a precursor of a basophil? Myeloblast
Sickling of red blood cells can be produced in those with sickle-cell anemia by: Travel at high altitude and vigorous exercise
When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the child of an Rh negative mother? If the father is Rh−
Alternating surges of pressure in an artery that occur with each contraction and relaxation of the left ventricle. Pulse
Often referred to as the pacemaker of the heart because it sets the rate of depolarization for the heart as a whole. Sinoatrial Node
This wave indicates depolarization of the atria just before atrial contraction. P Wave
A heat rate over 100 bpm. Tachycardia
As this pressure is released, characteristic sounds are heard, which indicate the resumption of blood to the forearm. What are these sounds called? Sounds of Korotokoff
A double walled fibrous sac that encloses the heart. Pericardium
The graphic recording of the electrical charges occurring during the cardiac cycle is called a/an ____________? ECG
The apex of the heart is located at the ______________ and is in line with the middle region of the left clavicle. 5th Intercostal Space
The length of a normal cardiac cycle. 0.8 Sec.
One superficial pulse that may be readily palpated. Common Carotid Arteries
The left atrioventricular valve. Bicuspid valve
These arteries ascend through the lateral neck and at the superior border of the larynx and divide into two branches. Common Carotid Arteries
Supplies the duodenum and the stomach. Common hepatic artery
Site where exchanges of food and gases are made. Capillaries
Carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs. Pulmonary trunk
Longest vein in the body, superficial. Great saphenous vein
Major artery of the thigh. Femoral Artery
Supplies the small intestine. Superior mesenteric artery
Artery usually palpated to take the blood pressure. Brachial Artery
Carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs. Pulmonary vein
Blood enters which of these vessels during ventricular systole? Aorta and pulmonary arteries
The tricuspid valve is closed: When the ventricle is in systole
The second heart sound is heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle? Isovolumetric relaxation
Stenosis of the mitral valve may initially cause a pressure increase in the: Pulmonary circulation
If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid: Slow calcium channels in the pacemaker tissue would be cycling at a greater rate
Which of the following are involved directly in pulmonary circulation? Right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium
Histologically, the _________ is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer. Tunica intima (interna)
A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the: Right side of the head and neck and right upper arm
Cerebral blood flow is regulated by: Intrinsic autoregulatory mechanisms
A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes except: Decreased size of the heart muscle
Created by: mpugliese on 2010-03-12



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