WVSOM: Skin System
Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in
each of the black spaces below before clicking
on it to display the answer.
Help!
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| Pityriasis Versicolor is associated with which organism | Mallassezia furfur
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| Tinea Nigra's organism | Exophilia Werneckii
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| Balck pierdra's organism | Piedriaia Hortae
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| White pierdras organism | Trichosporon beigelli
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| Trichphyton rubrum, trichophyton mentagrophytes, and Epidermophyton are all associated with which TWO infections | Tinea Pedis (athletes foot) and Tinea Cruris (jock itch)
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| Trichophyton concentricum | Tinea Imbricata
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| Trichphyton rubrum, trichophyton mentagrphytes and microsporum canis | Tinea Corporis
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| Trichophyton verrucosum and Trichophyton mentagrophytes | Tinea Barbae
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| Trichophyton rubrum, Trichophyton mentagrophytes, candida, and Fusiarium | Tinea Ungium
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| Spagehetti and meatballs | Pityriasis Versicolor
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| Copper Penny Sores | Chromoblastomycosis
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| Wart like, califlower pigemented lesions | Chromoblastomycosis
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| Fonsecaea sp., Cladosporium sp., ad Phialophora sp | Chromoblastomycosis
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| Asteroid Bodies | Sporotrichosis
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| Sporothrix Schenckii | Sporotrichosis
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| Which disease can lead to bone destruction over a period of months to years | Mycetoma
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| Pseudoallescheria Boydi and Madurella mycetomatis | Mycetoma
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| What does Pityrasis veriscolor use for food | sebum
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| An individual presents with patchy colored skin after a really bad suburn, which disease is this | Pityrasis Versicolor
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| Cradle Cap and Dandruff are a result of the overgrowth of what | Mallesezia
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| brown/black macular lesions usually on hands and/or feet. May resemble melanoma. Non-scaling, non- inflammatory | tinea nigra
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| Do dermatophytoses consume keratin | yes
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| Moccasin Pattern on the bottom of the foot | Tinea Pedis
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| ulcerative papule, spreads via draining lymph channels, nodular granulomas, chronic | sporotrichosis
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| Small, painless papules and nodules, sinustract formation leads to spread, deeper tissue infiltration | Mycetoma
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| ectothrix and endothrix refer to what? | Tinea Capatis, where the infection is inside or outside of the hair shaft
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| In tinea capatis, is the hair loss that occurs permanent | no
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| True or False: the Ids associated with the dermatophytes have fungus in them | False
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| True or False: THe Copper Penny SOres seen in Chromoblastomycosis have fungus in them | True
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| What is it that the body is reacting against in a insect sting | protiens
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| IS a reaction in the skin always seen during anaphylaxis | Nope
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| Are upper or lower respiratory problems more serious during anaphylaxis | lower
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| What is criterion 1 for anaphylaxis | Skin and/or muscous irritation with AT LEAST either circulation problems or respiratory problems
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| What is Criterion 2 for anaphylaxis | 2 or more problems in: Skin, GI, Heart, or Lungs
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| What is Criterion 3 for anaphylaxis | Reduced BP after exposure to a KNOWN allergen
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| RAST test is used to look at allergies pertaing to which type of allergens | food allergens
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| Where is epi usually given | thigh
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| What other drug can you use in conjuction with epi for anaphylaxis | Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
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| If a patient is sufferinf from anaphylaxis and is on a B-blocker what might you consider giving them | glucagon
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| What is the main difference between Anaphylaxis and Anaphylactoid Reaction | Anaphylactoid reaction can occur WITHOUT previous exposure to the allergen and IS NOT IgE mediated
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| True or False: The treatment for anaphylaxis and anaphylactiod reaction are the same | true
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| Applying suction, ice and a tourniquet to a snake wound is a good idea? | Nope, not good at all
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| which type of crons usually form on TOP of the toes | hard
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| What is the treatment of corns | removal of the cause (shoes, habits, etc..)
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| What is caused by hyperkeratosis, has poorly demarkated borders and results from a constant friction rub | Callus
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| Plantar warts are caused by which virus | HPV
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| What is a paronychia | bacterial infection of the proximal or lateral nail fold WITH abcess formation
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| What defines a simple subungal hematoma | Intact nail and nail margins
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| What defines a complex subungal hematoma | fracture, nail base dislocation, tissue loss or lacertation
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| Which candida caaounts for about 50% of infections | candida albicans
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| Which two candida species are commonly resistant to antifungals | Candida krusei and candida Galbrata
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| INertigo, balanitis, paronychia, and diaper rash are all associated with what | Candida effects or manifestations
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| Candida, among a few other infections, is a prime indicator of paients with which other disease | HIV
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| While candida most effects the immune compromised, lack of which cell types in the immune system predispose someone to candida | nuetrophils and macrophages
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| Long term corticosteroids, HIV, diabetes, and longterm broadspectrum antibiotics are all risk factors for? | Candida
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| Which candida species is found on about 20% of healthcare workers | parapsilosis
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| what is the #1 opportunistic infection in hosptials | candida
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| What are the 5 pathogenic factors asssociated with candida | Adherance, dimorphism, protienases, phospholipases, and phenotypic switching
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| MOST common presentation of Candida | Diaper Rash
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| Why is oral thrush due to Candida seen in the infant and geriatric population | lack of immune system
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| what percentage of women develop vaginitis during their lives | 70%
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| Is seeing candida in a women a definite diagostic finding of infection | NO, part of normal fauna in 15-20%
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| If you have vaginitis with a pH above 4.5 what type of infection do you suspect? Below 4.5? | Bacteria, fungusNOT a clear line, can have mixed infections
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| Vaginitis with a yeast smell, dry/red appearance and curdy discharge is probably due to what | Candida Albicans
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| Vaginitis with a fishy smell and grey white discharge is most likely due to which organism | Garnerella Vaginalis
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| Vaginitis with a frothy discharge, greenish-yellow in color and foul smell is due to what organism | Trichomonas vaginalis
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| Systemic candida ONLY occurs with a predisposition and the candida causing the infection comes from where | GI tract
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| tzank smear is used to look for which viruses | Herpes
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| ds DNA, icosahedral, enveloped, intrannuclear inclusion bodies and MULTINUCLEATED GIANT CELLS are all properties of which viruses | Herpes
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| Is Simplex Virus Type 1 nuerotropic or lymphtropic | nuerotropic
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| Herpangina (local blisters inside the mouth and in the back of the throat is indicative of which disease | gingivostomatitis
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| Herpes labialis is common reffered to as | cold sores
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| Where does herpes labialis usually become latent | trigeminal ganglion
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| This disease is commonly caused by rubbing the mouth and then the eyes and can cause blindness due to scarring of the cornea | keratoconjuntivitis
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| A disease which commonly occurs around pre-existing eczema or dermatits and occurs later in life | Eczema herpeticum
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| Meningoencephalitis is commonly associated with which type of herpes? Enchephalitis | Type 2, Type 1
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| Herpes Gladiatorum is most commonly seen in which sport | wrestling
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| Herpatic whitlow is most commonlu seen in which profession | healthcare workers
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| Caused by drugs and has a bulls eye appearance | Erythema Multiform
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| Varicella Roster is commonly known as what? Recurrent form? Nuerotropic or lymphotropic? | Chicken POx. Shingles. Nuerotropic
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| where is replication of varicella roster done | liver or other organs
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| A lymphotropic virus, linked to rosiola virus, febrile seizures, encephalitis and hemophagocytic syndrome | Type 6
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| Karposii's sarcoma is associated with which virus | Type 8 Herpes (lymphotropic)
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| Orf and Milkers Nodule are forms of which herpes virus | Molluscum Contagiosum
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| What is the primary action of antiviral treatment and preventions | Inhibit DNA polymerase
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| What is the vaccine for chickenpox | TFT - for occular use or Varifax (live attenuated)
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| VariZIG is what | varicella-zoster immungolbin given to neonates that are immunocompromised
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| Can the smallpox virus be given after an infection | yes, up to 4 day after intial infection
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| Why do you use a "scrtach injection" for small pox vaccine | it cannot grow in deep tissue
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| which bacteria is a gram positive, carries out B-hemolysis, and slightly yellow in color | staph
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| Is staph a facultative anerobe | yes, yes it is
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| Which staph strain has coagulase | aueus
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| Which staph strain is white and susceptible to novobiocin | epidermidis
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| which staph infection is responsible for 5-10% of UTI infections in females | saprophyticus
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| Which staph strain commonly infects joint replacements and has a very sticky outter coat | Epidermidis
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| A diagnostic tool for deep seated staff infections is antibodies against? | Teichoic Acids
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| What role does the capsule paly for staph | antiphagocytic
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| What role does Protien A play for staph | anti-opsin effects (found in cell wall. Also finds to the Fc region preventing T-cells from binding
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| What does catalase do | breaks down H2O2 into water and oxygen
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| What does Beta-lactamase do | breaks down penecillin
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| Hemolysins are seen in which bacteria | staph
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| Luekocidin is a enzyme found in which bacteria and does does what | Staph, associated with panto valentine and kills WBC's
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| What purpose do enterotoxins serve | resist gut pH (found in staph strains and common in food poisoning)
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| Which disease is MOST commonly associated with Hep A, but also can be caused by Staph | Impetigo
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| Endocarditis, particularily acute and on the valves is associated with which organism | staph
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| Toxic shock syndrome and scalded skin syndrome is associated with which organism | Staph
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| How must staph enter the body | CANNOT penetrate skin, must come in through an open wound, cut, abrasion, etc...
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| Which drug is used to treat minor staph infections | tetracycline
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| Which drugs are used for staph that is resistant to penecillin | Methicillin, Naficillin, and Oxacillin
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| Which is more common, Community acquired methicillin resistant staph or Hosptial acuquired | Community acquired, thought that community acquired made its way into hospitals
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| USA3000 is what? | Methicillin resistant, "community acquired" staph that has a pantovalentine characteristic.
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| How do you treat USA3000 | trimethoprim/sulfoxazole
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| What is the mechanism to methecillin resistant staph | target modification
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| What is used for the treatment of Hospital acquried staph | vancomycin
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| How will streptococci appear in a stain culture | gram negative cocci in CHAINS
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| How do streptococci grow | ferment sugars, no AEROBIC growth, NOT facultative, AEROTOLERANT
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| What do scientist use to clasify the different strains of strep | C-carbohydrate
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| What type of hemolysis does S. pyogenes carry out | Beta
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| What type os hemolysis does S. agalactiae carry out | Beta
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| What role does the capsule have for S. pyogenes | resist phagocytosis
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| What role do T and R protiens play in S. pyogenes | used for identification and MAY play a role in virulence
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| What is streptokinase | Virulence factor of S. Pyogenes, acts on Fibrin to prevent clots
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| What is streptodornase | Virulence factor for S. Pyogenes, acts to break down DNA
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| What is Erythrogenic toxin | responsible for causing scarlet fever in S. pyogenes infections
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| Describe the two streptolysins (hemolysins) | Type 0 - oxygen labile, antigenicType S - oxygen stabile, non-antigenic
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| In a S. pyogenes infection, what causes most of the tissue damage | Inflammatory response
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| What is scarlet fever caused by | erythrogenic toxin produced by lysogenic Group A strep
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| The classic "strawberry tounge" is indicative of what infection | scarlet fever (Group A strep, only able to get this once)
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| What is the MOST common cause of impetigo | Strep (S. Pyogenes)
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| Short term strep (Group A, S. pyogenes) skin infections can cause what disease in a chronic or post-infection state | glomerunonephritis
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| Upper respiratory Strep infections can lead to what in a chronic or post-disease state | Rhuematic Fever
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| Mothers are commonly found to be carrying this type of strep | Strep B, S. agalactiae
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| As soon as sepsis is mentioned, which disease do you think | Strep
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| What is the number one cause of Otitis media | Strep. pneumoniae
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| What is the number one cause of subacute endocarditis | Viridans Strep or alpha strep
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| Group D strep (enterococcus) is known to cause what type of infections | UTI
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| Which drug is the most effective and cheapest option for treating strep infections | Penecillin
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| A bacteria that is a non-fermenter, oxidase positive, grows at 42 C, pigmented green, and has a fuity odor associated with is... | Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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| Having Pili, a capsule, Endotoxin, exotoxin A, and Tissue necrosis are all virulence factors of which bacteria | Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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| Patient presents with Ecthyma gangrenosum, which bacteria is responsible | Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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| Which bacteria commonly colonize on respirators and requires changing of the tubes | Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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| Otitis externa is commonly associated with which bacteria | Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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| Which bacteria is commonly seen in American soliders who served in Iraq | Acinetobacter baumanii(this is commonly drug resistant)
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| Dry areas are typically colonized by what type of bacteria | gram positive cocci (aerobic and anaerobic)
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| Moist areas are typically colonized by which type of bacteria | gram negative rods
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| In a bedridden patient, which type of bacteria would you expect to see an increase of | gram negative rods
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| Cellulitis and Early necrotizing fasciitis are both caused by what bacteria | strep pyogenes
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| Folliculitis is is caused by which organism | staph or psuedomonas aeruginosa
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| Hemorrhagic Cellulitis caused by the consumption of raw seafood is caused by which organism | Vibrio Vulnificus
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| Which organism is responsible for "cat scratch fever" | Bartenealla henselae (gram negative aerobe)
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| Most common cause of burns for children 3-14 | flame burns
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| Most common cause of burns for ages 15-60 | industrial accidents
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| Most common cause of burns for age 60+ | accidents
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| Average water loss before and after a burn | 15ml/m2/hr and 200ml/m2/hr
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| In what time frame does the most waer loss occur | 24 hours
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| When do cappillaries get back in order after a burn | 48 hours
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| Describe a 1st degree burn | dry, minimal edema, ability to keep bacteria out is still intactCaused by gas burn or BREIF contact with hot stuff
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| Describe a 2nd degree burn | blisters, redness, moist, painful and edema Caused by flash heat and contatc with hot sutff
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| Describe a 3rd degree burn | dry, white/charred, leathery, almost PAINLESSCaused by flame burn or contact with hot stuff
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| At what percetage of a 2nd degree burn do you NOT apply a cool compress. Transfer to burn unit? | 10%, at which point you also bring to a hospital. 20%
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| Where does history fall into the burn assessment | Secondary survey
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| What shoudl be done for anyone suspected of CO poisoning | given 100% pure oxygen
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| At what percentage of bidy area for a 3rd degree burn do you hospitalize the patient? Burn unit? | 2% and 5%
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| When CO levels are above 10%, what do you automatically do with the patient | tranfer to burn unit
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| What structures do electrical burns travel on | vessels and nerves
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| Which is worse, alkali or acid | alkali (flush for 8hrs vs 30min)
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| erythema infectiosum is also known as? What is it caused by? | fifths disease or slapped cheek disease or gloves and socks syndrome. Caused by parovirus
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| What does parovirus use in order to attach to precursor cells | P-antigens
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| A disease in which circulating RBC's are coated with virus which causes them to phagocytosed | Hemophagocytic syndrome
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| Rash, arthritis and arthralgia in a parovirus infection are all caused by what | soluble immune complexes
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| When does gloves and socks and syndrome occur in relation to a parovirus infection | Prior to an immune response
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| Gloves and Socks syndrome is an actual infection of what cells | endothelial cells
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| In Erthythema Infectiosum, what come first, the Rash or the fever | fever
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| Why is Hydrops fetalis worse if it happens between weeks 11 and 23 of development | because this coincides with the development of the fetal circulatory system
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| What is needed in order for a transient aplastic crisis to occur | predispostion to poor RBC production
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| BK papillomavirus is associated with what imparticular | virus is involved in kidney transplants
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| E6 papillomavirus is associated with mutations in what gene | p53 (inhibiting apoptosis)
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| E7 papillomavirus is associated with mutations in which gene | Rb(cell replication inhibition)
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| Which type of warts have the highest carcinogenesis probability | Bowenoid
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| Where do flat warts usually occur | on the face
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| HIGHEST malignacy are seen in which type of warts | condylomas (mucocutaneous)
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| Which layer of the skin does the receptor for papillomavirus lie | basal layer
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| What stage is the papillomavirus in when the basal layer of the skin starts to replicate and move outwards | Prickle Stage
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| What are KOILOCYTES a buzz word for | Papillomavirus associated cellular inculsions and vaculesAlso cervical dysplasia
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| What are the four strains of papillomavirus used in HPV vaccine | 6 and 8 (cause genital warts, low malignancy)16 and 18 (highest malignancy)
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| Which two cytokines do keratinocytes produce in an inflammatory response | IL-1 and TNF
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| Can keratinocytes produce class II MHC's | yes
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| IN which disease do you have seperation of the dermis from the epidermis | Bullous Pemphigoid
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| In which disease do you have intraepidermal acanthoylysis | Pemphigus
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| Which bullous skin disease is IgG mediated with a increase in Eosinophils | Bullous Pemphigoid
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| Which bullous skin disease has a strong association to HLA-DRB1*0402 | Pemphigus
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| Pemphigus is potentiallly fatal due to the occurance of what taking place | sepsis of infection
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| Bullous skin disease with high association to IgA | Dermatitis herpetiformis
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| Bullous skin disease with high association to celiac disease (gluten-sensitivity enteropathy) | dermatitis herpetiformis
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| What is the Koebner phenomenon | A person who is prone to psoriasis and has a flare up due to trauma
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| What is a Positive Auspitz sign | a drop of blood forms after peeling off a scale
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| A chronic/reoccuring skin disease, SHARP borders, symetrical, with glossy homogenous erythema, and silvery scales | psoriasis
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| True or False: psoriasis is a T-cell mediated process | true
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| True of False: Newborns have an increase reponse to thermal changes | false
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| What is canosis of the hands and feet of newborns called, and what causes it | Acrocyanosis cuased by increase peripheral arterial tone
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| Net-like, reddish-blue mottling of the skin in a newborn during chilling, which resolves when re-warmed | Cutis Marmorata (can be a sign of sepsis)
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| This film over a babies body is refered to as what. What does this usually resolve to | Ichthyosis, resolves to scales
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| Sores, present ar birth on the fingers or thumbs are most likely attributed to | In-utero sucking
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| Sweat gland obstruction in a newborn leads to which disease | Miliaria
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| Which form of miliaria occurs at flexure areas or areas of occulsion | Miliaria Rubra (pricky heat)
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| You have a newborn that presents with tiny whitish-yellow papules containing kertin all over its cheeks, forehead and nose, what are these called | milia
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| What is the main diagnostic feature identifed in Erythema Toxicum Neonatorium | high amounts of eosinophils
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| What is the main diagnostic feature identified in Transient Neonatal Pustular Melanosis | Nuetorphils (also pigmented macules with a scale)
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| Seborrhetic dermatitis is often refered to as what is newborns? what is thought to cause this | cradle cap, cause by fungal growth
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| Consisting of mature dialated dermal capillaries and representing a permanent defect, this disorder in newborns is usually found on the head and neck region | Port Wine stain
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| Flat grayish-blue macules found in the lumbosaccral area and more prevelant in african americans or asians | Mongolian spots
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| true or false: mongolian spots are usually associated with malignancies | false
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| Usually flat, these tan macules or papules are found at birth and prsent in various sizes with ability to become malignant | congenital nevi
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| What is the MOST common benign tumor of infancy | Herpangiomas
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| What is the difference between a superfical and deep herpangioma | color. Superficial = red Deep = blue
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| PHACE syndrome deals with what... | Herpangiomas that can cuase other problems
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| A rapidly enlarging herpangioma that cuases various blood and coagulation problems like thrombocytonpenia, hemolytic anemia and coagulopathy is refered to as what | Kasabach-Merritt syndrome
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| What is Stuge-Weber syndrome | port-wine syndrome over the opthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve
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| Port-wine syndrome closely associated with local overgrowth of soft tissue and bone found in lower extremeities | Kilppel Trenauney Weber syndrome
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| TORCH syndrome stands for... | Toxoplasmosis, Other (syphilis), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes
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| Hydrocephalis, Chorioretinitis and Intracerebral Calcifiaction | toxoplasmosis
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| Early syphylis is seen in what time frame | under 2 years from birth
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| Perioral fissure and scarring, lymphadenopathy, rhinitis, OSTEOCHODRRITIS and maculopapular lesions on the palms and sole are all seen in... | syphylis
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| Hutchinson teeth, mulberry molars, Sabre shin, and Saddle nose deformity are all seen in what | Late syphylis
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| Classical triad of cataracts, deafness and heart malformations | rubella
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| Blueberry muffin rash | rubella
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| Respiatory defects, Hepatits, and DIC with focal sizures | Herpes as a result of TORCH syndrome
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| Cough, Coryza, and conjunctivitis | Measles
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| Which early childhood disease has a prodrome of a HIGH FEVER | measles
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| "rose-pink" macules that progress from a head to toe fashion | rubella
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| When is parovirus most likely to be seen (seasonally) | winter or spring
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| 3-5 days of high fever that progresses to a rash that moves FROM THE TRUNK TO THE EXTREMITIES | Roseoloa
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| A rash that occurs with "dew drops on a rose pedal" and lesiosn at varying stages is... | Varicella Zoster (chicken pox)
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| What is the coxsackie virus associated with | Hand-foot-mouth disease
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| Greywhite vesicular lesions on the hands and feet, with macular eruption on the buttocks | Hand-foot-mouth disease
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| Which vesiculobullbous disease has NO prodrome | Erythema multiform
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| Lesions on lower extremeties and buttocks, with normal platlets, and edema and/or hemmorage of the bowel wall as a result of vasculitis | Henoch Scholien syndrome
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| A patient presents with appearant serum sickness but lacks vasculitis, renal disease and hypocomplimentemia, what do they have | Serum sickness like reaction
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| Bilateral NON-exudative conjunctivitis | kawasaki syndrome
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| A prolonged or unexplained fever of 5 days or more should make you think of... | Kawasaki syndrome
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| CRASH and BURN stands for what and refers to which disease | Conjunctivits, Rash, Adenopathy, Strawberry tounge and Hand/feet with FEVER are all signs of Kawasaki disease
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| Cardiac Sequele represent the most severe form of which disease | Kawasakie syndrome
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