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Skin System

WVSOM: Skin System

Pityriasis Versicolor is associated with which organism Mallassezia furfur
Tinea Nigra's organism Exophilia Werneckii
Balck pierdra's organism Piedriaia Hortae
White pierdras organism Trichosporon beigelli
Trichphyton rubrum, trichophyton mentagrophytes, and Epidermophyton are all associated with which TWO infections Tinea Pedis (athletes foot) and Tinea Cruris (jock itch)
Trichophyton concentricum Tinea Imbricata
Trichphyton rubrum, trichophyton mentagrphytes and microsporum canis Tinea Corporis
Trichophyton verrucosum and Trichophyton mentagrophytes Tinea Barbae
Trichophyton rubrum, Trichophyton mentagrophytes, candida, and Fusiarium Tinea Ungium
Spagehetti and meatballs Pityriasis Versicolor
Copper Penny Sores Chromoblastomycosis
Wart like, califlower pigemented lesions Chromoblastomycosis
Fonsecaea sp., Cladosporium sp., ad Phialophora sp Chromoblastomycosis
Asteroid Bodies Sporotrichosis
Sporothrix Schenckii Sporotrichosis
Which disease can lead to bone destruction over a period of months to years Mycetoma
Pseudoallescheria Boydi and Madurella mycetomatis Mycetoma
What does Pityrasis veriscolor use for food sebum
An individual presents with patchy colored skin after a really bad suburn, which disease is this Pityrasis Versicolor
Cradle Cap and Dandruff are a result of the overgrowth of what Mallesezia
brown/black macular lesions usually on hands and/or feet. May resemble melanoma. Non-scaling, non- inflammatory tinea nigra
Do dermatophytoses consume keratin yes
Moccasin Pattern on the bottom of the foot Tinea Pedis
ulcerative papule, spreads via draining lymph channels, nodular granulomas, chronic sporotrichosis
Small, painless papules and nodules, sinustract formation leads to spread, deeper tissue infiltration Mycetoma
ectothrix and endothrix refer to what? Tinea Capatis, where the infection is inside or outside of the hair shaft
In tinea capatis, is the hair loss that occurs permanent no
True or False: the Ids associated with the dermatophytes have fungus in them False
True or False: THe Copper Penny SOres seen in Chromoblastomycosis have fungus in them True
What is it that the body is reacting against in a insect sting protiens
IS a reaction in the skin always seen during anaphylaxis Nope
Are upper or lower respiratory problems more serious during anaphylaxis lower
What is criterion 1 for anaphylaxis Skin and/or muscous irritation with AT LEAST either circulation problems or respiratory problems
What is Criterion 2 for anaphylaxis 2 or more problems in: Skin, GI, Heart, or Lungs
What is Criterion 3 for anaphylaxis Reduced BP after exposure to a KNOWN allergen
RAST test is used to look at allergies pertaing to which type of allergens food allergens
Where is epi usually given thigh
What other drug can you use in conjuction with epi for anaphylaxis Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
If a patient is sufferinf from anaphylaxis and is on a B-blocker what might you consider giving them glucagon
What is the main difference between Anaphylaxis and Anaphylactoid Reaction Anaphylactoid reaction can occur WITHOUT previous exposure to the allergen and IS NOT IgE mediated
True or False: The treatment for anaphylaxis and anaphylactiod reaction are the same true
Applying suction, ice and a tourniquet to a snake wound is a good idea? Nope, not good at all
which type of crons usually form on TOP of the toes hard
What is the treatment of corns removal of the cause (shoes, habits, etc..)
What is caused by hyperkeratosis, has poorly demarkated borders and results from a constant friction rub Callus
Plantar warts are caused by which virus HPV
What is a paronychia bacterial infection of the proximal or lateral nail fold WITH abcess formation
What defines a simple subungal hematoma Intact nail and nail margins
What defines a complex subungal hematoma fracture, nail base dislocation, tissue loss or lacertation
Which candida caaounts for about 50% of infections candida albicans
Which two candida species are commonly resistant to antifungals Candida krusei and candida Galbrata
INertigo, balanitis, paronychia, and diaper rash are all associated with what Candida effects or manifestations
Candida, among a few other infections, is a prime indicator of paients with which other disease HIV
While candida most effects the immune compromised, lack of which cell types in the immune system predispose someone to candida nuetrophils and macrophages
Long term corticosteroids, HIV, diabetes, and longterm broadspectrum antibiotics are all risk factors for? Candida
Which candida species is found on about 20% of healthcare workers parapsilosis
what is the #1 opportunistic infection in hosptials candida
What are the 5 pathogenic factors asssociated with candida Adherance, dimorphism, protienases, phospholipases, and phenotypic switching
MOST common presentation of Candida Diaper Rash
Why is oral thrush due to Candida seen in the infant and geriatric population lack of immune system
what percentage of women develop vaginitis during their lives 70%
Is seeing candida in a women a definite diagostic finding of infection NO, part of normal fauna in 15-20%
If you have vaginitis with a pH above 4.5 what type of infection do you suspect? Below 4.5? Bacteria, fungusNOT a clear line, can have mixed infections
Vaginitis with a yeast smell, dry/red appearance and curdy discharge is probably due to what Candida Albicans
Vaginitis with a fishy smell and grey white discharge is most likely due to which organism Garnerella Vaginalis
Vaginitis with a frothy discharge, greenish-yellow in color and foul smell is due to what organism Trichomonas vaginalis
Systemic candida ONLY occurs with a predisposition and the candida causing the infection comes from where GI tract
tzank smear is used to look for which viruses Herpes
ds DNA, icosahedral, enveloped, intrannuclear inclusion bodies and MULTINUCLEATED GIANT CELLS are all properties of which viruses Herpes
Is Simplex Virus Type 1 nuerotropic or lymphtropic nuerotropic
Herpangina (local blisters inside the mouth and in the back of the throat is indicative of which disease gingivostomatitis
Herpes labialis is common reffered to as cold sores
Where does herpes labialis usually become latent trigeminal ganglion
This disease is commonly caused by rubbing the mouth and then the eyes and can cause blindness due to scarring of the cornea keratoconjuntivitis
A disease which commonly occurs around pre-existing eczema or dermatits and occurs later in life Eczema herpeticum
Meningoencephalitis is commonly associated with which type of herpes? Enchephalitis Type 2, Type 1
Herpes Gladiatorum is most commonly seen in which sport wrestling
Herpatic whitlow is most commonlu seen in which profession healthcare workers
Caused by drugs and has a bulls eye appearance Erythema Multiform
Varicella Roster is commonly known as what? Recurrent form? Nuerotropic or lymphotropic? Chicken POx. Shingles. Nuerotropic
where is replication of varicella roster done liver or other organs
A lymphotropic virus, linked to rosiola virus, febrile seizures, encephalitis and hemophagocytic syndrome Type 6
Karposii's sarcoma is associated with which virus Type 8 Herpes (lymphotropic)
Orf and Milkers Nodule are forms of which herpes virus Molluscum Contagiosum
What is the primary action of antiviral treatment and preventions Inhibit DNA polymerase
What is the vaccine for chickenpox TFT - for occular use or Varifax (live attenuated)
VariZIG is what varicella-zoster immungolbin given to neonates that are immunocompromised
Can the smallpox virus be given after an infection yes, up to 4 day after intial infection
Why do you use a "scrtach injection" for small pox vaccine it cannot grow in deep tissue
which bacteria is a gram positive, carries out B-hemolysis, and slightly yellow in color staph
Is staph a facultative anerobe yes, yes it is
Which staph strain has coagulase aueus
Which staph strain is white and susceptible to novobiocin epidermidis
which staph infection is responsible for 5-10% of UTI infections in females saprophyticus
Which staph strain commonly infects joint replacements and has a very sticky outter coat Epidermidis
A diagnostic tool for deep seated staff infections is antibodies against? Teichoic Acids
What role does the capsule paly for staph antiphagocytic
What role does Protien A play for staph anti-opsin effects (found in cell wall. Also finds to the Fc region preventing T-cells from binding
What does catalase do breaks down H2O2 into water and oxygen
What does Beta-lactamase do breaks down penecillin
Hemolysins are seen in which bacteria staph
Luekocidin is a enzyme found in which bacteria and does does what Staph, associated with panto valentine and kills WBC's
What purpose do enterotoxins serve resist gut pH (found in staph strains and common in food poisoning)
Which disease is MOST commonly associated with Hep A, but also can be caused by Staph Impetigo
Endocarditis, particularily acute and on the valves is associated with which organism staph
Toxic shock syndrome and scalded skin syndrome is associated with which organism Staph
How must staph enter the body CANNOT penetrate skin, must come in through an open wound, cut, abrasion, etc...
Which drug is used to treat minor staph infections tetracycline
Which drugs are used for staph that is resistant to penecillin Methicillin, Naficillin, and Oxacillin
Which is more common, Community acquired methicillin resistant staph or Hosptial acuquired Community acquired, thought that community acquired made its way into hospitals
USA3000 is what? Methicillin resistant, "community acquired" staph that has a pantovalentine characteristic.
How do you treat USA3000 trimethoprim/sulfoxazole
What is the mechanism to methecillin resistant staph target modification
What is used for the treatment of Hospital acquried staph vancomycin
How will streptococci appear in a stain culture gram negative cocci in CHAINS
How do streptococci grow ferment sugars, no AEROBIC growth, NOT facultative, AEROTOLERANT
What do scientist use to clasify the different strains of strep C-carbohydrate
What type of hemolysis does S. pyogenes carry out Beta
What type os hemolysis does S. agalactiae carry out Beta
What role does the capsule have for S. pyogenes resist phagocytosis
What role do T and R protiens play in S. pyogenes used for identification and MAY play a role in virulence
What is streptokinase Virulence factor of S. Pyogenes, acts on Fibrin to prevent clots
What is streptodornase Virulence factor for S. Pyogenes, acts to break down DNA
What is Erythrogenic toxin responsible for causing scarlet fever in S. pyogenes infections
Describe the two streptolysins (hemolysins) Type 0 - oxygen labile, antigenicType S - oxygen stabile, non-antigenic
In a S. pyogenes infection, what causes most of the tissue damage Inflammatory response
What is scarlet fever caused by erythrogenic toxin produced by lysogenic Group A strep
The classic "strawberry tounge" is indicative of what infection scarlet fever (Group A strep, only able to get this once)
What is the MOST common cause of impetigo Strep (S. Pyogenes)
Short term strep (Group A, S. pyogenes) skin infections can cause what disease in a chronic or post-infection state glomerunonephritis
Upper respiratory Strep infections can lead to what in a chronic or post-disease state Rhuematic Fever
Mothers are commonly found to be carrying this type of strep Strep B, S. agalactiae
As soon as sepsis is mentioned, which disease do you think Strep
What is the number one cause of Otitis media Strep. pneumoniae
What is the number one cause of subacute endocarditis Viridans Strep or alpha strep
Group D strep (enterococcus) is known to cause what type of infections UTI
Which drug is the most effective and cheapest option for treating strep infections Penecillin
A bacteria that is a non-fermenter, oxidase positive, grows at 42 C, pigmented green, and has a fuity odor associated with is... Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Having Pili, a capsule, Endotoxin, exotoxin A, and Tissue necrosis are all virulence factors of which bacteria Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Patient presents with Ecthyma gangrenosum, which bacteria is responsible Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Which bacteria commonly colonize on respirators and requires changing of the tubes Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Otitis externa is commonly associated with which bacteria Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Which bacteria is commonly seen in American soliders who served in Iraq Acinetobacter baumanii(this is commonly drug resistant)
Dry areas are typically colonized by what type of bacteria gram positive cocci (aerobic and anaerobic)
Moist areas are typically colonized by which type of bacteria gram negative rods
In a bedridden patient, which type of bacteria would you expect to see an increase of gram negative rods
Cellulitis and Early necrotizing fasciitis are both caused by what bacteria strep pyogenes
Folliculitis is is caused by which organism staph or psuedomonas aeruginosa
Hemorrhagic Cellulitis caused by the consumption of raw seafood is caused by which organism Vibrio Vulnificus
Which organism is responsible for "cat scratch fever" Bartenealla henselae (gram negative aerobe)
Most common cause of burns for children 3-14 flame burns
Most common cause of burns for ages 15-60 industrial accidents
Most common cause of burns for age 60+ accidents
Average water loss before and after a burn 15ml/m2/hr and 200ml/m2/hr
In what time frame does the most waer loss occur 24 hours
When do cappillaries get back in order after a burn 48 hours
Describe a 1st degree burn dry, minimal edema, ability to keep bacteria out is still intactCaused by gas burn or BREIF contact with hot stuff
Describe a 2nd degree burn blisters, redness, moist, painful and edema Caused by flash heat and contatc with hot sutff
Describe a 3rd degree burn dry, white/charred, leathery, almost PAINLESSCaused by flame burn or contact with hot stuff
At what percetage of a 2nd degree burn do you NOT apply a cool compress. Transfer to burn unit? 10%, at which point you also bring to a hospital. 20%
Where does history fall into the burn assessment Secondary survey
What shoudl be done for anyone suspected of CO poisoning given 100% pure oxygen
At what percentage of bidy area for a 3rd degree burn do you hospitalize the patient? Burn unit? 2% and 5%
When CO levels are above 10%, what do you automatically do with the patient tranfer to burn unit
What structures do electrical burns travel on vessels and nerves
Which is worse, alkali or acid alkali (flush for 8hrs vs 30min)
erythema infectiosum is also known as? What is it caused by? fifths disease or slapped cheek disease or gloves and socks syndrome. Caused by parovirus
What does parovirus use in order to attach to precursor cells P-antigens
A disease in which circulating RBC's are coated with virus which causes them to phagocytosed Hemophagocytic syndrome
Rash, arthritis and arthralgia in a parovirus infection are all caused by what soluble immune complexes
When does gloves and socks and syndrome occur in relation to a parovirus infection Prior to an immune response
Gloves and Socks syndrome is an actual infection of what cells endothelial cells
In Erthythema Infectiosum, what come first, the Rash or the fever fever
Why is Hydrops fetalis worse if it happens between weeks 11 and 23 of development because this coincides with the development of the fetal circulatory system
What is needed in order for a transient aplastic crisis to occur predispostion to poor RBC production
BK papillomavirus is associated with what imparticular virus is involved in kidney transplants
E6 papillomavirus is associated with mutations in what gene p53 (inhibiting apoptosis)
E7 papillomavirus is associated with mutations in which gene Rb(cell replication inhibition)
Which type of warts have the highest carcinogenesis probability Bowenoid
Where do flat warts usually occur on the face
HIGHEST malignacy are seen in which type of warts condylomas (mucocutaneous)
Which layer of the skin does the receptor for papillomavirus lie basal layer
What stage is the papillomavirus in when the basal layer of the skin starts to replicate and move outwards Prickle Stage
What are KOILOCYTES a buzz word for Papillomavirus associated cellular inculsions and vaculesAlso cervical dysplasia
What are the four strains of papillomavirus used in HPV vaccine 6 and 8 (cause genital warts, low malignancy)16 and 18 (highest malignancy)
Which two cytokines do keratinocytes produce in an inflammatory response IL-1 and TNF
Can keratinocytes produce class II MHC's yes
IN which disease do you have seperation of the dermis from the epidermis Bullous Pemphigoid
In which disease do you have intraepidermal acanthoylysis Pemphigus
Which bullous skin disease is IgG mediated with a increase in Eosinophils Bullous Pemphigoid
Which bullous skin disease has a strong association to HLA-DRB1*0402 Pemphigus
Pemphigus is potentiallly fatal due to the occurance of what taking place sepsis of infection
Bullous skin disease with high association to IgA Dermatitis herpetiformis
Bullous skin disease with high association to celiac disease (gluten-sensitivity enteropathy) dermatitis herpetiformis
What is the Koebner phenomenon A person who is prone to psoriasis and has a flare up due to trauma
What is a Positive Auspitz sign a drop of blood forms after peeling off a scale
A chronic/reoccuring skin disease, SHARP borders, symetrical, with glossy homogenous erythema, and silvery scales psoriasis
True or False: psoriasis is a T-cell mediated process true
True of False: Newborns have an increase reponse to thermal changes false
What is canosis of the hands and feet of newborns called, and what causes it Acrocyanosis cuased by increase peripheral arterial tone
Net-like, reddish-blue mottling of the skin in a newborn during chilling, which resolves when re-warmed Cutis Marmorata (can be a sign of sepsis)
This film over a babies body is refered to as what. What does this usually resolve to Ichthyosis, resolves to scales
Sores, present ar birth on the fingers or thumbs are most likely attributed to In-utero sucking
Sweat gland obstruction in a newborn leads to which disease Miliaria
Which form of miliaria occurs at flexure areas or areas of occulsion Miliaria Rubra (pricky heat)
You have a newborn that presents with tiny whitish-yellow papules containing kertin all over its cheeks, forehead and nose, what are these called milia
What is the main diagnostic feature identifed in Erythema Toxicum Neonatorium high amounts of eosinophils
What is the main diagnostic feature identified in Transient Neonatal Pustular Melanosis Nuetorphils (also pigmented macules with a scale)
Seborrhetic dermatitis is often refered to as what is newborns? what is thought to cause this cradle cap, cause by fungal growth
Consisting of mature dialated dermal capillaries and representing a permanent defect, this disorder in newborns is usually found on the head and neck region Port Wine stain
Flat grayish-blue macules found in the lumbosaccral area and more prevelant in african americans or asians Mongolian spots
true or false: mongolian spots are usually associated with malignancies false
Usually flat, these tan macules or papules are found at birth and prsent in various sizes with ability to become malignant congenital nevi
What is the MOST common benign tumor of infancy Herpangiomas
What is the difference between a superfical and deep herpangioma color. Superficial = red Deep = blue
PHACE syndrome deals with what... Herpangiomas that can cuase other problems
A rapidly enlarging herpangioma that cuases various blood and coagulation problems like thrombocytonpenia, hemolytic anemia and coagulopathy is refered to as what Kasabach-Merritt syndrome
What is Stuge-Weber syndrome port-wine syndrome over the opthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve
Port-wine syndrome closely associated with local overgrowth of soft tissue and bone found in lower extremeities Kilppel Trenauney Weber syndrome
TORCH syndrome stands for... Toxoplasmosis, Other (syphilis), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes
Hydrocephalis, Chorioretinitis and Intracerebral Calcifiaction toxoplasmosis
Early syphylis is seen in what time frame under 2 years from birth
Perioral fissure and scarring, lymphadenopathy, rhinitis, OSTEOCHODRRITIS and maculopapular lesions on the palms and sole are all seen in... syphylis
Hutchinson teeth, mulberry molars, Sabre shin, and Saddle nose deformity are all seen in what Late syphylis
Classical triad of cataracts, deafness and heart malformations rubella
Blueberry muffin rash rubella
Respiatory defects, Hepatits, and DIC with focal sizures Herpes as a result of TORCH syndrome
Cough, Coryza, and conjunctivitis Measles
Which early childhood disease has a prodrome of a HIGH FEVER measles
"rose-pink" macules that progress from a head to toe fashion rubella
When is parovirus most likely to be seen (seasonally) winter or spring
3-5 days of high fever that progresses to a rash that moves FROM THE TRUNK TO THE EXTREMITIES Roseoloa
A rash that occurs with "dew drops on a rose pedal" and lesiosn at varying stages is... Varicella Zoster (chicken pox)
What is the coxsackie virus associated with Hand-foot-mouth disease
Greywhite vesicular lesions on the hands and feet, with macular eruption on the buttocks Hand-foot-mouth disease
Which vesiculobullbous disease has NO prodrome Erythema multiform
Lesions on lower extremeties and buttocks, with normal platlets, and edema and/or hemmorage of the bowel wall as a result of vasculitis Henoch Scholien syndrome
A patient presents with appearant serum sickness but lacks vasculitis, renal disease and hypocomplimentemia, what do they have Serum sickness like reaction
Bilateral NON-exudative conjunctivitis kawasaki syndrome
A prolonged or unexplained fever of 5 days or more should make you think of... Kawasaki syndrome
CRASH and BURN stands for what and refers to which disease Conjunctivits, Rash, Adenopathy, Strawberry tounge and Hand/feet with FEVER are all signs of Kawasaki disease
Cardiac Sequele represent the most severe form of which disease Kawasakie syndrome
Created by: lowryc