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BSC 216 Test #3

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Question
Answer
Which of the following is an organ of the alimentary canal?   esophagus  
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What separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity?   hard palate and soft palate  
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What is the main job of the pharynx?   propulsion  
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What region of the stomach does food first enters after its passage through the relaxed gastroesophageal sphincter?   cardia  
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Chief cells release:   pepsinogen  
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What is the final segment of the small intestine?   ileum  
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Which modification of the small intestine creates a brush border appearance upon microscopic examination?   microvilli  
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Peristaltic contractions that propel the contents of the colon toward the distal large intestine are:   mass movements.  
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What can we consciously control about the defecation reflex?   relaxation of the external anal sphincter  
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What cells compose the liver lobules?   hepatocytes  
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Which of the following does NOT transport bile?   accessory pancreatic duct  
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What enzyme catalyzes reactions that initiate carbohydrate digestion?   salivary amylase  
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Absorption is best described as the:   movement of food particles through the wall of the alimentary canal.  
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Damaged hepatocytes will impair:   bile production.  
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Cherise is lactose-intolerant because she produces insufficient amounts of an enzyme called:   lactase.  
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What is the first process to occur in the digestive system?   ingestion  
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Splanchnic circulation involves the blood supply that feeds and drains:   abdominal digestive organs.  
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The digestive system is regulated by the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems.   True  
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What creates the mesentery?   visceral peritoneum  
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The crown of a tooth is covered by:   enamel  
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Carbohydrate digestion begins in the:   mouth  
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What is released by the enteroendocrine cells of the gastric glands?   gastrin  
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Which hormone increases acid secretion by the stomach?   gastrin  
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The stomach differs anatomically from other organs of the alimentary canal because it has an additional oblique layer of muscularis externa for churning.   True  
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What is released by the enteroendocrine cells of the gastric glands? Which hormone increases acid secretion by the stomach?   gastrin  
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The stomach differs anatomically from other organs of the alimentary canal because it has an additional oblique layer of muscularis externa for churning.   True  
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At the splenic flexure, the colon becomes the:   descending colon.  
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The final process to occur in the alimentary canal is:   defecation.  
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The internal anal sphincter is controlled involuntarily while the external anal sphincter is controlled voluntarily.   True  
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What is responsible for the emulsification of lipids in the duodenum?   bile  
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What best exemplifies enzymatic hydrolysis?   nutrient breakdown  
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Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction of lactose into glucose and galactose?   lactase  
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Emulsification requires:   bile salts  
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In which organ is chyme mixed with pancreatic juice and bile?   duodenum  
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Which organ functions to absorb significant quantities of water, electrolytes, and vitamins?   large intestine  
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The breakdown of carbohydrates into glucose in the body is classified as:   catabolism.  
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Substances that lose electrons are said to be:   oxidized  
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Electron transfer reactions are termed oxidation-____ reactions.   reduction  
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Which of the following is NOT true of glycolysis?   Four molecules of NADH are spent.  
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What molecule is both the starting compound and end result of the citric acid cycle?   oxaloacetate  
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What part of a triglyceride undergoes β-oxidation?   fatty acids  
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The release of urea in the urine is a mechanism for the body to rid itself of:   ammonia  
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What molecule cannot be used for gluconeogenesis?   fatty acid  
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The total amount of energy expended by the body to power all of its processes is called:   the metabolic rate.  
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What part of the brain is involved in thermoregulation?   hypothalamus  
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How are vitamins classified?   micronutrients  
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Select the two factors upon which body mass index depends.   height and weight  
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A mutation has damaged the formation of oxaloacetate. What process will be impaired?   citric acid cycle  
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Under normal conditions, where should we expect to see most urea?   urine  
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Which of the following is NOT a nutrient monomer used by the body to generate ATP?   nucleic acids  
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What process involves the donation of a phosphate group from ATP to a reactant to “pay” for a cellular process?   phosphorylation  
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Reactions in which smaller molecules are combined to make a larger molecule are known as anabolic reactions.   true  
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What is NOT required for glycolysis to occur?   What is NOT required for glycolysis to occur?  
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How many net ATP are produced as a result of glycolysis?   2 ATP  
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Carbon dioxide is formed during the electron transport chain (ETC).   False  
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Which of the following results from the lipolysis of a triglyceride?   glycerol and fatty acids  
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From which of the following are ketone bodies assembled during ketogenesis?   acetyl-CoA  
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What two products can be generated from the transamination of an amino acid?   a carbon skeleton and the amino acid glutamate  
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The process of storing glucose as glycogen is known as:   glycogenesis  
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The majority of the body's energy is stored as:   triglycerides.  
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The synthesis of fatty acids is known as lipolysis.   False  
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Which hormone stimulates the uptake of glucose by cells, lowering the concentration of glucose in the blood?   insulin  
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Feeding centers are located in the:   hypothalamus  
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Feeding occurs during the absorptive state.   False  
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Heat is exchanged between the body and the environment by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT:   precipitation  
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Thermoregulation involves a steady core body temperature near:   37.5 °C (99.5 °F)  
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Calorimetry is used to measure the basal metabolic rate (BMR).   true  
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Fruits, honey, candy, and juices are dietary sources of:   monosaccharides and disaccharides.  
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Which statement is true regarding complete proteins?   Complete proteins provide all of the essential amino acids.  
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Which of these vitamins is water-soluble?   vitamin C  
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The indentation on the medial surface of the kidney is the __________.   hilum  
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The functional units of the kidneys are __________.   nephrons  
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Urine drains from a major calyx into __________.   the renal pelvis  
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Where does blood in the arcuate artery travel next on its journey toward the glomerulus?   interlobular (cortical radiate) artery  
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The portion of the renal tubule through which filtrate initially flows is known as the __________.   proximal tubule  
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What should NOT be found in filtrate?   albumin  
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The glomerular filtration rate is defined as __________.   the amount of filtrate formed by both kidneys in one minute  
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The myogenic mechanism acts to restore glomerular filtration rate (GFR) by changing __________.   vessel diameter  
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What will NOT stimulate the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)?   an increase in systemic blood pressure  
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Sympathetic stimulation of the kidney can do all of the following, EXCEPT __________.   increase the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)  
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Reabsorption of filtered glucose from the filtrate into the cells of the proximal tubule is by __________.   secondary active transport  
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Substances used to measure renal clearance should be __________.   filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted  
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What effect does high blood pressure have on the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in the absence of regulatory mechanisms?   GFR will increase.  
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A drug that inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) may lead to __________.   decreased blood pressure  
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Dilute urine is more likely to be produced when __________.   the collecting duct is impermeable to water  
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Urine is transported from kidney to the urinary bladder by the __________.   ureter  
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What is NOT a major function of the kidneys?   hematopoiesis  
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Erythropoietin is produced by the kidneys to __________.   regulate red blood cell production by the bone marrow  
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In which kidney region are the renal pyramids located?   renal medulla  
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What are the two main subdivisions of the nephron?   renal corpuscle and renal tubule  
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The process of filtration occurs at the __________.   renal corpuscle  
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Which statement best describes the function of tubular reabsorption?   Tubular reabsorption reclaims items from filtrate and returns them to the blood.  
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Filtrate and whole blood contain identical constituents.   False  
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What is the normal value for the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in mL/min?   125  
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Glomerular colloid osmotic pressure (GCOP) is created by __________.   proteins such as albumin in the blood  
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What is net filtration pressure (NFP) in the glomerular capillaries, in mm Hg?   10  
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Which of the following is an effect of angiotensin-II (A-II)?   A-II promotes thirst.  
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The reabsorption of bicarbonate ions in the proximal tubule helps regulate __________.   blood pH  
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Which hormones promote facultative water reabsorption?   aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)  
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The majority of sodium ions are reclaimed through sodium ion leak channels in the proximal tubule.   true  
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How much urine, in liters, is typically produced in a 24 hour period?   1.8  
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What does the countercurrent mechanism accomplish in the nephron loop?   creation of a steep concentration gradient for continued water reabsorption  
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The juxtamedullary apparatus acts as a special vascular system called the countercurrent exchanger.   False  
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Countercurrent multiplication and exchange occurs in the __________.   nephron loop and vasa recta  
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Where does ADH promote water reabsorption?   medullary collecting duct  
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Each of the following is typical of urine EXCEPT __________.   a pH of 3.0  
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Renal clearance is defined as __________.   the rate at which the kidneys remove a substance from the blood  
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What is renal clearance used to estimate?   glomerular filtration rate (GFR)  
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The trigone of the urinary bladder is created by __________.   the openings to the two ureteral orifices and the internal urethral orifice  
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What initiates the micturition reflex?   Stretch receptors in the wall of the urinary bladder signal the sacral region of the spinal cord.  
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Voluntary neural control is necessary for __________.   relaxation of the external urethral sphincter  
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