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final MLT

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Question
Answer
dCE/dce – what is the Rh type for a person with this genotype?   Rh (-)  
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Interpret the reaction – Anti-D tube was 1+ and the Rh control tube is neg. RH (+), RH (-) OR FURTHER TESTING   RH (+)  
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WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF TRANSFUSION REACTIONS?   CLERICAL ERRORS  
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HOW LONG IS A CROSSMATCH GOOD FOR? 3 DAYS 7 DAYS OR 5 DAYS   3 DAYS  
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HOW MUCH DOES 1 UNT OF BLOOD INCREASE A PATIENT'S HGB? 1 G/DL, 2 G/DL OR 3 G/DL   1 G/DL  
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CAN A 75 YR OLD MAN DONATE BLOOD?   YES AS LONG AS HE MEETS CRITERIA AND HAS A DOCTORS NOTE  
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IF THERE IS A PATIENT THAT IS B(-) AND SUFFERS A MISCARRIAGE SHOULD THIS PATIENT STILL REC'V A SHOT OF RHOGAM?   YES only if she doesn't have anti-D from a prevous pregnancy  
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WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF AHG?   TO DETECT IgG ANTIBODIES  
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WHAT GOES IN THE TUBE FOR A MAJOR CROSSMATCH?   PATIENT PLASMA (SERUM) AND DONOR CELLS  
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WHAT ARE SOME REASONS FOR A FALSE POSITIVE DAT   o Medications – methyldopa o Bacterial contamination of test cells. o Septicemia of patient. o Dirty glassware  
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WHEN SHOULD A PREGNANT WOMAN RECEIVE RHOGAM?   IF SHE S RH (-)., FIRST PREGNANCY AND rH (+)BABY  
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If a patient has a genotype of dce/dce and they receive blood from a person with genotype Dce/Dce. What type of antibody would the patient produce? Anti-c Anti-e Anti-d None of the above   NONE OF THE ABOVE  
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What type of test demonstrates in vivo sensitization of red cells?   DAT (direct antiglobulin test)  
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If the Rh control tube has a positive reaction can you report out results?   NO  
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What blood group demonstrates a resistance to malaria   DUFFY  
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What is a cause for a permanent deferral from blood donation?   HISTORY OF JAUNDICE OF UNCERTAIN CAUSE  
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CHEMISTRY   CHEMISTRY  
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PURPOSE OF GLUCAGON   HORMONE WHICH DECREASED LEVEL OF BLOOD SUGAR  
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DEFINE ELECTROPHORESIS   THE MOVEMENT OF CHARGED PARTICLES N AN ELECTRICAL FIELD TO EFFECT SEPARATION OF THE PARTICLES  
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WHAT IS THE LARGEST PROTEIN FRACTION?   ALBUMIN  
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DEFINE FIRST ORDER KINETICS   THE CHANGE IN ABSORBANCE IS MONITORED DURING  
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WHAT CATION HAS THE LARGEST CONCENTRATION IN BLOOD?   SODIUM  
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WHAT TEST WOULD BE ORDERED IF A MYOCARDIAL INFARCTON S SUSPECTED? AST TROPONIN CPK/CK LDH/LD ALL OF THE ABOVE   ALL OF THE ABOVE  
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PRECENT OF THE POPULATION THAT IS =/- 2SD FROM THE MEAN?   95%  
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DEFINE ACCURACY   THE CLOSENESS OF A TEST RESULT TO THE TRUE VALUE  
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- Serum amylase is elevated in diseases that affect what organ?   PANCREAS  
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WHAT TWO TESTS ARE APPROPRIATE FOR PROSTATE CANCER DETECTION?   PSA, ACP (ACID PHOSPHATASE)  
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WHAT DOES TIBC MEASURE?   MEASURES THE SERUM IRON TRANSPORTING BINDING CAPACITY OF TRANSFERRIN  
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What is the main function of albumin?   Maintain osmotic pressure  
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When the 95% confidence limits are applied to analysis of a group of 20 persons, how many of those normal persons can be expected to have a result outside the normal range? 2-3-1-5   1  
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Define Glycolysis   The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate  
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Coagulation   Coagulation  
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What plays the role in the initial plug in the wall of an injured blood vessel?   platelets  
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Precursor of thrombin   prothrombin  
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What is the end result of coag testing?   clot detection  
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during fibrinolysis, plasmin is responsible for degrading what?   Fibrin  
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factor VII is part of which coag test.... PT, aPTT, OR D-DIMER   PT  
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HEPARIN IS MONITORED BY WHAT COAG TEST   aPTT  
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COUMADIN/WARFARIN IS MONITORED BY WHAT COAG TEST?   PT/INR  
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CLASSIC HEMOPHILIA IS THE RESULT OF ADEFICIENCY IN WHAT FACTOR?   VIII  
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WHAT TEST IS USED TO DETECT FIBRINOLYSIS?   FDP OR FSP  
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FIBRIN IS CONVERTED INTO FIBRIN BY...   THROMBIN  
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Fibrin split products and activated coagulation factors are removed from the blood by…   RES/MPS system  
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itamin K factors are in what group? Prothrombin Contact Fibrinogen   Prothrombin  
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Define fibrinolysis   removal of fibrin formed in the body  
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Hematology   Hematology  
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The cell of the granulocytic series that is characterized by a bean or kidney-bean shaped nucleus is the…   metamyelocyte  
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Auer rods occur in…   Myelogenous leukemia  
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The white blood cell change most characteristic of pernicious anemia is…   Hypersegmentation  
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WHAT TYPE OF CELL IS SEEN IN MULTIPLE MYELOMA?   PLASMA CELL  
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DEFINE LEUKEMIA   UNCONTROLLED AND ABNORMAL PROLIFERATION OF HEMATOPOIETIC CELLS  
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WHAT ARE SIDEROCYTES   RBC'S THAT CONTAIN IRON GRANULES  
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NAME 3 REASONS A PERSON MAY HAVE A MACROCYTIC ANEMIA....   B12 deficiency Folate deficiency D. latum or fish tapeworm infestation  
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What cell is seen in a person suffering from Mono?   Reactive lymphocytes  
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The immediate precursor of the diffusely basophilic or polychromatic RBC is the…   Orthochromatic normoblast  
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Chronic blood loss can lead to…   Iron deficiency  
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What is a spherocyte?   The RBC that lacks a central pallor and is uniformly filled with hemoglobin  
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Define pancytopenia   Depression of all blood cell elements  
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Define Anisocytosis   Size variation of RBCs  
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Define poikilocytosis   Shape variation of RBCs  
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Define leukopoeisis   Normal WBC formation  
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What does hematocrit measure?   Packed red cell volume  
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What are the characteristics of plasma cell?   deep blue cytoplasm eccentric nucleus perinuclear halo  
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The characteristic cell in acute lymphocytic leukemia is the…   lymphoblast  
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The plasma protein that binds free hemoglobin during conditions of intravascular hemolysis is known as…   Haptoglobin  
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What is the largest white blood cell?   Monocyte  
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Define “shift to the left”   Increased percentage of immature granulocytes  
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Reticulocyte count is a good way to measure what…   reliable assessment of the effective erythroid activity of the bone marrow  
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Methemoglobin is an abnormal hemoglobin that contains…   Ferric iron  
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Thalassemias are characterized by…   Decreased rate of globin synthesis  
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What RBC indices is a measure of the amount of hemoglobin in individual RBCs?   MCH  
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Immunology   Immunology  
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Define passive acquired immunity   can be acquired naturally by the fetus because of the transfer of maternal antibodies in utero  
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What immunoglobulin molecule has a pentamer structure?   IgM  
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Define specificity   The ability of an antibody to react only with the antigen that stimulated its production  
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Define agglutination   The serologic reaction where particulate antigens are clumped by their reaction with antibody  
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ASO titer is increased in what disease?   Acute glomerulonephritis  
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FTA-ABS detects what…   Anti-Treponema pallidum (SYPHILIS)  
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Complement can be destroyed by heating plasma or serum at…   56C  
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Infectious mono slide tests detect…   Heterophile antibodies  
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The causative agent of infectious mononucleosis is…   Epstein-Barr virus  
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Define heterozygous   wo alleles inherited for a particular trait are unlike  
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Define homozygous   person who possesses two like genes for a trait  
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Microbiology   Microbiology  
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Most common stain   Gram Stain  
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Members of the Enterobacteriaceae all ferment…   Lactose  
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A urine specimen contaminated with vaginal secretions may contain the flagellate…   Trichomonas vaginalis  
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Neisseria meningitidis is seen under the microscope as…   Gram negative cocci and oxidase positive  
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A fecal specimen for parasitology testing should be held at a temperature of…   24C  
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What bacteria exhibit “swarming”?   Proteus  
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What organism is responsible for pink eye?   Haemophilus aegypticus  
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Vector for malaria?   Anopheles mosquito  
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The V factor needed by some bacteria for growth is…   NAD supplied by yeast extract  
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QUESTION FOR CASSIE...NOT NAD BUT HEMIN???   Haemophilus influenzae prefers a complex medium and requires preformed growth factors that are present in blood, specifically X factor (i.e., hemin) and V factor (NAD or NADP...http://textbookofbacteriology.net/haemophilus.html  
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In disc diffusion tests, such as the bacitracin test, growth up to the disc indicates…   Resistance to drug  
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Mycoplasma pneumonia causes what disease?   Atypical pneumonia  
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Group B beta-hemolytic strep is also known as?   Streptococcus agalactiae  
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In the direct examination of mycology specimen material, what reagent is added to the specimen to clear up any background debris?   10% KOH  
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An artificial medium for the primary isolation of fungi is   Sabourauds (SABS)  
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What test is indicative of Cryptococcus neoformans?   India Ink  
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Trophozoites are most likely to be found in fecal specimens that are…   Loose  
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The preferred method for identification of Enterobius vermicularis is…   Scotch Tape method  
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Infection of the urinary tract is most often associated with…   E. coli  
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Cultures for Neisseria gonorrheae should be incubated…   Candle jar or carbon dioxide incubator  
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MacConkey’s agar is a good differential media in that it helps to distinguish between   lactose and non-lactose fermenting Enterobacteriaceae  
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Mycobacterium is a causative agent for what disease…   Tuberculosis  
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Thioglycollate medium is a good medium for routine cultures because it…   supports the growth of aerobes, facultatives, and anaerobes  
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The enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus causes, what type of ailment?   Food poisoning  
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What bacteria has a grape-like odor?   Pseudomonas aeruginosa  
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Urinalysis   Urinalysis  
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Ammonia odor of urine is caused by?   Bacterial breakdown of urea  
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What is the functional unit of the kidney?   nephron  
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Of the following crystals, which one is abnormal? Amorphous urates Calcium oxalate Cystine Calcium carbonate   Cystine  
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The tests for glucose on commercial dipsticks is based on a color change due to…   Breakdown of glucose by glucose oxidase  
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The active reagent in the dipstick test pad for ketones is…   Sodium nitroprusside  
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Ketone bodies appear in the urine as the result of…   Increased fat catabolism  
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The presence of wbc and rbc casts in the urine would indicate that the infection is located in the…   kidneys  
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Casts are formed in the…   Distal convoluted tubules  
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RBCs in the urine are reported out as…   Average number seen per high powered field  
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Dipsticks for urinalysis may become deteriorated if they are…   Subjected to moisture  
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Crystals shaped like flat, rectangular plates with notches are: Cholesterol ammonium biurate uric acid cystine   Cholesterol  
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Casts may be seen best under the microscope by: decreasing the illumination increasing the illumination using immersion oil waiting two hours to examine the sediment   decreasing the illumination  
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The principle behind the detection of protein on the urine dipsticks is…   Protein error of indicators  
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The proximal convoluted tubule is involved in…   Tubular reabsorption  
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Elevated blood glucose levels are most commonly observed in…   Diabetes mellitus  
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The presence of squamous epithelial cells and mucus threads in the urine sediment indicates…   Vaginal contamination  
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What protein typically make ups casts?   Tamm-Horsfall  
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Which of the following casts is most indicative of end stage renal disease?   Waxy  
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