Question | Answer |
The right and left cerebral hemisphere are separated from each other by _____. | Longitudinal Fissure |
Fast pain is localized response mediated by myelinated nerve fibers. | True |
The amygdala, hippocampus, and hypothalamus are involved in such feelings as love, anger, fear, pleasure, and pain. | True |
A neuron that synapses in the adrenal medulla is a _____ neuron, and releases the neurotransmitter _____. | preganglionic; ACh |
The occipital lobe is | the principal visual center of the brain |
These are all accessory structures of the eye except | Cornea |
The _____ is an especially important center of autonomic control. | Hypothalamus |
Vitamin A is a necessary for the synthesis of rhodopsin. | True |
Muscarinic receptors bind | Acetylcholine |
Sex drive, body temperature, and food and water intake are regulated by | Hypothalamus |
The Wernicke area recognizes spoken and written language. | True |
The cornea belongs to the tunica fibrosa (fibrous layer) of the eyeball. | True |
When you travel in an elevator, the _____ senses when the elevator is moving. | hair cells of the otolithic membrane of the macula sacculi |
The hippocampus and amygdala are structures found in | Limbic system |
The primary olfactory cortex is located in the | Temporal lobes |
The medulla oblongata originate from | The myelencephalon |
The cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory centers are found in | Medulla oblongata |
Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by choroid plexuses in the _____ ventricles and reabsorbed by arachnoid villi in the _____. | lateral, third, and fourth; superior sagittal sinus |
Nerve fibers from all regions of the retina converge on the _____ and exit the eye by the way of the optic nerve | Optic disc |
Loss of equilibrium and motor coordination would most likely to be related to a lesion in the | Cerebellum |
_____ is the only sense in which signals can reach the cerebral cortex without passing first through the thalamus. | Smell |
Acetylcholine (ACh) always has an excitatory effects. | False |
Changes in cerebrospinal fluid pH are detected by | Chemoreceptors |
The thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus are derivatives of the embryonic | Diencephalon |
Somatic reflexes act faster than visceral reflexes. These are all reasons for this except | effector organs in the somatic reflex are closer to the spinal cord |
Pain, heat, and cold are detected by | free nerve endings |
The initial effect of a stimulus on a sensory receptor is a local electrical change specifically called | receptor potential |
This is the largest of the cranial nerves and the most important sensory nerve of the face. | Trigeminal Nerve (V) |
The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following except the | Skeletal muscle in the rectus abdominis |
Light falling on the retina is absorbed by rhodopsin and photopsin in the pigment epithelium. | True |
This enzyme breaks down norepinephrine(NE) | Monoamine axidase (MAO) |
Sympathetic nerve fibers are not associated with situation involving | Digestion |
The crista ampullaris is associated with | Dynamic equilibrium related to angular acceleration |
In response to high blood pressure, stretch receptors called _____ in the walls of arteries carrying blood to the head will trigger a reflex that causes the heart to _____ its beats per minute. | Baroreceptors; decrease |
Purkinje cells are unusually large neurons found in the cerebellum | True |
_____ are responsible for photopic (day) vision as well as trichromatic (color) vision. | Cones |
Which structures allow upper respiratory infections to spread from the throat to the tympanic cavity? | The auditory tube |
These are all features of the sympathetic division except _____. | it has long preganglionic fibers |
White rami carry _____ neurons, while gray rami carry _____ neurons. | myelinated preganglionic; unmyelinated postganglionic |
Half of the fibers of each nerve decussate at the _____. | Optic chiasm |
_____ is the background rate of sympathetic and parasympathetic activity. | Autonomic tone |
Sympathetic Fibers do not release _____. | Nitric Oxide (NO) |
Sympathetic fibers only arise from the _____ region(s) of the spinal cord. | Thoracic and Lumbar |
The adrenal medulla is a modified sympathetic ganglion. | True |
Binding of Norepinephrine (NE) to an alpha-adrenergic receptor is usually excitatory, and binding to a beta-adrenergic receptor is inhibitory. | True |
From superficial to deep, the meninges occur in this order: | Duramater, arachoid, pia mater |
This organ does not have nociceptors: | Brain |
You can smell the fragrance of your deodorant when you just put it on, but after a little while the smell fades. What explains this phenomenon? | The phasic nature of the sense of smell |
______ nerve(s) pass(es) throughout sympathetic ganglia without synapsing. | Splanchnic |
Both divisions of the autonomic nervous system are normally active simultaneously. | True |
Stimuli produced by soundwaves reach the brain following the pathway: | Auditory canal –> tympanic membrane –> ossicles –> oval window –> cochlear duct -> spiral organ –> fibers of cochlear nerve |
Most fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system travel in _____. | The vagus nerve |
Nearly all the somatosensory input to the cerebrum passes by way of synapses in _____. | The thalamus |
The neurotransmitter associated with autonomic ganglia is | Acetylcholine |
Preganglionic fibers run from | Posterior root ganglia to autonomic ganglia. |
The ovulated egg is at | Metaphase II |
The most abundant estrogen of pregnancy is _____, but the one that accounts for the most of the estrogenic effects in pregnancy is ________. | Estriol; Estradiol |
When do the testes start secreting testosterone? | in the first trimester of fetal development |
Mammary glands develop within the breast primarily | during pregnancy |
After puberty, the vaginal lining becomes ____ to _____. | stratified squamous epithelium; resist abrasion |
The ______ is the gonad and the ________ is the gamete. | testis; sperm |
The _____ arteries rhythmically constrict and dilate causing the uterine mucosa to blanch and flush with blood. | spiral |
The first haploid stage of spermatogenesis is prophase II. | False (telophase I) |
The penis is homologous to | the clitoris |
_____ are feminizing hormones. | estrogens |
The slow block refers to the mechanism that prevents fertilization of another egg when one is already pregnant. | False |
Why would an enlarged prostate gland interfere with urination? | it compresses the urethra |
The basis of pregnancy test kit is the presence of ______, which is secreted by the _______. | human chorionic gonadotropin (hcg); blastocyst and placenta |
_____ have 46 chromosomes, whereas _______ have 23. | primary spermatocytes; spermatids |
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) stimulates the corpus luteum to grow and secrete estrogen and progesterone. | True |
By volume, most of the semen is produced in the | seminal vesicles |
Which one of three organ systems shows the greatest anatomical change in the transitional period after birth? | Circulatory system |
The ovarian cycle typically lasts about 28 days, with day 1 considered to be the first day after ovulation. | False |
In the female fetus, the absence of testosterone results in the development of the external genitalia into clitoris, labia minora, and labia majora. | True |
A sperm count any lower than ______ million sperm per mL of semen is usually associated with infertility (sterility). | 20 to 25 |
Which hormone suppresses spermatogenesis without affecting testosterone secretion? | Inhibin |
Sperm must travel to the distal end of the uterine tube to encounter the egg before it dies. | True |
Men have only one ________ but have two of all the rest of these. | prostate gland(s) |
Gonads begin to develop | 5 to 6 weeks after fertilization |
The number of ovarian follicles declines with age, leading to a reduction of estrogen levels. | True |
______ inhibits the secretion of ________ during the female sexual cycle. | estradiol and progesterone: FSH and LH |
Muscular weakness tends to develop in old age for all of the following reason except. | Myocytes do not synthesize myosin anymore. |
After expelling the oocyte, the follicle becomes the _______ and secretes ________. | corpus luteum; estrogen and progesterone |
Prior to ejaculation, ________ in the sperm plasma membrane prevents premature release of _____. | cholesterol; acrosomal enzymes |
Which of the following is an androgen? | testosterone |
Trophoblastic nutrition refers to the nutrition of the conceptus before it implants. | False |
The penile urethra is enclosed by the | corpus spongiosum |
The _____ phase is the one associated with menstrual cramps and typically occurs _______ of the cycle. | premenstrual; days 27 to 28 |
During implantation, the embryoblast undergoes gastrulation. | True |
________ stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to secrete ________. | luteinizing hormone (LH); testosterone |
Oogenesis starts | during embryonic development |
The presence of the Y chromosome guarantee the development of male secondary sex organs. | True |
The countercurrent heat exchanger that prevents arterial blood from overheating the testes is | the pampiniform plexus of veins |
As it implants, the conceptus is nourished by means of | trophoblastic nutrition |
Which of these organ systems faces the greatest physiological challenge in the transitional period after birth? | respiratory system |
Which of the following major events of prenatal development happens first? | the central nervous system begins to form |
The appearance of pubic and axillary hair is a stage specifically called | pubarche |
A follicle is | an oocyte enclosed in follicular or granulosa cells |
Congenital anomalies can result from all of the following except. | smoking during lactation |
The uterus is a thick muscular chamber inferior to the urinary bladder. | False (superior) |
At early puberty, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulate enlargement of the testes. | False |
Telomeres | are DNA segments at each end of a chromosome. |
Which of these blood hormone levels reaches its maximum during the luteal phase? | progesterone |
During the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle. | several follicles are developing antrums |
The heat loss of the neonate is compensated for to some extend by the thermal insulation provided by brown fat. | True |
These all have potentially teratogenic effects except | sunlight |
Senescence of the immune system makes older people more subject to cancer and disease because of a decline in | antigen-presenting cells and helper T-cells |
Erection is | an autonomic reflex mediated predominantly by parasympathetic nerve fibers |
An infant’s only source of nutrition during the first 2-3 days postpartum is | colostrum |
During the follicular phase, granulosa cells secrete _____, which stimulates secretion of _____. | Estradiol; LH |
All of the following play a role in thermoregulation of the testes except | the bulbospongiosus muscle. |
The _____ is an example of the female external genitalia. | Clitoris |
Which of the following events happens first? | the acrosomal reaction |
Oogenesis starts | during embryonic development |
The observation that there is a limit to how many times a cell can divide is the basis for the | replicative senescence theory |
The first body cavity is called the | coelom |
The nonpregnant uterine wall consists mostly of _____, which is composed of _____. | Myometrium; bundles of smooth muscle |
Primary germ layers are formed during | Implantation |
The _____ completely encloses the embryo and provides a stable environment for it. | Amnion |
Testosterone stimulates development of the secondary sex characteristics, spermatogenesis, and libido. | True |
In early pregnancy, _____ stimulates growth of the corpus luteum. | Human chorionic gonadotropin |
The _____ provides fetal nutrition and secretes hormones that regulate pregnancy and fetal development. | Placenta |
Oxytocin stimulates contraction of myoepithelial cell of the mammary acini. | True |
Which of the following are primary sex organs? | Ovaries |
Oxygenated blood reaches the fetus through the | umbilical vein |
Senescence begins at different ages and progresses at different rates in different organ systems. | True |
During the plateau phase, the glans and clitoris swell as the _____ arteries dilate and the corpus or corpora ______ engorge with blood. | Deep; cavernosa |
The first 6 weeks of postpartum life constitute | the neonatal period |
In the excitement phase, the uterus rises from its forward-tilted (anteverted) position. | True |
The term menstrual cycle specifically refers to | the cyclic changes in the uterus determined by shifting hormonal changes |
The ovulated egg is | a secondary oocyte |
Changes called male climacteric are a consequence of | increased secretion of FSH and LH |
The process that makes it possible for sperm to penetrate the egg is called | capacitation |
Which is the longest stage of labor? | The dilation (first) stage |
Unlike men, women lack a refractory period and may experience successive orgasms. | True |
Lutein cells develop from | The theca interna |
When it is cold, the _____ contracts and draws the testes closer to the body to keep them warm. | Cremaster muscle |
Prolactin is secreted during pregnancy to stimulate milk synthesis so that milk will be available by the time the infant is born. | True |
The basis for contraceptive pills is that they mimic the _____ feedback effect of _____. | Negative; estrogens and progesterone |
As a result of spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis, the final cells produced are called _____, but they and all the stages leading up to them an be called _____. | Gametes; germ cells |
Myotonia of skeletal muscles is characteristic of the excitement phase and refractory period. | True |
In meiosis, each parent cell produces | four haploid cells |
Absorption of many nutrients starts in the stomach. | False |
These are all accessory organs of the digestive system except | spleen |
Most fat is digested by pancreatic lipase. | True |
Which of these form the inner layer of the glomerular capsule and wrap around the capillaries of the glomerulus? | Podocytes |
The _____ regulates digestive tract motility, secretion, and blood flow, and its neurons are found in the _____. | Enteric nervous system; submucosa and muscularis externa |
Which of these correctly traces blood flow from the renal cortex to the renal vein? | Interlobular v. > arcuate v. > interlobar v. > renal v. |
Hypocalcemia stimulates | secretion of parathyroid hormone |
A renal pyramid voids urine into | the minor calyx |
The sodium-glucose transport protein (SGLP) | transports glucose and sodium from the intestinal lumen into the epithelial cells |
The digestive system processes food, extracts nutrients, and eliminates the residue. | True |
Enamel is found in the crown of a tooth, whereas dentin is part of both crown and root. | True |
_____ is a hormone, whereas _____ is an enzyme. | Secretin; pepsin |
Proteins are digested by different enzymes acting in the following sequence | pepsin, trypsin, carboxypeptidase, dipeptidase |
The enterogastric reflex serves to | inhibit gastric motility when there is chime in the small intestine |
Pancreatic enzymes are secreted in response to the hormone | cholecystokinin (CCK) |
Which of the following does not contribute to water conservation? | Diuretics |
The overall purpose of the countercurrent exchange system is | To supply salt and urea to the renal medulla |
Diseases that affect the descending corticospinal tracts may limit inhibition of the sacral somatic motor neurons and thus could result in urinary incontinence. | True |
The brush borders of intestinal absorptive cells contain numerous goblet cells. | True |
The enteric nervous system regulates much of the digestive activity but its action depends on the central nervous system. | False |
The serous membranes that suspend the stomach and intestines fro the abdominal wall are called. | Mesenteries |
The ____ of the small intestine is/are similar to the _____ of the stomach. | Intestinal crypts; gastric pits |
The small intestine is suspended from the abdominal wall by | the mesentery |
This by-product of protein catabolism constitutes approximately one-half of all nitrogenous waste. | Urea |
The mechanism of stabilizing the GFR based on the tendency of smooth muscle to contract when stretched is known as what? | The myogenic mechanism |
The thick segment of the nephron loop is impermeable to water | True |
Chylomicrons are secreted from the basal surface of the absorptive cells and taken into the lacteal in the villus. | True |
_____ is associated with food stretching the stomach and activating myenteric and vagovagal reflexes, which in turn stimulate gastric secretions. | The gastric phase |
Which of these nutrients is absorbed by the lacteals of the small intestine? | Triglycerides |
Chemical digestion breaks down _____ into _____. | Nucleic acids; nucleotides |
The ureters pass anterior to the bladder and enter it from below. | False (posterior) |
The muscle tone of the _____ along the colon contracts it lengthwise, causing its walls to bulge and form pouches called ______. | Taeniae coli; haustra |
Which muscle is located in the bladder? | Detrusor |
Atrial natriuretic peptide reduces blood volume and pressure by all of the following means except | preventing sodium loss in the urine |
_____ break(s) down _____. | Peptidases; proteins |
Which of the following is not an organ of the urinary system? | Collecting duct |
Which is not a function of the kidneys? | They release waste into the bloodstream |
Each of the following lists some of the tissue layers of the digestive tract. Which one has them in the correct order from lumen to external surface? | Lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa |
The innermost layer protecting the kidney and assisting in staving off infection is known as | the fibrous capsule |
Both pancreatic juice and bile are secreted into the duodenum. | True |
The countercurrent multiplier recaptures _____ and is based on fluid flowing in _____ direction in two adjacent tubules. | Sodium; the opposite |
Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by | the proximal convoluted tubule |
Defecation is stimulated by | stretching of the rectum |
The fenestrated endothelium of the capillary has pores small enough to exclude blood cells from the filtrate. | True |
Micturition is another term for | the elimination of urine |
Which organ system does not excrete waste? | The cardiovascular system |
Infants have _____ deciduous teeth, whereas adults have _____ permanent teeth. | 20; 32 |
The transition from an afferent arteriole to an efferent arteriole occurs in the | glomerulus |
In a healthy kidney, very little _____ is filtered by the glomerulus. | Protein |
The swallowing center is located in | the medulla oblongata |
Carbohydrate digestion begins in the _____, whereas protein digestion begins in the _____. | Mouth; stomach |
All of the following are composed of cuboidal epithelium with the exception of | the thin segment of the nephron loop |
Which of these is the site of contact digestion? | Brush border of the small intestine |
Aldosterone acts on | the distal convoluted tubule |
Normal urine from a healthy person can be expected to contain all of the following except | glucose |
Lecithin prepares fats for hydrolysis by forming | chylomicrons |
Both chemical and mechanical digestion start in the mouth and continue in the stomach. | True |
Pepsinogen is produced by _____ and is activated by _____. | Chief cells; hydrochloric acid (HCL) secreted by parietal cells |
In life-threatening starvation, the kidneys synthesize glucose by | deaminating amino acids |
_____ is the physiological process that moves a nutrient from the outside to the inside of the body. | Absorption |
Gastric juice consists entirely of water and hydrochloric acid. | False |
Blood plasma is filtered in | the renal corpuscle |
These are normally found in saliva except | protease |
Acid reflux into the esophagus (heartburn) is normally prevented by | the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) |
Which of the following is a direct result of antidiuretic hormone? | Decreased urine volume |
_____ transport lipids to the surface of the intestinal absorptive cells, which process them into _____. | Micelles; chylomicrons |
Renin hydrolizes angiotensinogen released from the _____ to form angiotensin I. | Liver |
Hydrochloric acid (HCL) is secreted by _____ cells. | Parietal |
The small intestine has a very large absorptive surface associated with these structures except | rugae |
A hepatic (portal) triad consists of | bile ductule, branch of hepatic artery, and branch of hepatic portal vein |
Bacterial flora carry out all of the following except | digest most of the proteins we get in the diet |
Odor, sight and taste stimulate salivatory nuclei in the cerebral cortex. | True |
_____ is synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum. | Glucagon |
Negative feedback inhibition occurs when | Thyroid hormone (TH) targets the anterior pituitary |
This hormone plays an important role in synchronizing physiological function with the cycle of daylight and darkness. | Melatonin |
Thyroid hormone has a calorigenic effect. | True |
_____ has more target cells in the body than any of the others | Growth Hormone (GH) |
These are all secreted by the pancreas except | Somatotropin |
T4 and T3 are _____ hormones that are mainly transported _______ in the blood. | Monoamine; bound to thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) |
______ aid in the body's defense processes by secreting histamine (vasodilator) and heparin (anticoagulant). | Basophils |
The hypophyseal portal system connects | The anterior pituitary (adendohypophysis) with the hypothalamus |
Target organs most often regulate the pituitary gland via | Negative Feedback inhibition |
______ is not a steroid hormone | Insulin |
These are all hypothalamic hormones except | Luteinizing hormone (LH) |
Even a small quantity of hormone can have a strong effect on its target cell because of | Up-regulation |
What makes a cell responsive to a particular hormone? | The presence of a receptor for that particular hormone |
The neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary) secretes | Oxytocin (OT) |
Many hours after a meal, alpha (a) cells in the pancreatic islets (islets of langerhans) secrets. | Glucagon, which raises blood glucose |
Prostaglandins have all of the following roles except. | To stop fever and pain |
The ______ secrete ________, which promotes NA+ and water retention | Adrenal cortex; aldosterone |
The ______ secrete a hormone that increases the body's metabolic rate, promotes, alertness, quickens reflexes, and stimulates the fetal nervous system. | The thyroid gland |
The infundibulum is | A projection of the hypothalamus from which the pituitary gland hangs |
The _______ is not an endocrine gland but it has a role in endocrine function. | Kidney |
_________ secretes several hormones that stimulate the development of lymphatic organs and regulates development and activity of T cells (white blood cells). | Thymus |
This gland has both endocrine and exocrine functions. | Ovary |
________ are secreted by one cell into the tissue fluid, diffuse to nearby cells in the same tissue and stimulate their physiology. | Paracrines |
The initial response to stress is called ______ and is mediated mainly by ______. | The alarm reaction; norepinephrine and epinephrine. |
Endocrine glands | Release their secretions directly into the blood. |
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) targets the | Kidneys |
Cholesterol is essential for the synthesis of steroid hormones. | True |
The exhaustion stage of the general adaptation (stress responses) sets in only if protein reserves are depleted. | False |
Serum is essentially identical to plasma except for the absence of | Fibrinogen |
When a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by | Plasmin |
Many RBCs die in the | Spleen and liver |
Hemostasis is the production of formed elements of blood | False |
Correction of hypoxemia is regulated by | Negative feedback inhibition |
Blood does not | Produce plasma hormones |
The ABO blood group is determined by ______ in the plasma membrane of RBCs. | Glycolipids |
The main reason why an individual AB, RH-negative cannot donate blood to an individual A, RH-positive is because | Anti-B antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor. |
Leukopoiesis begins with differentiation of | Pluripotent stem cells (PPSCs) |
Most clotting factors are synthesized in the | Liver |
The blood in the heart chambers provides most of the myocardium's oxygen and nutrient needs. | False |
All of these prevent the spontaneous formation of a clot except | The presence of tissue thromboplastin |
Type AB blood has ______ RBC antigen | A and B |
A deficiency of _____ can cause pernicious anemia | Vitamin B12 |
The viscosity of blood is due more to _______ than to any other factor. | Erothrocytes |
These are the least abundant formed elements. | Basophils |
Lymphocytes secrete antibodies, coordinate action of other immune cells, and serve in immune memory. | True |
Incompatibility of one person's blood with another results from the action of plasma antibodies against the RBC's antigens. | True |
After a wound is sealed, tissue repair is followed by fibrinolysis. | True |
Platelets release _______, a chemical vasoconstrictor that contributes to the vascular spasm. | Serotonin |
Platelets do not secrete | Throbopoietin |
Lymphoid hemopoiesis occurs mainly in the bone marrow. | True |
_______ is not found in plasma | Glycogen |
Correction of hypoxemia is regulated by | A negative feedback loop |
Cardiac muscle shares this feature with skeletal muscle. | Cardiac muscle fibers have striations |
When the left ventricle contracts, the ______ valve closes and the ______ valve is pushed open. | Mitral, aortic |
Mitral valve stenosis causes blood to leak back into the _____ when the ventricles contract. | Left atrium |
Opening and closing of the heart valves is caused by | Pressure gradients |
This is the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiocyte in the left ventricle (LV) | SA node, AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje Fibers, Cardiocyte in LV |
The plateau in the action potential of cardiac muscle results from the action of | Slow Ca2+ channels |
The ventricles are almost empty at the end of ventricular diastole | False |
Papillary muscles prevent the AV valves from prolapsing (bulging) excessively into the atria when the ventricles contract. | True |
Cardiac muscle can only use glucose as source of organic fuel. | False |
Isovolumetric contraction occurs during the ______ of the electrocardiogram. | R wave |
Congestive heart failure (CHF) of the right ventricle | Can cause systemic edema |
The Frank- Starling Law of the heart states that stroke volume is proportional to | The end-diastolic volume |
The systemic circuit contains oxygen-rich blood only. | True |
Cells of the sinoatrial node _______ during the pacemaker potential | Depolarize slow |
_________ is the most superficial layer enclosing the heart. | Parietal pericardium |
________ increases stroke volume. | Increased venous return |
The pacemaker potential is a result of | NA+ inflow |
This is the correct sequence of the cardiac cycle | Ventricular filling> isovolumetric contraction> ventricular ejection> isovolumetric relaxation |
The _________ provides most of the Ca2+ needed for myocardial contraction. | Sarcoplasmic reticulum |
Atrial systole begins __________ | Immediately after the P wave |
The triscupid regulates the opening between _________ | The right atrium and the right ventricle |
The pulmonary circuit is supplied by the left and right sides of the heart. | False |
Which of these is not part of the cardiac conduction system. | The tendinous cords (TC) |
An abnormal cardiac rhythm is call a | Arrhythmia |
________ carry oxygen-poor blood. | Venae cavae and pulmonary arteries |
Atrial depolarization causes | The P wave |
Oxygen poor blood passes through | The right AV valve and pulmonary valve |
During isovolumetric contraction, the pressure in the ventricles | Rises rapidly |
Most of the ventricle filling occurs | During atrial diastole |
Blood flow is pulsatile in arteries and veins, but it is steady in capillaries. | False |
___________ are found especially in the mucous membrane, standing guard against parasites and allergens. | Eosinophils |
Hypertension is commonly considered to be chronic resting blood pressure higher than | 140/90 |
These are all vessels of the lower limb except | The anterior interocosseous artery |
_________ by the capillaries at the venous end. | Oxygen and glucose are taken up |
T cells undergo positive selection in the thymus, which means | They multiply and form clones of identical T cells |
The most important force driving reabsorption at the venous end of the capillary is | Blood colloid osmotic pressure |
Helper T (TH) cells recognize antigens when they are bound to a(n) | Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein |
The principal venous drainage of the thoracic organs is accomplished by way of | The azygos system |
The radial artery is lateral to the ulnar artery | True |
The amount of air in excess of tidal volume that can be inhaled with maximum effort is called | Inspiratory reserve volume |
Special lymphatic vessels called lacteals absorb dietary _________ that are not absorbed by the blood | Lipids |
Generalized vasomotion can raise or lower blood pressure throughout the body | True |
All of these increase blood pressure except | Atrial natriuretic peptide |
________ has the most important effect on blood velocity. | Vessel radius |
The majority of T cells of the naive lymphocyte pool wait for the encounter with foreign antigens in | The lymphatic tissues |
Helper T (TH) cells do not | Secrete fever-producing chemicals |
Vaccination stimulates | Artificial active immunity |
Each immunoglobulin (Ig) has ___________ antigen-bonding site(s) | Two |
Cytotoxic T cells respond only to antigens bound to MHC-I proteins | True |
Carbon dioxide is transported by all of the following means except | Carbonate |
Which of the following does not have cilia? | Respiratory bronchioles |
This is the longest vein, and portions of this vein are commonly used as grafts in coronary bypass surgery | The great saphenous vein |
Antibodies do not | Differentiate into memory antibodies, which upon re-exposure to the same pathogen would mount a quicker attack |
Vasomotion is associated with the presence of | Smooth muscle in the tunica media |
Basophils of the blood help to get defensive leukocytes to the site quickly by releasing an anticoagulant called ________ and a vasodilator called ________. | Heparin; histamine |
Your breathing rate is 14 breaths/minute; spirometric measurements reveal your tidal volume is 500 mL; your respiratory reserve volume is 3000 mL; and your expiratory reserve volume is 1200 mL. Your vital capacity is ________ mL. | 4700
(VC = IRV + TV + ERV) |
Increased capillary filtration, reduced reabsorption, or obstruction of lymphatic drainage can lead to edema. | True |
The addition of CO2 to the blood generates ________ ions in the RBCs, which in turn stimulates RBCs to unload more oxygen. | Hydrogen |
This is the only lymphatic organ with afferent lymphatic vessels | Lymph node |
One characteristic of the immune responses is specificity. This means that | Immunity is directed against a particular pathogen |
Red bone marrow is the point of origin of all immune cells of the lymphatic system | True |
________ have the thickest tunica media. | Large arteries |
The maximum amount of air the lungs can contain is known as inspiratory capacity. | False (Total Lung Capacity) |
Gas transport is the process of carrying gases from the alveoli to the systemic tissues and vice versa. | True |
_________ states that the total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of its individual gases. | Dalton's law |
The upper respiratory tract extends | From the nose through the larynx |
_________ does not contribute to venous return. | Widespread vasodilation |
Interferons are secreted in response to bacterial infections. | False |
Erythrocytes do not carry out aerobic respiration; thus, they do not consume any of the oxygen they are transporting. | True |
Immune surveillance is a process in which ________ nonspecifically detect and destroy foreign cells and decreased host cells. | Natural killer (NK) cells |
The ________ supplies 80% of the cerebrum. | Internal carotid artery |
Congestive heart failure results in which of the following? | Ischemic hypoxia |
The pleurae and pleural fluid help prevent the spread of pulmonary infection to the pericardium. | True |
The velocity of blood flow decreases when | Viscosity increases |
This is the class of immunoglobulin that provides passive immunity to the newborn. | IgA |
According to the Bohr effect, a low level of oxyhemoglobin enables the blood to transport more CO2. | False |
This organ shows a remarkable degree of degeneration (involution) with age. | Thymus |
All of these increase blood pressure except | Atrial natriuretic peptide |
A lung disease marked by abnormally few but large alveoli is | Emphysema |
_____________ are antimicrobial proteins | Interferons |
What is the mean arterial pressure for a person with 110 and 65 mm Hg as systolic and diastolic pressure, respectively? | 80 mm Hg;
1/3(SBP-DBP)+DBP= or 1/3(110-65)+65=80 |
The three primary branches of the celiac trunk are the common hepatic, left gastric, and splenic veins | False |
This is the first of a series of neutrophil behaviors in inflammation | Margination |
Your breathing rate is 12 breaths/minute; your tidal volume is 500 mL; your vital capacity is 4700 mL; and your dead air space is 150 mL. Your alveolar ventilation rate is _______ mL/min. | 4200; (AVR = (500-150)x12 = 4200) |
The vasomotor center of the _________ controls vessels throughout the body. | Medulla oblongata |
The serum used for emergency treatment of snakebites stimulates | Artificial passive immunity |
____________ shock occurs when bacterial toxins trigger vasodilation and increase capillary permeability. | Septic |
____________ is not a cardinal sign characteristic of inflammation | Impaired use |
Before B cells secrete antibodies they differentiate into | Plasma cells |
All of the following can act as antigen-presenting cells except | T cells |
The cerebral arterial circle ( circle of Willis) is | An anastomosis surrounding the pituitary gland |
Most blood is in the | Veins |
Interleukins are chemical signals by which immune cells communicate with each other | True |
_________ would not increase capillary filtration. | Dehydration |
A pyrogen is a substance that causes | Fever |
The most important force driving filtration of the arterial end of a capillary is | Blood hydrostatic pressure |
Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system? | It assists in the synthesis of vasodilators |
Erythrocytes do not carry out aerobic respiration; thus, they do not consume any of the oxygen they are transporting. | True |
These are all veins of the upper limb except | The great saphenous vein |
___________ has the most important effect on the blood velocity. | Vessel radius |
The nose is divided into right and left halves termed the | Nasal fossae |
Most tissue fluid is reabsorbed by the lymphatic system. | False |
From superior to inferior, the major branches of the abdominal aorta are | Celiac trunk, superior mesenteric artery, renal arteries, gonadal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries. |
Antigen-presenting cells usually display processed antigens to T cells in | Liver |
Thromboplastin | converts prothrombin into thrombin |
Proximal convoluted tubules are responsible for reabsorbing all of the following except | hydrogen ions |
List the 12 Cranial Nerves. | Olfactory (I), Optic (II), Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), Trigenimal (V),Adbudens (VI), Facial (VII), Vestibulocochlear (VIII), Glossopharyngeal (IX), Vagus (X), Accessory (XI), Hypoglossal (XII) |