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A&P 2 Final


The right and left cerebral hemisphere are separated from each other by _____. Longitudinal Fissure
Fast pain is localized response mediated by myelinated nerve fibers. True
The amygdala, hippocampus, and hypothalamus are involved in such feelings as love, anger, fear, pleasure, and pain. True
A neuron that synapses in the adrenal medulla is a _____ neuron, and releases the neurotransmitter _____. preganglionic; ACh
The occipital lobe is the principal visual center of the brain
These are all accessory structures of the eye except Cornea
The _____ is an especially important center of autonomic control. Hypothalamus
Vitamin A is a necessary for the synthesis of rhodopsin. True
Muscarinic receptors bind Acetylcholine
Sex drive, body temperature, and food and water intake are regulated by Hypothalamus
The Wernicke area recognizes spoken and written language. True
The cornea belongs to the tunica fibrosa (fibrous layer) of the eyeball. True
When you travel in an elevator, the _____ senses when the elevator is moving. hair cells of the otolithic membrane of the macula sacculi
The hippocampus and amygdala are structures found in Limbic system
The primary olfactory cortex is located in the Temporal lobes
The medulla oblongata originate from The myelencephalon
The cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory centers are found in Medulla oblongata
Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by choroid plexuses in the _____ ventricles and reabsorbed by arachnoid villi in the _____. lateral, third, and fourth; superior sagittal sinus
Nerve fibers from all regions of the retina converge on the _____ and exit the eye by the way of the optic nerve Optic disc
Loss of equilibrium and motor coordination would most likely to be related to a lesion in the Cerebellum
_____ is the only sense in which signals can reach the cerebral cortex without passing first through the thalamus. Smell
Acetylcholine (ACh) always has an excitatory effects. False
Changes in cerebrospinal fluid pH are detected by Chemoreceptors
The thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus are derivatives of the embryonic Diencephalon
Somatic reflexes act faster than visceral reflexes. These are all reasons for this except effector organs in the somatic reflex are closer to the spinal cord
Pain, heat, and cold are detected by free nerve endings
The initial effect of a stimulus on a sensory receptor is a local electrical change specifically called receptor potential
This is the largest of the cranial nerves and the most important sensory nerve of the face. Trigeminal Nerve (V)
The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following except the Skeletal muscle in the rectus abdominis
Light falling on the retina is absorbed by rhodopsin and photopsin in the pigment epithelium. True
This enzyme breaks down norepinephrine(NE) Monoamine axidase (MAO)
Sympathetic nerve fibers are not associated with situation involving Digestion
The crista ampullaris is associated with Dynamic equilibrium related to angular acceleration
In response to high blood pressure, stretch receptors called _____ in the walls of arteries carrying blood to the head will trigger a reflex that causes the heart to _____ its beats per minute. Baroreceptors; decrease
Purkinje cells are unusually large neurons found in the cerebellum True
_____ are responsible for photopic (day) vision as well as trichromatic (color) vision. Cones
Which structures allow upper respiratory infections to spread from the throat to the tympanic cavity? The auditory tube
These are all features of the sympathetic division except _____. it has long preganglionic fibers
White rami carry _____ neurons, while gray rami carry _____ neurons. myelinated preganglionic; unmyelinated postganglionic
Half of the fibers of each nerve decussate at the _____. Optic chiasm
_____ is the background rate of sympathetic and parasympathetic activity. Autonomic tone
Sympathetic Fibers do not release _____. Nitric Oxide (NO)
Sympathetic fibers only arise from the _____ region(s) of the spinal cord. Thoracic and Lumbar
The adrenal medulla is a modified sympathetic ganglion. True
Binding of Norepinephrine (NE) to an alpha-adrenergic receptor is usually excitatory, and binding to a beta-adrenergic receptor is inhibitory. True
From superficial to deep, the meninges occur in this order: Duramater, arachoid, pia mater
This organ does not have nociceptors: Brain
You can smell the fragrance of your deodorant when you just put it on, but after a little while the smell fades. What explains this phenomenon? The phasic nature of the sense of smell
______ nerve(s) pass(es) throughout sympathetic ganglia without synapsing. Splanchnic
Both divisions of the autonomic nervous system are normally active simultaneously. True
Stimuli produced by soundwaves reach the brain following the pathway: Auditory canal –> tympanic membrane –> ossicles –> oval window –> cochlear duct -> spiral organ –> fibers of cochlear nerve
Most fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system travel in _____. The vagus nerve
Nearly all the somatosensory input to the cerebrum passes by way of synapses in _____. The thalamus
The neurotransmitter associated with autonomic ganglia is Acetylcholine
Preganglionic fibers run from Posterior root ganglia to autonomic ganglia.
The ovulated egg is at Metaphase II
The most abundant estrogen of pregnancy is _____, but the one that accounts for the most of the estrogenic effects in pregnancy is ________. Estriol; Estradiol
When do the testes start secreting testosterone? in the first trimester of fetal development
Mammary glands develop within the breast primarily during pregnancy
After puberty, the vaginal lining becomes ____ to _____. stratified squamous epithelium; resist abrasion
The ______ is the gonad and the ________ is the gamete. testis; sperm
The _____ arteries rhythmically constrict and dilate causing the uterine mucosa to blanch and flush with blood. spiral
The first haploid stage of spermatogenesis is prophase II. False (telophase I)
The penis is homologous to the clitoris
_____ are feminizing hormones. estrogens
The slow block refers to the mechanism that prevents fertilization of another egg when one is already pregnant. False
Why would an enlarged prostate gland interfere with urination? it compresses the urethra
The basis of pregnancy test kit is the presence of ______, which is secreted by the _______. human chorionic gonadotropin (hcg); blastocyst and placenta
_____ have 46 chromosomes, whereas _______ have 23. primary spermatocytes; spermatids
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) stimulates the corpus luteum to grow and secrete estrogen and progesterone. True
By volume, most of the semen is produced in the seminal vesicles
Which one of three organ systems shows the greatest anatomical change in the transitional period after birth? Circulatory system
The ovarian cycle typically lasts about 28 days, with day 1 considered to be the first day after ovulation. False
In the female fetus, the absence of testosterone results in the development of the external genitalia into clitoris, labia minora, and labia majora. True
A sperm count any lower than ______ million sperm per mL of semen is usually associated with infertility (sterility). 20 to 25
Which hormone suppresses spermatogenesis without affecting testosterone secretion? Inhibin
Sperm must travel to the distal end of the uterine tube to encounter the egg before it dies. True
Men have only one ________ but have two of all the rest of these. prostate gland(s)
Gonads begin to develop 5 to 6 weeks after fertilization
The number of ovarian follicles declines with age, leading to a reduction of estrogen levels. True
______ inhibits the secretion of ________ during the female sexual cycle. estradiol and progesterone: FSH and LH
Muscular weakness tends to develop in old age for all of the following reason except. Myocytes do not synthesize myosin anymore.
After expelling the oocyte, the follicle becomes the _______ and secretes ________. corpus luteum; estrogen and progesterone
Prior to ejaculation, ________ in the sperm plasma membrane prevents premature release of _____. cholesterol; acrosomal enzymes
Which of the following is an androgen? testosterone
Trophoblastic nutrition refers to the nutrition of the conceptus before it implants. False
The penile urethra is enclosed by the corpus spongiosum
The _____ phase is the one associated with menstrual cramps and typically occurs _______ of the cycle. premenstrual; days 27 to 28
During implantation, the embryoblast undergoes gastrulation. True
________ stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to secrete ________. luteinizing hormone (LH); testosterone
Oogenesis starts during embryonic development
The presence of the Y chromosome guarantee the development of male secondary sex organs. True
The countercurrent heat exchanger that prevents arterial blood from overheating the testes is the pampiniform plexus of veins
As it implants, the conceptus is nourished by means of trophoblastic nutrition
Which of these organ systems faces the greatest physiological challenge in the transitional period after birth? respiratory system
Which of the following major events of prenatal development happens first? the central nervous system begins to form
The appearance of pubic and axillary hair is a stage specifically called pubarche
A follicle is an oocyte enclosed in follicular or granulosa cells
Congenital anomalies can result from all of the following except. smoking during lactation
The uterus is a thick muscular chamber inferior to the urinary bladder. False (superior)
At early puberty, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulate enlargement of the testes. False
Telomeres are DNA segments at each end of a chromosome.
Which of these blood hormone levels reaches its maximum during the luteal phase? progesterone
During the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle. several follicles are developing antrums
The heat loss of the neonate is compensated for to some extend by the thermal insulation provided by brown fat. True
These all have potentially teratogenic effects except sunlight
Senescence of the immune system makes older people more subject to cancer and disease because of a decline in antigen-presenting cells and helper T-cells
Erection is an autonomic reflex mediated predominantly by parasympathetic nerve fibers
An infant’s only source of nutrition during the first 2-3 days postpartum is colostrum
During the follicular phase, granulosa cells secrete _____, which stimulates secretion of _____. Estradiol; LH
All of the following play a role in thermoregulation of the testes except the bulbospongiosus muscle.
The _____ is an example of the female external genitalia. Clitoris
Which of the following events happens first? the acrosomal reaction
Oogenesis starts during embryonic development
The observation that there is a limit to how many times a cell can divide is the basis for the replicative senescence theory
The first body cavity is called the coelom
The nonpregnant uterine wall consists mostly of _____, which is composed of _____. Myometrium; bundles of smooth muscle
Primary germ layers are formed during Implantation
The _____ completely encloses the embryo and provides a stable environment for it. Amnion
Testosterone stimulates development of the secondary sex characteristics, spermatogenesis, and libido. True
In early pregnancy, _____ stimulates growth of the corpus luteum. Human chorionic gonadotropin
The _____ provides fetal nutrition and secretes hormones that regulate pregnancy and fetal development. Placenta
Oxytocin stimulates contraction of myoepithelial cell of the mammary acini. True
Which of the following are primary sex organs? Ovaries
Oxygenated blood reaches the fetus through the umbilical vein
Senescence begins at different ages and progresses at different rates in different organ systems. True
During the plateau phase, the glans and clitoris swell as the _____ arteries dilate and the corpus or corpora ______ engorge with blood. Deep; cavernosa
The first 6 weeks of postpartum life constitute the neonatal period
In the excitement phase, the uterus rises from its forward-tilted (anteverted) position. True
The term menstrual cycle specifically refers to the cyclic changes in the uterus determined by shifting hormonal changes
The ovulated egg is a secondary oocyte
Changes called male climacteric are a consequence of increased secretion of FSH and LH
The process that makes it possible for sperm to penetrate the egg is called capacitation
Which is the longest stage of labor? The dilation (first) stage
Unlike men, women lack a refractory period and may experience successive orgasms. True
Lutein cells develop from The theca interna
When it is cold, the _____ contracts and draws the testes closer to the body to keep them warm. Cremaster muscle
Prolactin is secreted during pregnancy to stimulate milk synthesis so that milk will be available by the time the infant is born. True
The basis for contraceptive pills is that they mimic the _____ feedback effect of _____. Negative; estrogens and progesterone
As a result of spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis, the final cells produced are called _____, but they and all the stages leading up to them an be called _____. Gametes; germ cells
Myotonia of skeletal muscles is characteristic of the excitement phase and refractory period. True
In meiosis, each parent cell produces four haploid cells
Absorption of many nutrients starts in the stomach. False
These are all accessory organs of the digestive system except spleen
Most fat is digested by pancreatic lipase. True
Which of these form the inner layer of the glomerular capsule and wrap around the capillaries of the glomerulus? Podocytes
The _____ regulates digestive tract motility, secretion, and blood flow, and its neurons are found in the _____. Enteric nervous system; submucosa and muscularis externa
Which of these correctly traces blood flow from the renal cortex to the renal vein? Interlobular v. > arcuate v. > interlobar v. > renal v.
Hypocalcemia stimulates secretion of parathyroid hormone
A renal pyramid voids urine into the minor calyx
The sodium-glucose transport protein (SGLP) transports glucose and sodium from the intestinal lumen into the epithelial cells
The digestive system processes food, extracts nutrients, and eliminates the residue. True
Enamel is found in the crown of a tooth, whereas dentin is part of both crown and root. True
_____ is a hormone, whereas _____ is an enzyme. Secretin; pepsin
Proteins are digested by different enzymes acting in the following sequence pepsin, trypsin, carboxypeptidase, dipeptidase
The enterogastric reflex serves to inhibit gastric motility when there is chime in the small intestine
Pancreatic enzymes are secreted in response to the hormone cholecystokinin (CCK)
Which of the following does not contribute to water conservation? Diuretics
The overall purpose of the countercurrent exchange system is To supply salt and urea to the renal medulla
Diseases that affect the descending corticospinal tracts may limit inhibition of the sacral somatic motor neurons and thus could result in urinary incontinence. True
The brush borders of intestinal absorptive cells contain numerous goblet cells. True
The enteric nervous system regulates much of the digestive activity but its action depends on the central nervous system. False
The serous membranes that suspend the stomach and intestines fro the abdominal wall are called. Mesenteries
The ____ of the small intestine is/are similar to the _____ of the stomach. Intestinal crypts; gastric pits
The small intestine is suspended from the abdominal wall by the mesentery
This by-product of protein catabolism constitutes approximately one-half of all nitrogenous waste. Urea
The mechanism of stabilizing the GFR based on the tendency of smooth muscle to contract when stretched is known as what? The myogenic mechanism
The thick segment of the nephron loop is impermeable to water True
Chylomicrons are secreted from the basal surface of the absorptive cells and taken into the lacteal in the villus. True
_____ is associated with food stretching the stomach and activating myenteric and vagovagal reflexes, which in turn stimulate gastric secretions. The gastric phase
Which of these nutrients is absorbed by the lacteals of the small intestine? Triglycerides
Chemical digestion breaks down _____ into _____. Nucleic acids; nucleotides
The ureters pass anterior to the bladder and enter it from below. False (posterior)
The muscle tone of the _____ along the colon contracts it lengthwise, causing its walls to bulge and form pouches called ______. Taeniae coli; haustra
Which muscle is located in the bladder? Detrusor
Atrial natriuretic peptide reduces blood volume and pressure by all of the following means except preventing sodium loss in the urine
_____ break(s) down _____. Peptidases; proteins
Which of the following is not an organ of the urinary system? Collecting duct
Which is not a function of the kidneys? They release waste into the bloodstream
Each of the following lists some of the tissue layers of the digestive tract. Which one has them in the correct order from lumen to external surface? Lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa
The innermost layer protecting the kidney and assisting in staving off infection is known as the fibrous capsule
Both pancreatic juice and bile are secreted into the duodenum. True
The countercurrent multiplier recaptures _____ and is based on fluid flowing in _____ direction in two adjacent tubules. Sodium; the opposite
Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by the proximal convoluted tubule
Defecation is stimulated by stretching of the rectum
The fenestrated endothelium of the capillary has pores small enough to exclude blood cells from the filtrate. True
Micturition is another term for the elimination of urine
Which organ system does not excrete waste? The cardiovascular system
Infants have _____ deciduous teeth, whereas adults have _____ permanent teeth. 20; 32
The transition from an afferent arteriole to an efferent arteriole occurs in the glomerulus
In a healthy kidney, very little _____ is filtered by the glomerulus. Protein
The swallowing center is located in the medulla oblongata
Carbohydrate digestion begins in the _____, whereas protein digestion begins in the _____. Mouth; stomach
All of the following are composed of cuboidal epithelium with the exception of the thin segment of the nephron loop
Which of these is the site of contact digestion? Brush border of the small intestine
Aldosterone acts on the distal convoluted tubule
Normal urine from a healthy person can be expected to contain all of the following except glucose
Lecithin prepares fats for hydrolysis by forming chylomicrons
Both chemical and mechanical digestion start in the mouth and continue in the stomach. True
Pepsinogen is produced by _____ and is activated by _____. Chief cells; hydrochloric acid (HCL) secreted by parietal cells
In life-threatening starvation, the kidneys synthesize glucose by deaminating amino acids
_____ is the physiological process that moves a nutrient from the outside to the inside of the body. Absorption
Gastric juice consists entirely of water and hydrochloric acid. False
Blood plasma is filtered in the renal corpuscle
These are normally found in saliva except protease
Acid reflux into the esophagus (heartburn) is normally prevented by the lower esophageal sphincter (LES)
Which of the following is a direct result of antidiuretic hormone? Decreased urine volume
_____ transport lipids to the surface of the intestinal absorptive cells, which process them into _____. Micelles; chylomicrons
Renin hydrolizes angiotensinogen released from the _____ to form angiotensin I. Liver
Hydrochloric acid (HCL) is secreted by _____ cells. Parietal
The small intestine has a very large absorptive surface associated with these structures except rugae
A hepatic (portal) triad consists of bile ductule, branch of hepatic artery, and branch of hepatic portal vein
Bacterial flora carry out all of the following except digest most of the proteins we get in the diet
Odor, sight and taste stimulate salivatory nuclei in the cerebral cortex. True
_____ is synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Glucagon
Negative feedback inhibition occurs when Thyroid hormone (TH) targets the anterior pituitary
This hormone plays an important role in synchronizing physiological function with the cycle of daylight and darkness. Melatonin
Thyroid hormone has a calorigenic effect. True
_____ has more target cells in the body than any of the others Growth Hormone (GH)
These are all secreted by the pancreas except Somatotropin
T4 and T3 are _____ hormones that are mainly transported _______ in the blood. Monoamine; bound to thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
______ aid in the body's defense processes by secreting histamine (vasodilator) and heparin (anticoagulant). Basophils
The hypophyseal portal system connects The anterior pituitary (adendohypophysis) with the hypothalamus
Target organs most often regulate the pituitary gland via Negative Feedback inhibition
______ is not a steroid hormone Insulin
These are all hypothalamic hormones except Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Even a small quantity of hormone can have a strong effect on its target cell because of Up-regulation
What makes a cell responsive to a particular hormone? The presence of a receptor for that particular hormone
The neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary) secretes Oxytocin (OT)
Many hours after a meal, alpha (a) cells in the pancreatic islets (islets of langerhans) secrets. Glucagon, which raises blood glucose
Prostaglandins have all of the following roles except. To stop fever and pain
The ______ secrete ________, which promotes NA+ and water retention Adrenal cortex; aldosterone
The ______ secrete a hormone that increases the body's metabolic rate, promotes, alertness, quickens reflexes, and stimulates the fetal nervous system. The thyroid gland
The infundibulum is A projection of the hypothalamus from which the pituitary gland hangs
The _______ is not an endocrine gland but it has a role in endocrine function. Kidney
_________ secretes several hormones that stimulate the development of lymphatic organs and regulates development and activity of T cells (white blood cells). Thymus
This gland has both endocrine and exocrine functions. Ovary
________ are secreted by one cell into the tissue fluid, diffuse to nearby cells in the same tissue and stimulate their physiology. Paracrines
The initial response to stress is called ______ and is mediated mainly by ______. The alarm reaction; norepinephrine and epinephrine.
Endocrine glands Release their secretions directly into the blood.
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) targets the Kidneys
Cholesterol is essential for the synthesis of steroid hormones. True
The exhaustion stage of the general adaptation (stress responses) sets in only if protein reserves are depleted. False
Serum is essentially identical to plasma except for the absence of Fibrinogen
When a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by Plasmin
Many RBCs die in the Spleen and liver
Hemostasis is the production of formed elements of blood False
Correction of hypoxemia is regulated by Negative feedback inhibition
Blood does not Produce plasma hormones
The ABO blood group is determined by ______ in the plasma membrane of RBCs. Glycolipids
The main reason why an individual AB, RH-negative cannot donate blood to an individual A, RH-positive is because Anti-B antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor.
Leukopoiesis begins with differentiation of Pluripotent stem cells (PPSCs)
Most clotting factors are synthesized in the Liver
The blood in the heart chambers provides most of the myocardium's oxygen and nutrient needs. False
All of these prevent the spontaneous formation of a clot except The presence of tissue thromboplastin
Type AB blood has ______ RBC antigen A and B
A deficiency of _____ can cause pernicious anemia Vitamin B12
The viscosity of blood is due more to _______ than to any other factor. Erothrocytes
These are the least abundant formed elements. Basophils
Lymphocytes secrete antibodies, coordinate action of other immune cells, and serve in immune memory. True
Incompatibility of one person's blood with another results from the action of plasma antibodies against the RBC's antigens. True
After a wound is sealed, tissue repair is followed by fibrinolysis. True
Platelets release _______, a chemical vasoconstrictor that contributes to the vascular spasm. Serotonin
Platelets do not secrete Throbopoietin
Lymphoid hemopoiesis occurs mainly in the bone marrow. True
_______ is not found in plasma Glycogen
Correction of hypoxemia is regulated by A negative feedback loop
Cardiac muscle shares this feature with skeletal muscle. Cardiac muscle fibers have striations
When the left ventricle contracts, the ______ valve closes and the ______ valve is pushed open. Mitral, aortic
Mitral valve stenosis causes blood to leak back into the _____ when the ventricles contract. Left atrium
Opening and closing of the heart valves is caused by Pressure gradients
This is the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiocyte in the left ventricle (LV) SA node, AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje Fibers, Cardiocyte in LV
The plateau in the action potential of cardiac muscle results from the action of Slow Ca2+ channels
The ventricles are almost empty at the end of ventricular diastole False
Papillary muscles prevent the AV valves from prolapsing (bulging) excessively into the atria when the ventricles contract. True
Cardiac muscle can only use glucose as source of organic fuel. False
Isovolumetric contraction occurs during the ______ of the electrocardiogram. R wave
Congestive heart failure (CHF) of the right ventricle Can cause systemic edema
The Frank- Starling Law of the heart states that stroke volume is proportional to The end-diastolic volume
The systemic circuit contains oxygen-rich blood only. True
Cells of the sinoatrial node _______ during the pacemaker potential Depolarize slow
_________ is the most superficial layer enclosing the heart. Parietal pericardium
________ increases stroke volume. Increased venous return
The pacemaker potential is a result of NA+ inflow
This is the correct sequence of the cardiac cycle Ventricular filling> isovolumetric contraction> ventricular ejection> isovolumetric relaxation
The _________ provides most of the Ca2+ needed for myocardial contraction. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Atrial systole begins __________ Immediately after the P wave
The triscupid regulates the opening between _________ The right atrium and the right ventricle
The pulmonary circuit is supplied by the left and right sides of the heart. False
Which of these is not part of the cardiac conduction system. The tendinous cords (TC)
An abnormal cardiac rhythm is call a Arrhythmia
________ carry oxygen-poor blood. Venae cavae and pulmonary arteries
Atrial depolarization causes The P wave
Oxygen poor blood passes through The right AV valve and pulmonary valve
During isovolumetric contraction, the pressure in the ventricles Rises rapidly
Most of the ventricle filling occurs During atrial diastole
Blood flow is pulsatile in arteries and veins, but it is steady in capillaries. False
___________ are found especially in the mucous membrane, standing guard against parasites and allergens. Eosinophils
Hypertension is commonly considered to be chronic resting blood pressure higher than 140/90
These are all vessels of the lower limb except The anterior interocosseous artery
_________ by the capillaries at the venous end. Oxygen and glucose are taken up
T cells undergo positive selection in the thymus, which means They multiply and form clones of identical T cells
The most important force driving reabsorption at the venous end of the capillary is Blood colloid osmotic pressure
Helper T (TH) cells recognize antigens when they are bound to a(n) Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein
The principal venous drainage of the thoracic organs is accomplished by way of The azygos system
The radial artery is lateral to the ulnar artery True
The amount of air in excess of tidal volume that can be inhaled with maximum effort is called Inspiratory reserve volume
Special lymphatic vessels called lacteals absorb dietary _________ that are not absorbed by the blood Lipids
Generalized vasomotion can raise or lower blood pressure throughout the body True
All of these increase blood pressure except Atrial natriuretic peptide
________ has the most important effect on blood velocity. Vessel radius
The majority of T cells of the naive lymphocyte pool wait for the encounter with foreign antigens in The lymphatic tissues
Helper T (TH) cells do not Secrete fever-producing chemicals
Vaccination stimulates Artificial active immunity
Each immunoglobulin (Ig) has ___________ antigen-bonding site(s) Two
Cytotoxic T cells respond only to antigens bound to MHC-I proteins True
Carbon dioxide is transported by all of the following means except Carbonate
Which of the following does not have cilia? Respiratory bronchioles
This is the longest vein, and portions of this vein are commonly used as grafts in coronary bypass surgery The great saphenous vein
Antibodies do not Differentiate into memory antibodies, which upon re-exposure to the same pathogen would mount a quicker attack
Vasomotion is associated with the presence of Smooth muscle in the tunica media
Basophils of the blood help to get defensive leukocytes to the site quickly by releasing an anticoagulant called ________ and a vasodilator called ________. Heparin; histamine
Your breathing rate is 14 breaths/minute; spirometric measurements reveal your tidal volume is 500 mL; your respiratory reserve volume is 3000 mL; and your expiratory reserve volume is 1200 mL. Your vital capacity is ________ mL. 4700 (VC = IRV + TV + ERV)
Increased capillary filtration, reduced reabsorption, or obstruction of lymphatic drainage can lead to edema. True
The addition of CO2 to the blood generates ________ ions in the RBCs, which in turn stimulates RBCs to unload more oxygen. Hydrogen
This is the only lymphatic organ with afferent lymphatic vessels Lymph node
One characteristic of the immune responses is specificity. This means that Immunity is directed against a particular pathogen
Red bone marrow is the point of origin of all immune cells of the lymphatic system True
________ have the thickest tunica media. Large arteries
The maximum amount of air the lungs can contain is known as inspiratory capacity. False (Total Lung Capacity)
Gas transport is the process of carrying gases from the alveoli to the systemic tissues and vice versa. True
_________ states that the total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of its individual gases. Dalton's law
The upper respiratory tract extends From the nose through the larynx
_________ does not contribute to venous return. Widespread vasodilation
Interferons are secreted in response to bacterial infections. False
Erythrocytes do not carry out aerobic respiration; thus, they do not consume any of the oxygen they are transporting. True
Immune surveillance is a process in which ________ nonspecifically detect and destroy foreign cells and decreased host cells. Natural killer (NK) cells
The ________ supplies 80% of the cerebrum. Internal carotid artery
Congestive heart failure results in which of the following? Ischemic hypoxia
The pleurae and pleural fluid help prevent the spread of pulmonary infection to the pericardium. True
The velocity of blood flow decreases when Viscosity increases
This is the class of immunoglobulin that provides passive immunity to the newborn. IgA
According to the Bohr effect, a low level of oxyhemoglobin enables the blood to transport more CO2. False
This organ shows a remarkable degree of degeneration (involution) with age. Thymus
All of these increase blood pressure except Atrial natriuretic peptide
A lung disease marked by abnormally few but large alveoli is Emphysema
_____________ are antimicrobial proteins Interferons
What is the mean arterial pressure for a person with 110 and 65 mm Hg as systolic and diastolic pressure, respectively? 80 mm Hg; 1/3(SBP-DBP)+DBP= or 1/3(110-65)+65=80
The three primary branches of the celiac trunk are the common hepatic, left gastric, and splenic veins False
This is the first of a series of neutrophil behaviors in inflammation Margination
Your breathing rate is 12 breaths/minute; your tidal volume is 500 mL; your vital capacity is 4700 mL; and your dead air space is 150 mL. Your alveolar ventilation rate is _______ mL/min. 4200; (AVR = (500-150)x12 = 4200)
The vasomotor center of the _________ controls vessels throughout the body. Medulla oblongata
The serum used for emergency treatment of snakebites stimulates Artificial passive immunity
____________ shock occurs when bacterial toxins trigger vasodilation and increase capillary permeability. Septic
____________ is not a cardinal sign characteristic of inflammation Impaired use
Before B cells secrete antibodies they differentiate into Plasma cells
All of the following can act as antigen-presenting cells except T cells
The cerebral arterial circle ( circle of Willis) is An anastomosis surrounding the pituitary gland
Most blood is in the Veins
Interleukins are chemical signals by which immune cells communicate with each other True
_________ would not increase capillary filtration. Dehydration
A pyrogen is a substance that causes Fever
The most important force driving filtration of the arterial end of a capillary is Blood hydrostatic pressure
Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system? It assists in the synthesis of vasodilators
Erythrocytes do not carry out aerobic respiration; thus, they do not consume any of the oxygen they are transporting. True
These are all veins of the upper limb except The great saphenous vein
___________ has the most important effect on the blood velocity. Vessel radius
The nose is divided into right and left halves termed the Nasal fossae
Most tissue fluid is reabsorbed by the lymphatic system. False
From superior to inferior, the major branches of the abdominal aorta are Celiac trunk, superior mesenteric artery, renal arteries, gonadal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries.
Antigen-presenting cells usually display processed antigens to T cells in Liver
Thromboplastin converts prothrombin into thrombin
Proximal convoluted tubules are responsible for reabsorbing all of the following except hydrogen ions
List the 12 Cranial Nerves. Olfactory (I), Optic (II), Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), Trigenimal (V),Adbudens (VI), Facial (VII), Vestibulocochlear (VIII), Glossopharyngeal (IX), Vagus (X), Accessory (XI), Hypoglossal (XII)
Created by: biscuit2011 on 2011-12-09

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