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3DX5X Vol 1 + 2
UREs from both volumes of 3dx5x
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)? | Duty position task |
| Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field? | Core competency |
| Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide? | Cyber Systems Operations |
| Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions? | Client Systems |
| Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices? | Radio Frequency Transmission |
| Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems? | Ground Radar Systems |
| Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations? | Cable and Antenna Systems |
| Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field? | Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) |
| Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)? | Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) |
| Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)? | Major command functional manager (MFM) |
| What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)? | Base functional manager (BFM) |
| What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)? | Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) |
| Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment?" | 91-46 |
| Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?" | 91-50 |
| The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard | 91-64 |
| From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating? | Nonionizing radiation |
| Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk? | Accept no unnecessary risk |
| Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability? | Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs |
| Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process? | Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels |
| Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by | denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace |
| Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas? | Supervisory control and data acquisition |
| Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks? | Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) |
| Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes? | Network Control Center (NCC) |
| Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages? | Combat Communications Squadron (CCS) |
| Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)? | Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) |
| Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operation flexibility and capacity to the warfighter? | Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) |
| Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States? | Constitution |
| Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps? | United States Title Code 10 |
| Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law? | Uniform Code of Military Justice |
| In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidatded their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD? | 1995 |
| In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine? | 1998 |
| Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility? | Air Force Policy Directives |
| Which publication type are informational publications which are "how to" documents? | Air Force Pamphlets |
| What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate? | Telecommunications |
| What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location? | Air Force Portal |
| What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces? | Air Force Portal |
| Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement? | Single-sign-on |
| Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal? | virtual Military Personnel Flight |
| Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems? | Community of Practice |
| Which document would you reference for guidance on "Web management and Internet use?" | AFI 33-129 |
| Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites? | AFI 35-101 |
| When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette? | Consistently use the "Reply-to-All" feature |
| Which document is not considered an official government record? | Library reference or museum exhibitions |
| Records that are considered to be in draft format | can be altered and are not officially released |
| Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic? | Officially signed and officially released |
| Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers? | Command records manager |
| Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training? | Base records manager |
| Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management? | Functional area records manager |
| Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record? | Chief of Office of Records |
| A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an | record |
| A logical group of record is called a/an | file |
| An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a/an | database |
| Who is responsible for creating unique passwords for the office of primarily responsibility (OPR) records custodian? | Functional area records manager |
| Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management? | Second step |
| The primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure | we can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed |
| What authorization generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office's file plan? | Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) |
| What determines the cutoff for active records? | Retention period |
| A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a | disposition |
| For which exception will federal records centers accept records having less than 3 years of retention? | Base closures |
| Which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records centers, staging areas or to transfer records to another organization? | Standard Form 135 |
| The proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is by | any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding; as long as personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction |
| AFPD 10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns what requirements with a matching force generation model? | Tempo bands |
| Which organization is responsible for air and space expeditionary force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements? | Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) |
| What places air and space expeditionary force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)? | Posturing |
| Who has the primary mission of providing the joint force air component commander (JFACC) with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war within the scope and coordination of all land, sea, and air forces? | Air and Space Operations Center |
| Which document is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of air and space expeditionary forces (AEF)? | Unit type codes |
| Which function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications by way of line-of-sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources? | Theater deployable communications |
| Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non-Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of | operational capabilities packages |
| Which function has the primary purpose of providing standard force package descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command? | Manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK) |
| A remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads is called a/an | unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV) |
| As of September 2004, how many total flight hours have coalition unmanned aircrafts flown to support Operation ENDURING FREEDOM and Operation IRAQI FREEDOM? | 100,000 |
| Which system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in near real-time? | High altitude endurance (HAE) |
| Which theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires equipment modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases, vehicles, or shelterized configurations? | Modularity-scalability |
| Which theater deployable communications equipment characteristic requires size, weight, power requirements, and equipment set-up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support the transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment? | Mobility |
| Which component of theater deployable communications (TDC) is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network? | Integrated communications access package (ICAP) |
| Which system provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft; provide final approach guidance, and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather? | Deployable Air Traffic-Control and Landing Systems (DATCALS) |
| Which system asset can be tasked to provide liaison, control tower, Radar Approach Control (RAPCON), precision landing, and mobile Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) services as a standalone unit or in any combination? | Deployable Air Traffic-Control and Landing Systems (DATCALS) |
| The 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is assigned to the | Air Combat Command (ACC) |
| Under what program does the Department of Defense (DOD) collects, processes, produces, disseminates, and uses information? | Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR) |
| What system provides connectivity between the US and allied forces for critical missions and enhances worldwide readiness, mobility, responsiveness, and operations? | Global Information Grid (GIG) |
| Which system is employed at more than 600 sites across the global information grid (GIG) and interconnected through the SIPRNET? | Global Command and Control System (GCCS) |
| Which major system employs the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES), Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS), Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES), and Common Operational Picture (COP) systems? | Global Command and Control System (GCCS) |
| Which system primarily deals with logistics planning data, such as transportation, personnel, and material requirements? | Global Combat Support System (GCSS) |
| Which system of interconnected computer networks is used by the United States Department of Defense and the United States Department of State? | Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) |
| Which Air Force specific system uses the global information grid (GIG) backbone for inter-site communications and was designed to provide an automated and integrated planning and execution capability to the Combat Air Forces and Joint/Combined Forces? | Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS) |
| Which system provides a solution to a decrease in manpower and increase in requirements, at the same time, taking advantage of new technological developments to deliver superior connectivity, flexibility, speed, reliability, and joint interoperability? | Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS) |
| Which command and control structure is a priority component of the global information grid (GIG) designed to support the President, SECDEF, and the JCS in the exercise of their responsibilities? | National Military Command System (NMCS) |
| Which command and control structure is a primary network used to transmit the emergency action messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field? | Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) |
| Which command and control structure has network node whose survivability is achieved using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths? | Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) |
| Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy, and Air Force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems? | SEAMARK |
| Which program was created in response to the FY 97-03 Defense Planning Guidance that directed a "program to migrate to a multi-intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems architecture"? | Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS) |
| Which systems basic functions operational elements are tasking, processing, exploitation, and dissemination (TPED)? | Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS) |
| Which system is a radar tracker and correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server based computer system, which takes inputs from long and short range radars and displays it all on a scope (computer monitor)? | Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F) |
| Which system capitalizes on the popular commercial direct broadcast satellite technology to provide critical information to the nation's warfighters? | Global Broadcast Service (GBS) |
| Which system is a service that broadcasts via communication payloads on military satellites (Ka band) and commercial satellites (Ku band)? | Global Broadcast Service (GBS) |
| Which system is a USAF program supporting Global, Defense Communication System (DCS) HF Entry, Mystic Star, and System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA) missions? | High Frequency-Global Communications System (HF-GCS) |
| Which system provides high-quality voice/data HF and ultra-high frequency (UHF) satellite communications to the president, vice president, cabinet members, and other senior government and military officials while aboard (SAM) aircraft? | Mystic Star |
| Which system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no support? | Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS) |
| Which system can be deployed in either the Control Reporting Center or Control Reporting Element configurations? | Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS) |
| What function provides the (DOD) with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via personal computers (PC), personal digital assistants (PDAs), land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and/or giant voice systems in real-time? | AtHoc's solutions |
| What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems? | Physical |
| The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open System Interconnect Data Link Layers into what two sublayers? | Logical Link Control and Media Access Control |
| At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges operate? | Data Link |
| At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate? | Network |
| At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used? | Presentation |
| What Open System Interconnect layer is closest to the end user? | Application |
| What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium? | Protocol |
| What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media? | Physical |
| What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted, throughout the network? | Logical |
| What topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable? | Bus |
| What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component? | Star |
| What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network? | Hybrid |
| Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information? | Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol |
| What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control Address? | Address Resolution Protocol |
| What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address? | Reverse Address Resolution Protocol |
| What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting? | Internet Control Message Protocol |
| What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services? | Transmission Control Protocol |
| What application within Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol is used to send and receive files via TCP? | File Transfer Protocol |
| What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distance between cities, states, countries, or around the world? | Wide Area Network |
| What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enable a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet? | Virtual Private Network |
| Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol servers and proxies? | Port 8080 |
| How many bits are in an IPv4 address? | 32 bits |
| Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly? | Dotted Decimal Notation |
| Using a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to? | Class A |
| What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes? | Class C |
| What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing? | Class D |
| What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back? | 127.0.0.1 |
| What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number? | Subnet mask |
| What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks? | 255.255.0.0 |
| What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet? | Classless Inter-Domain Routing |
| Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly? | Colon Hexadecimal Format |
| What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6? | 1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234 |
| What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6? | 10AB::3:0:1234:5678 |
| What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will not originate from, or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic? | Link-local |
| What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site? | Site-local |
| What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID portion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation? | Aggregatable Global |
| The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit, also called the | microprocessor |
| What two main components make up the central processing unit? | Control unit and arithmetic logic unit |
| What is the type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost? | Nonvolatile |
| Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications? | Twisted pair cable |
| An optical communications system is comprised of a | transmitter, cable, and receiver |
| Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology? | Safety |
| The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called | mobility |
| Which of the following is not one the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network? | Direct Connections |
| Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network? | Employee |
| What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks? | Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers |
| How many peripherals can a Universal Serial Bus handle at once? | 127 |
| How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus? | 63 |
| What do you apply across Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property? | Voltage |
| What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks? | Bridge |
| What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment? | 80/20 rule |
| This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another | Translational |
| What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, and error check is performed, and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery? | Store-and-forward |
| What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching? | Fragment-free |
| What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate? | Layer 3 |
| What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination? | Routing tables |
| Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol? | Border Gateway Protocol |
| Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes? | 2 |
| What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate? | TSEC/KIV-7 |
| What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits? | TSEC/KIV-19 |
| What encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys? | AN/CYZ-10/DTD |
| The classification of a fill device is | classified as soon as a key is loaded, and holds the classification of the loaded key |
| A modem is a device that modulates | digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium |
| Analog modems are used over the voice band range of | 20 Hz to 20kHz |
| The main function of the Data Service Unit is to | adapt the digital data stream produced by the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment |
| Software is generally divided into | systems software, operating systems software, and applications software |
| Which one is not a category of the operating system's task categories? | Troubleshoot interface |
| The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computer's motherboard goes through a special program called a | driver |
| The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system which resides with the | kernel |
| Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks? | specific |
| What are two anti-virus programs that the Air Force uses? | Norton and McAfee |
| Windows operating systems traditionally function in one of two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts? | Workgroup |
| Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services? | Enterprise Edition |
| One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support for high-end, high traffic applications servers. Which Operating system is it? | Datacenter Edition |
| What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems? | UNIX |
| What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used? | Bourne shell |
| What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition? | root |
| Which pathnames begin at the current working directory? | Relative |
| This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network | Warrior component |
| This characteristic of the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of information between different service branches | Common policy and standards |
| Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network? | The service that owns the installation |
| Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the deployed Area of Responsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat? | Deployed warfighter |
| What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router? | Interconnected via the Defense Information Systems Agency Asynchronous Transfer Mode network |
| How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network? | Encapsulated by the internet protocol before being transmitted across the SIPRNET |
| Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks? | KG-84 |
| What provides conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System data transmission from one location to another? | DISN backbone |
| What concerns slowed the military's adoption of wireless network technology? | Security and reliability |
| What is the first step in merging voice, data, and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force? | Integrating traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems |
| Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat Information Transport Systems initiative will help increase network security? | Eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two Integrated NOSCs |
| Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network? | Defense Information Systems Agency |
| How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network? | The DSN offers precedence access thresholding |
| What type of Defense Switched Network precedence call cannot be preempted? | Flash Override |
| What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network? | 19.2 Kbps |
| While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security? | Liquid crystal display |
| What is the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal? | To provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders |
| The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of universal time code? | 1 microsecond |
| Which security program is covered under AFI 10-701? | OPSEC |
| Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities? | OPSEC |
| Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement? | Routine use |
| What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material? | AF Form 3227 |
| Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in | AFI 33-129 |
| Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in | AFI 31-501 |
| Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as | sensitive but unclassified |
| What is the COMSEC program designed to do? | Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information |
| What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging? | AFI 33-119 |
| Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package? | SF 153 |
| Which form is used as a visitior register log to record visitors into restricted areas? | AF Form 1109 |
| An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC | incident |
| Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers? | Air Force Communications Agency |
| Final reports of a communication security incident are due | 30 days after the initial report is issued |
| The Air Force Information Assurance Program is detailed in | AFI 33-200 |
| Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction? | COMPUSEC |
| What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment? | Emanation |
| An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as | Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions (TEMPEST) |
| Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks? | INFOCON 5 |
| Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present? | INFOCON 4 |
| When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected? | INFOCON 3 |
| Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication? | INFOCON 2 |
| At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed? | Tier 1 |
| At what level do regional operation centers perform (NETOPS) to ensure operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management? | Tier 2 |
| An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as | a full accreditation |
| Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts? | "B" |
| Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts? | "C" |
| Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "confidential" information? | SF 708 |
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