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BIOL237 Final

Anatomy flashcards for UNM BIOL237 final exam

QuestionAnswer
Spongy bone lacks: Haversian systems
True/False: Is a mastoid sinus a one of the paranasal sinuses? False.
The large anterior fontanel hardens at: 1.5 to 2 years after birth
The occipital condyles articulate with superior surfaces on the: atlas
The olfactory nerves pass through holes in the _____ on their way to the olfactory bulb of the brain. cribriform plate
The cell which acts first in the process of remodeling in adult bone: osteoclast
The primary bone which forms the nasal cavity is the: ethmoid bone
The primary stimulus for adult bone remodeling is: stress placed on the bone from weight bearing exercise
The component responsible for the flexibility and resilience of bone is: collagen fibers
This hormone is directly necessary for calcium absorption from the gut. Vitamin D3
An excess or abuse of this hormone can lead to acromegaly and sometimes pituitary diabetes. growth hormone
Endochondral ossification begins at about _____ in the developing embryo. 8 weeks
Post-menopausal osteoporosis is characterized by ___ calcium in the blood. higher than normal
The primary characteristic which causes melanocytes to metastasize is their: ability to migrate
Which of the following signaling chemicals called pheromones? apocrine glands
Chondrocytes are found within fluid-filled spaces called: lacunae
When tissue wraps to form a tubule the ___ surface is toward the lumen. apical
define hemidesmosome these connect epithelium to its basement membrane
define gap junction osteocytes use this to exchange calcium ions
define desmosome also known as macula adherens, these prevent cells in the epidermis and other tissues from pulling apart
define tight junction block or partially block the transport of molecules between cells in a semipermeable membrane
define zona adherens these are small junctions for attaching cells together
The two primary components of all connective tissues are: cells and matrix
A process which requires rapid response will usually utilize: positive feedback
Which of the following tissues is well vascularized and experiences functional repair? bone, adipose, cartilage, all of the above, bone and adipose but not cartilage bone and adipose but not cartilage
Unlike most other ligaments, the ligamentum flavum in the vertebral column contains: elastic fibers
Goblet cells are an important functional cell in: mucous membranes
The rectus femoris acts to move the: tibial tuberosity
Extremely small passages that connect the lacunae to each other in bone tissue are called: canaliculi
The patellar ligament connect the patella to the: tibial tuberosity
Immediately after, and as a result of, the neurotransmitter making contact with receptors on the sarcolemma: Na+ gates open causing Na+ to enter the muscle cell.
Which muscle is NOT a member of the rotator cuff? trees major, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis teres major
The autoimmune disease in which the immune system cells release chemicals which attack the joint tissues and cause severe inflammation is called: rheumatoid arthritis
Melanocytes are part of which layer? stratum basale
Adipose tissue located in the ___ would be used to determine nutritional condition at time of death. yellow marrow
A _____ is a tendinous structure that prevents the displacement of other tendons or ligaments and holds them in their normal positions. retinaculum
The connective tissue surrounding each muscle cell is the: endomysium
Which muscle listed is not a member of the rotator cuff muscles? teres major
The latissimus dorsi and teres major are: synergists in adducting the arm
White fibers have: stored glycogen
Fast twitch red (intermediate) fibers can utilize _____ to provide energy for metabolism. the phosphagen system, anaerobic glycosis, and aerobic metabolism
The type of muscle possessing short, branching, cells. cardiac and smooth
The _____ along with the semimembraneosus and semitendinosus are called the hamstrings. biceps femoris
An action of the tibialis anterior is: dorsiflexion and inversion
The primary insertion of the triceps brachii is on the: olecranon process
A synergist of the gastrocnemius is the: soleus and peroneus (fibularis) longus
Which of the following muscles is not a member of the quadriceps group? biceps femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius, rectus femoris biceps femoris
Spasm of the _____ is a common cause of TMJ disorder. lateral pterygoid muscle
Briefly explain why calcium supplements will not help a woman during the early stages of post-menopausal osteoporosis. Reduced estrogen causes calcium to leave the bones, therefore serum calcium levels are high. This suppresses PTH and Vitamin D and reduces calcium absorption
Briefly explain what bursae are and their function. Bursae are synovial sacks which lubricate the movement of tendons and ligaments to prevent friction and irritation.
All the parts of the ear are found in the ______ bone temporal
What structural characteristic of epithelial cells would enhance their ability to secrete and absorb substances? microvilli or mitochondria
What is the name for the portion of the bone containing holes through which olfactory nerves ascend to the brain? cribriform plate
Which of the following is important in thermoregulation? eccrine sweat glands
The stroma of the lungs contains _____ which permits its expansion and recoil. elastic connective tissue
When a tissue experiences parenchymal repair the new tissue _____ produce the tissue's orignal function. does
The stroma of the body's soft organs is made of: reticular tissue
Which of the following tissues is well vascularized and experiences true parenchymal repair? bone, adipose, cartilage bone and adipose
Define areolar the most abundant connective tissue
define p.c.c.e. normally the the most abundant lining in the respiratory tract
define dense regular tendons are made of this type
define dense irregular comprises the deep dermis
define transitional stretchable epithelium
where is fibrocartilage found? in symphysis pubis
where is elastic cartilage found? in the epiglottis and ear
where is hyaline cartilage found? as costal cartilage
where is mesenchyme found? all connective tissues are derived from this
where is serosa found? a lining and covering membrane
Cranial bones start out as a: fibrous connective tissue membrane
The last location within a long bone of cartilage formation is: epiphyseal plate
The spaces in spongy bone are initially filled with: red marrow
the myeloid tissue responsible for hematopoiesis is found in the: red marrow
Collagen fibers which run from the fibrous bone covering into the bone itself are called: Sharpey's fibers
The distal epiphyseal plate of long bones hardens at: early twenties
The large anterior fontanel hardens at: 1.5 to 2 years after birth
Once completely hardened, osteoprogenitor cells must come from the _____ for bone repair. periosteum
Ca+2 is released into the sarcoplasm when an action potential stimulates the: sarcoplasmic reticulum
A sack made of synovial membrane which lies between tendons, ligaments, and nearby bones is called: bursa
The intervertebral disks are which type of joint classified according to structure? cartilaginous
Which type of arthritis involves the greatest degree of inflammation and disability? rheumatoid arthritis
The sarcolemma is polarized because more _____ are pumped out than ___ are pumped in. Na+, and K+
The _____ surrounds a muscle and fuses with a tendon or aponeurosis. epimysium
The intervertebral disks are what type of joint, classified by movement? amphiarthrosis
A syndesmosis is actually a small _____ which connects bones in a non-movable way. ligament
Joints which non-movable are usually classified structurally as _____ joints. fibrous
The trigger which causes vesicles of acetylcholine to move to the axon membrane and release ACh is: Ca+2
What event causes repolarization of the sarcolemma? Opening of potassium channels.
What is the next thing which happens after an impulse enters the T tubules? Calcium ions enter the sarcoplasm from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
What is the first thing that happens when an impulse reaches the axon terminus of a neuromuscular junction? Calcium ions enter the axon
As a result of threshold depolarization at the neuromuscular junction, what happens on the adjacent sarcolemma? Opening of the voltage-gated sodium channels.
As soon as Ca++ ions enter the axon: Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft by exocytosis.
What event causes opening of the chemically-gated Na+ channels? Acetylcholine binds to post-synaptic receptors on the sarcolemma.
As a direct result of Ca+2 binding to troponin: The troponin-tropomyosin complex shifts, exposing the active sites on actin.
As soon as the active sites are exposed on actin: Attachment of actin-myosin crossbridges and swiveling of the myosin heads.
Which event is required for detachment of the crossbridges? Uptake of ATP by the myosin heads.
Which event, required for continued function of the neuromuscular junction, is prevented by certain pesticide and nerve gas poisons? Breakdown of ACh by AChase.
As soon as Ca++ ions are released into the sarcoplasm: Binding of calcium ions to Troponin C.
Curare acts as a muscle relaxant by competing with this process: Acetylcholine binding to post-synaptic receptors on the sarcolemma.
An action potential is generated on the sarcolemma by which event of the following: Opening of the voltage-gated sodium channels.
What event causes depolarization of the sarcolemma at the neuromuscular junction? Opening of the chemically-gated sodium channels.
Which of the following binds calcium ions: sarcoplasmic reticulum, troponin C, myosin or all of them sarcoplasmic reticulum and troponin C
The cell bodies of spinal sensory neurons are located in: dorsal root ganglion
A multipolar neuron has: Many dendrites and only one axon attached to the cell body.
A tract with the name vestibulospinal would be: descending and motor
Which of the following tracts does not send impulses ultimately to the cerebral cortex? spinocerebellar tract, Fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis, spinothalamic tract spinocerebellar tract
Unmyelinated fiber, synapses, and cell bodies in the brain and spinal cord are located in: gray matter
The period during which the trigger region is effectively inhibited but not prevented from generating an action potential is the: relative refractory period and the period of hyperpolarization
The crossed extensor reflex consists of: A withdrawal reflex on one side of the body and extension on the other side.
A demyelination disorder of the CNS which results in impaired and disrupted conduction along axons is: multiple sclerosis
Prior sub-threshold depolarization of a reflex pathway produces: facilitation
Prior sub-threshold hyperpolarization of a reflex pathway produces: inhibition
High frequency stimuli result from: A stimulus of high intensity on the body's soma.
Once an action potential is generated, another cannot be generated until the ion gates return to the following configuration: Na+ activation gate closed, Na+ inactivation gate open, K+ gate closed.
A small local depolarization or hyperpolarization may be called: EPSP, IPSP, graded potential
The relative refractory period occurs during: closing of K+ gates when excess K+ has left the neuron.
When a pathway is automatically facilitated by the brain, when the proper circumstances are present, it is called: learned reflex
The area said to represent intelligence and an interpretive area for language is the: Wernicke's area
The receptive region of a multipolar neuron would include: dendrites
Most glands are _____ by the sympathetic nervous system. inhibited
Which of the following tracts is responsible for conscious sensations? Fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis and the spinothalamic tract
The predominant fibers in dense regular connective tissue are: collagen
The types of muscle which exhibit striations are: skeletal and cardiac muscle
Both cartilage and bone possess: lacunae
The _____ is derived from the canal within the primitive neural tube. ventricles of brain and the spinal canal
The term "complementarity" used in Anatomy and Physiology refers to the deterministic relationship between: Structure and function in body tissues, organs, and systems.
Which of the following is a way in which the somatic and autonomic nervous systems are similar? both have motor fibers
For which of the following activities is the parasympathetic nervous system generally responsible? resting and digesting
Oculomotor nerves are responsible for which of the following functions? Focusing the eyes on close objects
Which of the following is NOT an autonomic nervous system effector? skeletal muscle
Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system? skeletal muscle
Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation? dilation of the pupils
The parasympathetic division uses only ________ as a neurotransmitter in the ganglionic neurons. acetylcholine
True/False: Because the ANS is a visceral motor system, afferent pathways are of no importance and actually are rarely found. False
True/False: Acetylcholine is the substance released by the axonal endings of the somatic efferent fibers and by the parasympathetic nerve fiber endings. True
True/False: Most body organs are innervated by only the sympathetic division of the nervous system. False
True/False: The ANS stimulates smooth and skeletal muscles and glands, whereas the somatic nervous system innervates cardiac muscles only. False
Which of the following does not receive branch fibers of the vagus nerves? Inferior hypogastric plexus
Why might an individual experience the phenomenon known as "referred pain"? Visceral pain afferents travel along the same pathways as somatic pain fibers.
The two types of receptors that bind acetylcholine are _______ and _______ receptors. Nicotinic; muscarinic
Which division of the nervous system has short preganglionic neurons? sympathetic
Which of the following is NOT a function of the parasympathetic division of the ANS? emergency action
What differentiates an autonomic reflex from a somatic reflex? a two-neuron motor pathway
Sensory nerve endings that are located in the carotid bodies are rich in vagal fibers. How, and why, would external stimulation of the carotid artery, such as carotid massage, affect the heart rate? The heart rate would slow down because of stimulation of the parasympathetic system.
The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________. sympathetic stimulation
Which of the following does not describe the ANS? a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells
The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following except ________. all of the neurotransmitters
Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________. sympathetic nervous system
The parasympathetic ganglion that serves the eye is the ________. ciliary ganglion
Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except ________. dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ________. X
The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________. a parasympathetic division
True/False: Sympathetic origin is craniosacral, parasympathetic is thoracolumbar. False
Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra? first thoracic
The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision. oculomotor
Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic chain without synapsing form structures called ________. splanchnic nerves
True/False: Is the celiac a plexus of the vagus nerve? False
Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________. visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________. increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________. tenth cranial nerve
Parasympathetic functions include ________. lens accommodation for close vision
The vagus nerve does not innervate the ________. parotid gland
Sweat glands are innervated by the ________ fibers alone. sympathetic
The ________ division alone stimulates the lens of the eye. parasympathetic
The two cholinergic receptor types are ________ and ________. nicotinic, muscarinic
The ________ receptor type is used by the heart, and when activated increases heart rate. beta
Which of the following best demonstrates an example of cooperation of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems? Parasympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation of blood vessels in the penis, leading to erection; sympathetic stimulation then causes ejaculation.
Which of the following is responsible for the overall integration of the autonomic nervous system? hypothalamus
Which of the following target organs/systems is affected by the sympathetic nervous system, but not affected by the parasympathetic nervous system? Cellular metabolism and coronary blood vessels
Which of the following is not an antagonistic interaction of the sympathetic nervous system? Increased cognitive functioning
Conduction through the autonomic efferent chain is faster than conduction in the somatic motor system. False
Which autonomic neurons release norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter? sympathetic postganglionic neurons
Which target organ is NOT affected by the parasympathetic division of the ANS? adrenal medulla
The two divisions of the ANS normally have what relationship? antagonistic
What is the effect of norepinephrine on the heart? an increase in heart rate
Which of the following is responsible for the overall integration of the ANS? hypothalamus
Fainting occurs only in warm room. What is the cause of the fainting, and how does it relate to the autonomic nervous system and to room temperature? The fainting episodes are a result of orthostatic hypotension. The condition is exaggerated when blood supply to the skin is increased, such as when the room is warm.
What surgery is needed to correct Raynaud's disease; will she have anhidrosis (lack of sweating) or hyperhidrosis (profuse sweating) after? The doctor will perform a sympathectomy, and the affected hand will suffer from anhidrosis.
The Ears would be ____________ to the Nose. lateral
The Integumentary system is the most __________ organ system of the body. superficial
The Fingers would be ___________ to the shoulder. distal
Location of the epithelial tissue: simple cuboidal tubules of the kidney
Location of the epithelial tissue: transitional lining of the bladder
Location of the epithelial tissue: simple squamous alveolar sacs of the lungs
Location of the epithelial tissue: PCCE respiratory tract
Location of the epithelial tissue: stratified squamous integumentary system
What is the function of adipose connective tissue? insulates body from heat and cold
What is the function of osseous connective tissue? forms your hip bone
What is the function of areolar connective tissue? composes basement membrane and packages organs
What is the function of hyaline cartilage? form the larynx
What bone markings aid in forming joints? facet, head, ramus and condyle
What are the bone Marking that allows blood vessels and/or nerves to pass? foramen
The most common cartilage in the body, which forms the articular cartilage, costal cartilage and Nose is __________. hyaline cartilage
Once completely hardened, bone forming cells must come from the _____ for bone repair. periosteum
Collagen fibers which run from the fibrous bone covering into the bone itself are called: sharpley's fibers
For the bone category "long bones", the spaces within spongy bone are initially filled with: red marrow
Which type of bone is a rib? flat
Which type of bone is the humerus? long
Which type of bone are the carpals? short
Which type of bone are the vertebrae? irregular
Both cartilage and bone tissues possess: lacunae
All ribs articulate directly with the: thoracic vertebrae
There are _____ pair of ribs. 12
The first cervical vertebra is called the: atlas
Almost all growth of the _____ occurs by 2 years of age. cranial bones
The last part of a long bone to harden is the: epiphyseal plate
True/False: Is the coxyx part of the hip (coxal) bone? false
This bony landmark of the pelvic girdle receives the head of the femur. acetabulum
The type of muscle found in the intestines is _________. smooth muscle
Which types of joints give you the three types of Functional Joints? synarthroses, ampiarthroses and diarthroses
The type of synovial joint created by the articulation of the humerus and the ulna is a _________ joint. hinge
Which muscle play a role in inspiration (i.e., drawing air into the lungs)? diaphragm, scales and external intercostals
The Triceps Brachii has how many origins? 3
The superficial Flexor muscles of the forearm all originate on what bony landmark? Medial Epicondyle of the Humerus
A muscle that opposes the movement of another muscle is a/an ____________. antagonist
The gluteus minimus and sartorious are synnergists for what function? abduction of the thigh
True or False: the "Hamstrings" are made up of the semitendinosus, the semimembranosus, and the biceps brachii. false
What is the action of the: peroneus longus extension
What is the action of the: tibialis anterior dorsiflexion
What is the action of the: psoas major flexion
Which muscle is antagonist to the: iliacus gluteus maximus
What is the action of the: biceps femoris gluteus medias
What is the action of the: adductor longus vastus lateralis
What is the action of the: erectus abdominus erector spinae
The tibialis anterior and the peroneus longus are _______ to each other. antagonists
True/False: the gastrocnemius is a synnergist to the soleus. true
Created by: Susanannholland on 2012-07-23



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